Competition Act 1998

Type Public General Act
Publication 1998-11-09
Last updated 2026-01-27
State In force
Department Statute Law Database
articles Not indexed
Reform history JSON API
  • (5) Where the defendant is not the infringer, the references in sub-paragraph (2)(a) and (b) to the defendant are to be read as references to the infringer.
10
  • (1) Sub-paragraph (2) applies where there is an underpayment as a result of an infringement of competition law and—
  • (a) a competition claim within paragraph 2(2)(a) is made in respect of loss or damage which—
  • (i) arises, directly or indirectly, from the underpayment, and
  • (ii) was suffered by a person who provided a product or service indirectly to the infringer (“the injured person”), or
  • (b) a competition claim within paragraph 2(2)(b) is made in respect of the underpayment.
  • (2) The claimant is to be treated as having proved that the underpayment was passed on to the claimant if the claimant proves that—
  • (a) the defendant infringed competition law,
  • (b) as a result of the infringement, there was an underpayment when a person provided a product or service directly to the defendant, and
  • (c) the product or service mentioned in paragraph (b)—
  • (i) was provided to the person by the claimant, or
  • (ii) contained or was derived from a product or service provided by the claimant.
  • (3) Sub-paragraph (2) does not apply if the defendant proves that the underpayment, or part of it, was not passed on to the claimant.
  • (4) Where the claimant is not the injured person, the following are to be read as references to the injured person—
  • (a) the second reference to the claimant in the opening words of sub-paragraph (2), and
  • (b) the references to the claimant in sub-paragraphs (2)(c) and (3).
  • (5) Where the defendant is not the infringer, the references in sub-paragraph (2)(a) and (b) to the defendant are to be read as references to the infringer.
11
  • (1) This paragraph applies where—
  • (a) there is an overcharge or underpayment as a result of an infringement of competition law,
  • (b) a person makes a competition claim in respect of ... the overcharge or underpayment, and
  • (c) in its defence, the defendant claims that the claimant passed on all or part of the overcharge or underpayment to another person.
  • (2) The defendant has the burden of proving—
  • (a) that the claimant passed on the overcharge or underpayment, and
  • (b) the extent to which the claimant did so.
  • (3) Where the competition claim is made by someone other than a person who suffered loss or damage arising directly or indirectly from the overcharge or underpayment (“the injured person”), the references in sub-paragraphs (1)(c) and (2) to the claimant are to be read as references to the injured person.

Part 3 — Small and Medium-Sized Enterprises

12
  • (1) Sub-paragraph (3) applies where—
  • (a) an undertaking participated in an infringement of competition law with one or more other undertakings,
  • (b) throughout the period of the infringement, the undertaking’s share of the relevant market (or, if there was more than one, each relevant market) was less than 5%,
  • (c) but for this paragraph, the undertaking’s liability to pay damages in respect of the infringement (whatever the legal basis of the liability) would irretrievably jeopardise its economic viability and cause its assets to lose all their value, and
  • (d) the undertaking is a small or medium-sized enterprise.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (3) does not apply where—
  • (a) the undertaking led the infringement,
  • (b) the undertaking coerced one or more of the other undertakings to participate in the infringement, or
  • (c) the undertaking has previously been found to have infringed competition law.
  • (3) The undertaking is not liable (either alone or jointly) to pay damages in respect of loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of the infringement of competition law (whatever the legal basis of the liability) except where—
  • (a) the person acquired a product or service that was the object of the infringement directly or indirectly from the undertaking, or
  • (b) the person acquired a product or service containing or derived from a product or service that was the object of the infringement indirectly from the undertaking.
  • (4) The reference in sub-paragraph (1)(c) to the effect of the undertaking’s liability to pay damages is to its effect taking account of the undertaking’s other liabilities.
  • (5) In this paragraph “small or medium-sized enterprise” means a small or medium-sized enterprise as defined in the Annex to Commission Recommendation (EC) No. 2003/361 of 6 May 2003 (“the SME Annex”), subject to sub-paragraph (6).
  • (6) For the purposes of this paragraph, the SME Annex has effect as if—
  • (a) in Article 2(1), for “EUR 50 million and/or an annual balance sheet total not exceeding EUR 43 million” there were substituted “ £44,000,000 and/or an annual balance sheet total not exceeding £38,000,000 ”;
  • (b) in Article 2(2), for “EUR 10 million” there were substituted “ £8,800,000 ”;
  • (c) in Article 2(3), for “EUR 2 million” there were substituted “ £1,750,000 ”;
  • (d) in Article 3(2)(a), for “EUR 1 250 000” there were substituted “ £1,100,000 ”;
  • (e) in Article 3(2)(d), for “EUR 10 million” there were substituted “ £8,800,000 ”;
  • (f) in Article 3(5), for “by national or Community rules” there were substituted “ under the law of the United Kingdom (or any part of it) ”;
  • (g) in Article 5(b), for “national law” there were substituted “ the law of the United Kingdom (or any part of it) ”.

Part 4 — Cartels

13

For the purposes of competition proceedings, it is to be presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that a cartel causes loss or damage.

14
  • (1) Paragraphs 15 and 16 apply where—
  • (a) undertakings have infringed the Chapter I prohibition ... by participating in a cartel, and
  • (b) in respect of its participation in the infringement (the “cartel infringement”), an undertaking has been granted immunity from financial penalties under a cartel leniency programme.
  • (2) The undertaking mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b) is referred to in paragraphs 15 and 16 as “an immunity recipient”.
15
  • (1) An immunity recipient is not liable (either alone or jointly) to pay damages to a person as a result of the cartel infringement (whatever the legal basis of the liability) except where—
  • (a) the person acquired a product or service that was the object of the cartel infringement directly or indirectly from the immunity recipient,
  • (b) the person acquired a product or service containing or derived from a product or service that was the object of the cartel infringement indirectly from the immunity recipient,
  • (c) the person provided a product or service that was the object of the cartel infringement directly or indirectly to the immunity recipient,
  • (d) a product or service that was the object of the cartel infringement contained or was derived from a product or service provided by the person, or
  • (e) the person is unable to obtain full compensation for the loss or damage from other undertakings involved in the cartel infringement.
  • (2) But an immunity recipient is not liable (either alone or jointly) by virtue of sub-paragraph (1)(e) to pay exemplary damages.
16
  • (1) Sub-paragraph (2) applies in relation to proceedings to recover contribution under section 1 of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978 or section 3(2) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1940 where contribution is to be recovered—
  • (a) in respect of loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of a cartel infringement, and
  • (b) from a person who is an immunity recipient in relation to the cartel infringement.
  • (2) The amount of contribution that the immunity recipient may be required to pay may not exceed the amount of the loss or damage the immunity recipient caused to—
  • (a) persons who acquired products or services that were the object of the cartel infringement directly or indirectly from the immunity recipient,
  • (b) persons who acquired products or services containing or derived from products or services that were the object of the cartel infringement indirectly from the immunity recipient,
  • (c) persons who provided products or services that were the object of the cartel infringement directly or indirectly to the immunity recipient, and
  • (d) persons who provided—
  • (i) products or services that were subsequently contained in products or services that were the object of the cartel infringement, or
  • (ii) products or services from which products or services that were the object of the cartel infringement were subsequently derived.
  • (3) The following have effect subject to sub-paragraph (2)—
  • (a) section 2(1) of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978 (assessment of contribution);
  • (b) section 3(2) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1940 (contribution among joint wrongdoers).

Part 5 — Limitation and Prescriptive Periods

17
  • (1) Under the law of England and Wales and the law of Northern Ireland, proceedings in respect of a competition claim may not be brought before a court or the Tribunal after the end of the limitation period for the claim determined in accordance with this Part of this Schedule.
  • (2) Under the law of Scotland—
  • (a) proceedings in respect of a competition claim may not be brought before a court or the Tribunal after the end of the prescriptive period for the claim determined in accordance with this Part of this Schedule, and
  • (b) accordingly, an obligation in respect of any loss or damage that is the subject of the claim is extinguished,

except where the subsistence of the obligation in relation to which the claim is made was relevantly acknowledged before the end of that period.

  • (3) Section 6 of the Prescription and Limitation (Scotland) Act 1973 (extinction of obligations by prescriptive periods of 5 years) does not apply in relation to an obligation described in sub-paragraph (2).
  • (4) The following provisions of the Prescription and Limitation (Scotland) Act 1973 apply for the purposes of, or in relation to, sub-paragraph (2) as they apply for the purposes of, or in relation to, section 6 of that Act—
  • (a) section 10 (relevant acknowledgment);
  • (b) section 13 (prohibition of contracting out);
  • (c) section 14(1)(c) and (d) (computation of prescriptive periods).
18
  • (1) The limitation period is 6 years.
  • (2) The prescriptive period is 5 years.
  • (3) But see—
  • (a) the provision in paragraphs 20 to 25 for the running of the period to be suspended in certain circumstances, and
  • (b) paragraph 23(5), which extends the period in certain circumstances.
19
  • (1) The limitation or prescriptive period for a competition claim against an infringer begins with the later of—
  • (a) the day on which the infringement of competition law that is the subject of the claim ceases, and
  • (b) the claimant’s day of knowledge.
  • (2) “The claimant’s day of knowledge” is the day on which the claimant first knows or could reasonably be expected to know—
  • (a) of the infringer’s behaviour,
  • (b) that the behaviour constitutes an infringement of competition law,
  • (c) that the claimant has suffered loss or damage arising from that infringement, and
  • (d) the identity of the infringer.
  • (3) Where the claimant has acquired the right to make the competition claim from another person (whether by operation of law or otherwise) —
  • (a) the reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the day on which the claimant first knows or could reasonably be expected to know something is to be read as a reference to the first day on which either the claimant or a person in whom the cause of action was previously vested first knows or could reasonably be expected to know it, and
  • (b) the reference to the claimant in sub-paragraph (2)(c) is to be read as a reference to the injured person.
  • (4) In sub-paragraph (3), “injured person”, in relation to a competition claim, means a person who suffered the loss or damage that is the subject of the claim.
  • (5) Where a person (“P”) has acquired an infringer’s liability in respect of an infringement of competition law from another person (whether by operation of law or otherwise)—
  • (a) the reference to an infringer in sub-paragraph (1) is to be read as a reference to P, but
  • (b) the references to the infringer in sub-paragraph (2) are to be read as references to the original infringer.
  • (6) The references in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) to a person knowing something are to a person having sufficient knowledge of it to bring competition proceedings.
  • (6A) This paragraph applies in respect of a competition claim within paragraph 2(2)(b) as if—
  • (a) in sub-paragraph (2), paragraph (c) (but not the “, and” at the end of it) were omitted;
  • (b) in sub-paragraph (3), paragraph (b) (and the “and” before it) were omitted;
  • (c) sub-paragraph (4) were omitted.
  • (7) This paragraph has effect subject to the provision in paragraphs 20 to 25, which defers the beginning of the limitation or prescriptive period in certain circumstances.
20
  • (1) This paragraph applies if the claimant in relation to a competition claim is under a disability on the day on which, but for this paragraph, the limitation period for the claim would begin.
  • (2) In England and Wales and Northern Ireland, the limitation period for the claim begins with the earlier of—
  • (a) the day on which the claimant ceases to be under a disability, and
  • (b) the day on which the claimant dies.
  • (3) Where—
  • (a) the claimant has acquired the right to make the competition claim from another person (whether by operation of law or otherwise), and
  • (b) but for this paragraph, the limitation period would begin on the day specified in paragraph 19(2),

the references to the claimant in sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph are to be read as references to the person by reference to whose knowledge that day would fall to be determined in accordance with paragraph 19(3).

  • (4) In England and Wales, references in this paragraph to a person being “under a disability” have the same meaning as in the Limitation Act 1980 (see section 38(2) of that Act).
  • (5) In Northern Ireland, references in this paragraph to a person being “under a disability” have the same meaning as in the Limitation (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1339 (N.I. 11)) (see article 47 of that Order).
21
  • (1) Where a competition authority investigates an infringement of competition law, the period of the investigation is not to be counted when calculating whether the limitation or prescriptive period for a competition claim ... arising from the infringement has expired.
  • (2) The period of an investigation by a competition authority begins when the competition authority takes the first formal step in the investigation.
  • (3) The period of an investigation by a competition authority ends—
  • (a) if the competition authority makes a decision in relation to the infringement as a result of the investigation, at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which the decision becomes final, and
  • (b) otherwise, at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which the competition authority closes the investigation.
22
  • (1) This paragraph applies where—
  • (a) a dispute arising from an infringement of competition law is the subject of a consensual dispute resolution process,
  • (b) a competition claim is made which arises from the dispute, and
  • (c) the claimant and the defendant participated in the consensual dispute resolution process.
  • (2) The period of the consensual dispute resolution process is not to be counted when calculating whether the limitation or prescriptive period for the claim expired.
  • (3) The period of a consensual dispute resolution process in relation to a dispute begins with the first day on which either of the following occurs—
  • (a) the claimant and the defendant (with or without others) enter into an agreement to engage in the process in respect of the dispute, or
  • (b) the claimant and the defendant submit the dispute to the person who is to run the process.
  • (4) The period of a consensual dispute resolution process ends with the first day on which one of the following occurs —
  • (a) the claimant and the defendant reach an agreement to resolve the dispute;
  • (b) where the process is the subject of an agreement or rules, the process comes to an end in accordance with the agreement or rules;
  • (c) the claimant or defendant notifies the other that it has withdrawn from the process;
  • (d) the claimant or the defendant asks the other to confirm that it wishes to continue with the process and does not receive a response within the period of 14 days beginning with the day on which the request is made;
  • (e) the claimant and the defendant are notified that the person to whom they submitted the dispute refuses to deal with it;
  • (f) the claimant and defendant are notified that the person running the process cannot continue to act in relation to the dispute and fail to agree to submit the dispute to another person within the period of 14 days beginning with the day on which they are notified.
  • (5) Where the competition claim is made in collective proceedings, the references to the claimant in sub-paragraphs (1)(c), (3) and (4) are to be read as references to the claimant or the representative.
  • (6) Where the claimant has acquired the right to make the competition claim from another person (whether by operation of law or otherwise), the references to the claimant in sub-paragraphs (1)(c), (3), (4) and (5) are to be read as references to the claimant or a person in whom the cause of action was previously vested.
  • (7) Where the defendant has acquired the infringer’s liability in respect of the infringement of competition law from another person (whether by operation of law or otherwise), the references to the defendant in sub-paragraphs (1)(c), (3) and (4) are to be read as references to the defendant or a person who has previously held the liability.
23
  • (1) Where a competition claim is made in collective proceedings at the commencement of those proceedings (“the section 47B claim”), this paragraph applies for the purpose of determining the limitation or prescriptive period for the claim if it is subsequently made in proceedings under section 47A.
  • (2) The period of the collective proceedings is not to be counted when calculating whether the limitation or prescriptive period has expired.
  • (3) The period of collective proceedings begins with the day on which the collective proceedings are commenced.
  • (4) The period of collective proceedings ends with the first day on which one of the following occurs—
  • (a) the Tribunal declines to make a collective proceedings order in respect of the collective proceedings;
  • (b) the Tribunal makes a collective proceedings order in respect of the proceedings, but the order does not provide that the section 47B claim is eligible for inclusion in the proceedings;
  • (c) the Tribunal rejects the section 47B claim;
  • (d) in the case of opt-in collective proceedings, the period within which a person may choose to have the section 47B claim included in the proceedings expires without the person having done so;
  • (e) in the case of opt-out collective proceedings—
  • (i) a person domiciled in the United Kingdom chooses (within the period in which such a choice may be made) to have the section 47B claim excluded from the collective proceedings, or
  • (ii) the period within which a person not domiciled in the United Kingdom may choose to have the section 47B claim included in the collective proceedings expires without the person having done so;
  • (f) the section 47B claim is withdrawn;
  • (g) the Tribunal revokes the collective proceedings order in respect of the collective proceedings;
  • (h) the Tribunal varies the collective proceedings order in such a way that the section 47B claim is no longer included in the collective proceedings;
  • (i) the section 47B claim is settled with or without the Tribunal’s approval;
  • (j) the section 47B claim is dismissed, discontinued or otherwise disposed of without an adjudication on the merits.
  • (5) Where—
  • (a) there is a period of collective proceedings in relation to a competition claim, and
  • (b) but for this sub-paragraph, the limitation or prescriptive period would expire before the end of the period of 6 months beginning with the day after the day on which the period of collective proceedings ends,

the limitation or prescriptive period for the claim is to be treated as expiring at the end of that 6 month period.

24
  • (1) This paragraph applies if the relevant person in relation to a competition claim is under legal disability for a period at any time.
  • (2) In Scotland, the period during which the relevant person is under legal disability is not to be counted when calculating whether the prescriptive period for the claim has expired.
  • (3) References in this paragraph to a person being “under legal disability” have the same meaning as in the Prescription and Limitation (Scotland) Act 1973 (see section 15(1) of that Act).
  • (4) In this paragraph, “relevant person” means—
  • (a) in relation to a competition claim within paragraph 2(2)(a), a person who suffered the loss or damages that is the subject of the claim;
  • (b) in relation to a competition claim within paragraph 2(2)(b), the pursuer.
25

For the purposes of calculating whether the limitation or prescriptive period for a competition claim has expired, a period described in paragraph 21, 22, 23 or 24 is not to be regarded as separating the time immediately before it from the time immediately after it.

26
  • (1) In section 35 of the Limitation Act 1980 (new claims in pending actions)—
  • (a) subsection (1) applies for the purposes of this Part of this Schedule as it applies for the purposes of that Act, and
  • (b) subsections (3) to (8) apply in relation to a competition claim that is a new claim and to competition proceedings as they apply in relation to other new claims and proceedings.
  • (2) In Article 73 of the Limitation (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1339 (N.I. 11)) (new claims in pending actions)—
  • (a) paragraph (1) applies for the purposes of this Part of this Schedule as it applies for the purposes of that Order, and
  • (b) paragraphs (2) to (7) apply in relation to a competition claim that is a new claim and to competition proceedings as they apply in relation to other new claims and proceedings.

Part 6 — Disclosure etc

27
  • (1) For the purposes of this Part of this Schedule (and subject to sub-paragraph (2)), a court or the Tribunal makes a disclosure order in respect of something if—
  • (a) in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, it orders its disclosure or production in accordance with procedural rules, or
  • (b) in Scotland, it grants commission and diligence for its recovery or makes an order in respect of it under section 1 of the Administration of Justice (Scotland) Act 1972 (inspection of documents etc).
  • (2) A court or the Tribunal does not make a disclosure order in respect of something if it does something described in sub-paragraph (1) for the purposes of enabling a court or the Tribunal to determine whether it is a cartel leniency statement or a settlement submission.
28

For the purposes of competition proceedings or digital markets proceedings, a court or the Tribunal must not make a disclosure order in respect of—

  • (a) a settlement submission which has not been withdrawn, or
  • (b) a cartel leniency statement (whether or not it has been withdrawn).
29

For the purposes of competition proceedings or digital markets proceedings, a court or the Tribunal must not make a disclosure order in respect of a competition authority’s investigation materials before the day on which the competition authority closes the investigation to which those materials relate.

30
  • (1) For the purposes of competition proceedings or digital markets proceedings, a court or the Tribunal must not make a disclosure order addressed to a competition authority in respect of documents or information included in a competition authority’s file.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply where the court or the Tribunal making the order is satisfied that no-one else is reasonably able to provide the documents or information.
31
  • (1) On the application of a party to competition proceedings, where it appears to the High Court in Northern Ireland that evidence relevant to the proceedings is likely to be in the possession, custody or power of a person who is not a party to the proceedings, the court may order the person—
  • (a) to disclose whether such evidence is in the person’s possession, custody or power, and
  • (b) if it is, to produce it—
  • (i) to the applicant, or
  • (ii) on such conditions as may be specified in the order, to the applicant’s legal adviser or other professional adviser.
  • (2) An order under sub-paragraph (1) must not be made if the court considers that compliance with it would be likely to be injurious to the public interest.
  • (3) Rules of court may make provision specifying circumstances in which a court may or may not make an order under sub-paragraph (1).
  • (4) The power under sub-paragraph (3) includes power to make incidental, supplementary and consequential provision.
  • (5) Sub-paragraph (1) is without prejudice to the exercise by the High Court in Northern Ireland of any power to make orders which is exercisable apart from this paragraph.

Part 7 — Use of Evidence

32
  • (1) A settlement submission which has not been withdrawn is not admissible in evidence in competition proceedings.
  • (2) A cartel leniency statement is not admissible in evidence in competition proceedings (whether or not it has been withdrawn).
  • (3) The prohibitions in sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply if a party to the proceedings obtained the submission or statement—
  • (a) lawfully, and
  • (b) otherwise than from a competition authority’s file.
33
  • (1) A competition authority’s investigation materials are not admissible in evidence in competition proceedings at any time before the competition authority has closed the investigation to which those materials relate.
  • (2) The prohibition in sub-paragraph (1) does not apply if a party to the proceedings obtained the materials—
  • (a) lawfully, and
  • (b) otherwise than from a competition authority’s file.
34

Documents or information obtained by a person (“P”) from a competition authority’s file are admissible in evidence in competition proceedings only where—

  • (a) the proceedings relate, entirely or partly, to a competition claim made by P or by a person who has acquired P’s right to make the claim (whether by operation of law or otherwise), and
  • (b) none of the prohibitions in paragraphs 32 and 33 applies.
35

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Part 8 — Exemplary Damages

36

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Part 9

Contribution and Consensual Settlements

37

In this Part of this Schedule, “consensual settlement” means an agreement relating to a dispute about loss or damage arising from an infringement of competition law which—

  • (a) is reached through a consensual dispute resolution process,
  • (b) is made between—
  • (i) an infringer or a person who has acquired an infringer’s liability in respect of the infringement (whether by operation of law or otherwise) (“the settling infringer”), and
  • (ii) a person who suffered the loss or damage or a person who has acquired such a person’s right to make a claim in respect of the loss or damage (whether by operation of law or otherwise) (“the settling complainant”), and
  • (c) entirely resolves the dispute between the settling infringer and the settling complainant.
38
  • (1) This paragraph applies in relation to proceedings to recover contribution under section 1 of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978 or section 3(2) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1940 where contribution is to be recovered in respect of loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of an infringement of competition law.
  • (2) The amount of contribution that one person liable in respect of the loss or damage may recover from another must be determined in the light of their relative responsibility for the whole of the loss or damage caused by the infringement.
  • (3) The determination of that amount must take into account any damages paid by the other person in respect of the loss or damage in accordance with a consensual settlement.
  • (4) The following have effect subject to this paragraph—
  • (a) section 2(1) of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978 (assessment of contribution);
  • (b) section 3(2) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1940 (contribution among joint wrongdoers).
39
  • (1) Where loss or damage arising from an infringement of competition law is the subject of—
  • (a) a consensual settlement, and
  • (b) a competition damages claim by the settling complainant,

the amount of the settling complainant’s claim is reduced by the settling infringer’s share of the loss or damage.

  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) has effect regardless of the terms of the consensual settlement.
40
  • (1) Where loss or damage arising from an infringement of competition law is the subject of a consensual settlement, the settling complainant ceases to have a right of action against the settling infringer in respect of the loss or damage.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) has effect regardless of the terms of the consensual settlement.
  • (3) Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply where—
  • (a) an undertaking other than the settling infringer is liable to pay damages to the settling complainant in respect of loss or damage which arises from the infringement,
  • (b) that undertaking is (or, if there is more than one, those undertakings are) unable to pay damages corresponding to the outstanding amount of the settling complainant’s claim, and
  • (c) the settling infringer’s liability for that amount is not expressly excluded by the terms of the consensual settlement.
41
  • (1) Where—
  • (a) loss or damage arising from an infringement of competition law is the subject of a consensual settlement,
  • (b) it is also the subject of a competition damages claim by the settling complainant, and
  • (c) an undertaking other than the settling infringer is liable to pay damages to the settling complainant in respect of the loss or damage that is the subject of the claim,

that undertaking may not recover contribution from the settling infringer in respect of the loss or damage under section 1 of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978 or section 3(2) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1940.

  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) has effect regardless of the terms of the consensual settlement.
  • (3) The following have effect subject to this paragraph—
  • (a) section 1 of the Civil Liability (Contribution) Act 1978;
  • (b) section 3(2) of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1940.

Part 10 — Application

42
  • (1) Parts 2 to 5 ... and 9 of this Schedule apply in relation to competition claims, competition proceedings, claims for contribution arising from competition claims and proceedings relating to such claims only to the extent that —
  • (a) in respect of competition claims within paragraph 2(2)(a), the claim and proceedings relate to loss or damage suffered on or after 8 March 2017 as a result of an infringement of competition law that takes place on or after that date;
  • (b) in respect of competition claims within paragraph 2(2)(b), the claim and proceedings relate to an infringement of competition law that takes place on or after 8 March 2017.
  • (2) Where an infringement of competition law takes place over a period of 2 or more days it is to be taken for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) to have taken place on the first of those days
43

The following provisions of this Schedule apply only in relation to proceedings on a competition claim in relation to which the first proceedings before a court or the Tribunal began on or after 8 March 2017—

  • (a) paragraphs 4(7) and (8) and 5(3) and (4);
  • (b) Parts 6 and 7.
44

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

10
  • (1) The Chapter 1 prohibition does not apply to an agreement to the extent that it is an agreement between the members of a recognised interbranch organisation that has the object of carrying out one or more specified activities, provided that the condition in sub-paragraph (2) is also met.

This exclusion is referred to in this paragraph as the “RIBO exclusion”.

  • (2) The condition in this sub-paragraph is that the organisation has notified the agreement to the CMA and provided all further details required by the CMA, and—
  • (a) the CMA has decided that it is appropriate for the RIBO exclusion to apply, or
  • (b) within two months of the CMA receiving all the details it requires, the CMA has not decided that it is inappropriate for the RIBO exclusion to apply.
  • (3) In deciding whether it is appropriate for the RIBO exclusion to apply, the CMA must consider whether the benefit of the agreement to the specified activities of the recognised interbranch organisation outweighs any prevention, restriction or distortion of competition within the United Kingdom as a result of the agreement.
  • (4) The CMA may at any time give a direction to the effect that the RIBO exclusion no longer applies to a particular agreement.
  • (5) Sub-paragraphs (4) to (8) of paragraph 9 apply to a direction under this paragraph as they apply to a direction under paragraph 9.
  • (6) In this paragraph—
  • “recognised interbranch organisation” means an organisation of agricultural businesses recognised under section 30 of the Agriculture Act 2020;
  • “specified activities” means the activities specified in regulations under section 30(6)(e) of that Act.
10A
  • (1) The Secretary of State may by regulations vary or revoke an assimilated block exemption regulation.
  • (2) In exercising the power under subsection (1), the Secretary of State must have regard to the conditions specified in section 9(1) for exemption from the Chapter 1 prohibition.
  • (3) If, in the opinion of the CMA, it is appropriate to vary or revoke an assimilated block exemption regulation, the CMA may make a recommendation to that effect to the Secretary of State.
  • (4) Before making a recommendation under subsection (3), the CMA must—
  • (a) publish details of its proposed recommendation in such a way as it thinks most suitable for bringing it to the attention of those likely to be affected; and
  • (b) consider any representations about it which are made to it.
  • (5) Before exercising the power to vary or revoke an assimilated block exemption regulation (in a case where there has been no recommendation under subsection (3)), the Secretary of State must—
  • (a) inform the CMA of the proposed variation or revocation; and
  • (b) take into account any comments made by the CMA.

Transferred EU anti-trust commitments and transferred EU anti-trust directions

40ZA
  • (1) In this section and in sections 40ZB and 40ZD “transferred EU anti-trust commitments” means EU anti-trust commitments—
  • (a) which are the subject of an Article 95(2) commitments transfer decision (and, where those commitments are modified by, or as contemplated by, that decision, or by a later Article 95(2) commitments transfer decision, means those commitments as so modified), and
  • (b) which have not been wholly waived or substituted by the European Commission.
  • (2) In this section—
  • “Article 95(2) commitments transfer decision” means an instrument issued by the European Commission in accordance with Article 95(2) of the EU withdrawal agreement transferring responsibility for the monitoring and enforcement of EU anti-trust commitments to the CMA;
  • “EU anti-trust commitments” means commitments contained, pursuant to Article 9(1) of Regulation 1/2003, in a decision adopted by the European Commission under that Regulation.
  • (3) In this section and in sections 40ZC and 40ZD a “transferred EU anti-trust direction” means an EU anti-trust direction—
  • (a) which is the subject of an Article 95(2) direction transfer decision (and, where that direction is modified by, or as contemplated by, that decision, or by a later Article 95(2) direction transfer decision, means that direction as so modified), and
  • (b) which has not been wholly revoked by the European Commission.
  • (4) In this section—
  • “Article 95(2) direction transfer decision” means an instrument issued by the European Commission in accordance with Article 95(2) of the EU withdrawal agreement transferring responsibility for the monitoring and enforcement of an EU anti-trust direction to the CMA;
  • “EU anti-trust direction” means a direction given pursuant to Article 7(1) of Regulation 1/2003 in a decision adopted by the European Commission under that Regulation;
  • “Regulation 1/2003” means Council Regulation (EC) No 1/2003 of 16 December 2002 on the implementation of the rules on competition laid down in Articles 81 and 82 of the Treaty.
  • (5) So far as the context permits or requires, transferred EU anti-trust commitments and transferred EU anti-trust directions are to be treated for the purposes of this section and sections 40ZB to 40ZD as if—
  • (a) any reference to the area of the European Union or of the European Economic Area included the United Kingdom;
  • (b) any reference to the internal market included the United Kingdom;
  • (c) any reference to a member State included the United Kingdom;
  • (d) any reference to a party to the EEA agreement included the United Kingdom.
  • (6) Subsection (5) is subject to any different provision made by the Article 95(2) commitments transfer decision or Article 95(2) direction transfer decision in question.
40ZB
  • (1) The CMA has the function of monitoring compliance with transferred EU anti-trust commitments.
  • (2) If a person who is bound by transferred EU anti-trust commitments fails, without reasonable excuse, to adhere to those commitments, the CMA may apply to the court for an order—
  • (a) requiring the defaulter to make good the default within a time specified in the order; or
  • (b) if any of the transferred EU anti-trust commitments relate to anything to be done in the management or administration of an undertaking, requiring the undertaking or any of its officers to do it.
  • (3) An order of the court under subsection (2) may provide for all of the costs of, or incidental to, the application for the order to be borne by—
  • (a) the person in default; or
  • (b) any officer of an undertaking who is responsible for the default.
  • (4) In the application of subsection (3) to Scotland, the reference to “costs” is to be read as a reference to “expenses”.
  • (5) In this section, “transferred EU anti-trust commitments” has the meaning given by section 40ZA(1).
40ZC
  • (1) The CMA has the function of monitoring compliance with transferred EU anti-trust directions.
  • (2) If a person fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with a transferred EU anti-trust direction, the CMA may apply to the court for an order—
  • (a) requiring the defaulter to make good the default within a time specified in the order; or
  • (b) if the transferred EU anti-trust direction related to anything to be done in the management or administration of an undertaking, requiring the undertaking or any of its officers to do it.
  • (3) An order of the court under subsection (2) may provide for all of the costs of, or incidental to, the application for the order to be borne by—
  • (a) the person in default; or
  • (b) any officer of an undertaking who is responsible for the default.
  • (4) In the application of subsection (3) to Scotland, the reference to “costs” is to be read as a reference to “expenses”.
  • (5) In this section, “transferred EU anti-trust direction” has the meaning given by section 40ZA(3).
40ZD
  • (1) The CMA may require any person to produce to the CMA a specified document, or to provide the CMA with specified information, for the purposes of assisting the CMA—
  • (a) to monitor compliance with transferred EU anti-trust commitments, or
  • (b) to decide whether to make an application under section 40ZB(2) in respect of those transferred EU anti-trust commitments.
  • (2) The CMA may require any person to produce to the CMA a specified document, or to provide the CMA with specified information, for the purposes of assisting the CMA—
  • (a) to monitor compliance with a transferred EU anti-trust direction, or
  • (b) to decide whether to make an application under section 40ZC(2) in respect of a transferred EU anti-trust direction.
  • (3) The powers conferred by subsections (1) and (2) are to be exercised by a notice in writing which
  • (a) indicates the subject matter and purpose of the demand (including identifying the transferred EU anti-trust commitments or transferred EU anti-trust direction in question) , and
  • (b) includes information about the possible consequences of failing to comply with the notice.
  • (4) The CMA may also specify in the notice—
  • (a) the time and place at which any document is to be produced or any information is to be provided;
  • (b) the manner and form in which it is to be produced or provided.
  • (5) The power under this section to require a person to produce a document includes power—
  • (a) if the document is produced—
  • (i) to take copies of it or extracts from it;
  • (ii) to require that person, or any person who is a present or past officer of, or is or was at any time employed by, that person, to provide an explanation of the document;
  • (b) if the document is not produced, to require that person to state, to the best of their knowledge and belief, where it is.
  • (6) In this section—
  • “specified” means—specified, or described, in the notice under subsection (3), orfalling within a category which is specified, or described, in that notice;
  • “transferred EU anti-trust commitments” has the meaning given by section 40ZA(1);
  • “transferred EU anti-trust direction” has the meaning given by section 40ZA(3).
60A
  • (1) This section applies when one of the following persons determines a question arising under this Part in relation to competition within the United Kingdom—
  • (a) a court or tribunal;
  • (b) the CMA;
  • (c) a person acting on behalf of the CMA in connection with a matter arising under this Part.
  • (2) The person must act (so far as is compatible with the provisions of this Part) with a view to securing that there is no inconsistency between—
  • (a) the principles that it applies, and the decision that it reaches, in determining the question, and
  • (b) the principles laid down by the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union and the European Court before IP completion day, and any relevant decision made by that Court before IP completion day, so far as applicable immediately before IP completion day in determining any corresponding question arising in EU law,

subject to subsections (4) to (7).

  • (3) The person must, in addition, have regard to any relevant decision or statement of the European Commission made before IP completion day and not withdrawn.
  • (4) Subsection (2) does not require the person to secure that there is no inconsistency with a principle or decision referred to in subsection (2)(b) so far as the principle or decision is excluded from the law of England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland on or after IP completion day.
  • (5) For the purposes of subsection (4), a principle or decision is to be treated as not excluded from the law of England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland if it is excluded only by virtue of an exclusion or revocation in the Competition (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019.
  • (6) Subsection (2) does not apply so far as the person is bound by a principle laid down by, or a decision of, a court or tribunal in England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland that requires the person to act otherwise.
  • (7) Subsection (2) does not apply if the person thinks that it is appropriate to act otherwise in the light of one or more of the following—
  • (a) differences between the provisions of this Part under consideration and the corresponding provisions of EU law as those provisions of EU law had effect immediately before IP completion day;
  • (b) differences between markets in the United Kingdom and markets in the European Union;
  • (c) developments in forms of economic activity since the time when the principle or decision referred to in subsection (2)(b) was laid down or made;
  • (d) generally accepted principles of competition analysis or the generally accepted application of such principles;
  • (e) a principle laid down, or decision made, by the European Court on or after IP completion day;
  • (f) the particular circumstances under consideration.
  • (8) In subsection (2)(b), the reference to principles laid down before IP completion day is a reference to such principles as they have effect in EU law immediately before IP completion day, disregarding the effect of principles laid down, and decisions made, by the European Court on or after IP completion day.
  • (9) In this section, references to a decision of the European Court or the European Commission include a decision as to—
  • (a) the interpretation of a provision of EU law;
  • (b) the civil liability of an undertaking for harm caused by its infringement of EU law.

Immunity recipients

Civil sanctions: breaches of commitments, directions and interim measures

35A
  • (1) The CMA may, in accordance with section 35B, impose a penalty on a person—
  • (a) from whom the CMA has accepted commitments under section 31A (and who has not been released from those commitments), or
  • (b) to whom the CMA has given a direction under section 32, 33 or 35,

where the CMA considers that the person has, without reasonable excuse, failed to adhere to the commitments or comply with the direction.

  • (2) In deciding whether and, if so, how to proceed under subsection (1) the CMA must have regard to the statement of policy which was most recently published under section 35C at the time of the failure to adhere or comply.
35B
  • (1) A penalty under section 35A(1) is to be such amount as the CMA considers appropriate.
  • (2) The amount must be—
  • (a) a fixed amount,
  • (b) an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or
  • (c) a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
  • (3) A penalty imposed under section 35A(1) on a person who is not an undertaking must not—
  • (a) in the case of a fixed amount, exceed £30,000;
  • (b) in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, exceed £15,000 per day;
  • (c) in the case of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, exceed such fixed amount and such amount per day.
  • (4) A penalty imposed under section 35A(1) on a person who is an undertaking must not—
  • (a) in the case of a fixed amount, exceed 5% of the total value of the turnover of the undertaking;
  • (b) in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day exceed 5% of the total value of the daily turnover of the undertaking;
  • (c) in the case of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, exceed such fixed amount and such amount per day.
  • (5) In imposing a penalty by reference to a daily rate—
  • (a) no account is to be taken of any days before the service on the person concerned of the provisional penalty notice under section 112(A1) of the Enterprise Act 2002 (as applied by subsection (6)), and
  • (b) unless the CMA determines an earlier date (whether before or after the penalty is imposed), the amount payable ceases to accumulate at the beginning of the day on which the person adheres to the commitments or complies with the direction (as the case may be) referred to in section 35A(1).
  • (6) Sections 112 to 115 of the Enterprise Act 2002 apply in relation to a penalty imposed under section 35A(1) as they apply in relation to a penalty imposed under section 110(1) or (1A) of that Act, with the following modifications—
  • (a) any reference in those provisions to the appropriate authority is to be read as a reference to the CMA only;
  • (b) section 114(5A) is to be read as if the words “In the case of a penalty imposed on a person by the CMA or OFCOM,” were omitted;
  • (c) section 114(12) is to be read as if, for paragraph (b), there were substituted—

(b) “relevant guidance” means the statement of policy which was most recently published under section 35C at the time when the act or omission concerned occurred.

  • (7) The Secretary of State may by regulations amend subsection (3)(a) and (b) by substituting for either or both of the sums for the time being specified in those paragraphs such other sum or sums as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
  • (8) Before making regulations under subsection (7) the Secretary of State must consult—
  • (a) the CMA, and
  • (b) such other persons as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
  • (9) The Secretary of State may by regulations make provision for determining the turnover and daily turnover of an undertaking for the purposes of subsection (4).
  • (10) Regulations under subsection (9) may, in particular, make provision as to—
  • (a) the amounts which are, or which are not, to be treated as comprising an undertaking’s turnover or daily turnover;
  • (b) the date, or dates, by reference to which an undertaking’s turnover, or daily turnover, is to be determined.
  • (11) Regulations under subsection (9) may, in particular, make provision enabling the CMA to determine matters of a description specified in the regulations (including any of the matters mentioned in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (10)).

Statement of policy in relation to functions under sections 31E, 34 and 35A

35C
  • (1) The CMA must prepare and publish a statement of policy in relation to the exercise of functions under sections 31E, 34 and 35A.
  • (2) The statement must, in particular, include a statement about the considerations relevant to the determination of the nature and amount of any penalty imposed under section 35A(1).
  • (3) The CMA may revise its statement of policy and, where it does so, it must publish the revised statement.
  • (4) The CMA must consult the Secretary of State and such other persons as it considers appropriate when preparing or revising its statement of policy.
  • (5) If the proposed statement of policy or revision relates to a matter in respect of which a regulator exercises concurrent jurisdiction, those consulted must include that regulator.
  • (6) A statement or revised statement of policy may not be published under this section without the approval of the Secretary of State.

Civil sanctions: infringements of the Chapter I or II prohibitions

25B
  • (1) Subsection (2) applies where a person knows or suspects that—
  • (a) an investigation by the CMA under section 25 is being or is likely to be carried out , or
  • (b) the CMA is assisting, or is likely to assist, an overseas regulator in carrying out any of its functions which correspond or are similar to the functions of the CMA under this Part (see Chapter 2 of Part 5 of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024).
  • (2) The person must not—
  • (a) falsify, conceal, destroy or otherwise dispose of, or
  • (b) cause or permit the falsification, concealment, destruction or disposal of,

a document which the person knows or suspects is or would be relevant to the investigation or to the provision of such assistance.

  • (3) In this section, the reference to concealing a document includes a reference to destroying the means of reproducing information recorded otherwise than in legible form.

Investigations: powers to require documents and information

Limited immunity in relation to the Chapter I prohibition.

40ZE
  • (1) The CMA may impose a penalty on a person in accordance with section 40A where the CMA considers that—
  • (a) the person has, without reasonable excuse, failed to comply with a requirement imposed on the person by section 25B or under section 26, 26A, 27, 28, 28A or 40ZD;
  • (b) the person has, without reasonable excuse, obstructed an officer acting in the exercise of the officer’s powers under section 27 or under a warrant issued under section 28 or 28A;
  • (c) the person, having been required to produce a document under section 26, 27, 28 or 28A, has, without reasonable excuse—
  • (i) destroyed or otherwise disposed of, falsified or concealed the document, or
  • (ii) caused or permitted the document’s destruction, disposal, falsification or concealment;
  • (d) the person has, without reasonable excuse, provided information that was false or misleading in a material particular to the CMA in connection with any function of the CMA under this Part;
  • (e) the person has, without reasonable excuse, provided information that was false or misleading in a material particular to another person knowing that the information was to be used for the purpose of providing information to the CMA in connection with any function of the CMA under this Part.
  • (2) But the CMA may not proceed against a person under this section in relation to an act or omission which constitutes an offence under any of sections 42 to 44 if the person has, by reason of that act or omission, been found guilty of that offence.
  • (3) In deciding whether and, if so, how to proceed under subsection (1) the CMA must have regard to the statement of policy which was most recently published under section 40B at the time when the act or omission concerned occurred.
  • (4) In this section—
  • (a) the reference to the production of a document includes a reference to the production of a legible and intelligible copy of information recorded otherwise than in legible form;
  • (b) the reference to concealing a document includes a reference to destroying the means of reproducing information recorded otherwise than in legible form.
  • (5) Sections 112 to 115 of the Enterprise Act 2002 (supplementary provisions about penalties) apply in relation to a penalty imposed under subsection (1) as they apply in relation to a penalty imposed under section 110(1) or (1A) of that Act, with the following modifications—
  • (a) any reference in those provisions to the appropriate authority is to be read as a reference to the CMA only;
  • (b) section 114(5A) is to be read as if the words “In the case of a penalty imposed on a person by the CMA or OFCOM,” were omitted;
  • (c) section 114(12) is to be read as if, for paragraph (b), there were substituted—

(b) “relevant guidance” means the statement of policy which was most recently published under section 40B of the 1998 Act at the time when the act or omission concerned occurred.

Supplementary

44A

Section 126 of the Enterprise Act 2002 (service of documents) applies to the giving of notices under this Chapter as it applies to the service of documents under Part 3 of that Act.

44B
  • (1) This section applies to the exercise of the CMA’s power to give a person a notice under section 26 or 40ZD.
  • (2) The power is exercisable so as to—
  • (a) give the notice to a person who is outside the United Kingdom (subject to subsections (3) and (4));
  • (b) require the production of a specified document, or the provision of specified information, held outside the United Kingdom.
  • (3) The CMA’s power to give a notice under section 26 to a person outside the United Kingdom by virtue of subsection (2)(a) is exercisable only if—
  • (a) the person’s activities are being investigated as part of an investigation under section 25, or
  • (b) the person has a UK connection.
  • (4) The CMA’s power to give a notice under section 40ZD to a person outside the United Kingdom by virtue of subsection (2)(a) is exercisable only if—
  • (a) the person is bound by transferred EU anti-trust commitments (within the meaning of section 40ZA), or
  • (b) the person is subject to a transferred EU anti-trust direction (within the meaning of that section).
  • (5) For the purposes of subsection (3)(b), a person has a UK connection if the person—
  • (a) is a United Kingdom national;
  • (b) is an individual who is habitually resident in the United Kingdom;
  • (c) is a body incorporated under the law of any part of the United Kingdom;
  • (d) carries on business in the United Kingdom.
  • (6) In subsection (5)(a) “United Kingdom national” means—
  • (a) a British citizen, a British overseas territories citizen, a British National (Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen;
  • (b) a person who is a British subject under the British Nationality Act 1981;
  • (c) a British protected person within the meaning of that Act.
  • (7) Nothing in this section is to be taken to limit any other power of the CMA to give a notice under section 26 or 40ZD to a person outside the United Kingdom.
47DA
  • (1) A declaration granted by the Tribunal in proceedings under section 47A or collective proceedings has the same effect as a declaration granted by the High Court.
  • (2) A declarator granted by the Tribunal in proceedings under section 47A or collective proceedings has the same effect as a declarator granted by the Court of Session.
  • (3) In deciding whether to grant a declaration in proceedings under section 47A or collective proceedings, the Tribunal must apply the principles that the High Court would apply in deciding whether to grant a declaration.
  • (4) In deciding whether to grant a declarator in proceedings under section 47A or collective proceedings, the Tribunal must apply the principles that the Court of Session would apply in deciding whether to grant a declarator.
  • (5) The Tribunal may grant a declaration or declarator in proceedings under section 47A or collective proceedings whether or not any other remedy is claimed.

Competition law etc

Presumption that cartels cause harm

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