Pensions Act 2004

Type Public General Act
Publication 2004-11-18
Last updated 2024-11-18
State In force
Department Statute Law Database
articles Not indexed
Reform history JSON API
  • (10A) Where an application under subsection (7) is made to the Regulator, the Regulator may, if it is of the opinion that it is appropriate to do so—
  • (a) change the date that has effect for the purposes of sections 42A(2) and 42B(2) (whether specified in the contribution notice or an earlier revised contribution notice), and
  • (b) specify the revised date in the revised contribution notice issued under subsection (9)(b) or, if the Regulator does not issue a revised contribution notice under subsection (9)(b), issue a revised contribution notice specifying the revised date.
  • (11) Where—
  • (a) P’s contribution notice specifies that P is jointly and severally liable for the debt with other persons, and
  • (b) a revised contribution notice is issued to P under subsection (9) specifying a revised sum,

the Regulator must also issue revised contribution notices to those other persons specifying the revised sum and their joint and several liability with P for the debt in respect of that sum.

  • (11A) Subsection (11B) applies where—
  • (a) P's contribution notice specifies that P is jointly and severally liable for the debt with other persons, and
  • (b) the Regulator issues a revised contribution notice to P under subsection (9)(b) or (10A)(b) specifying a revised date for the purposes of sections 42A(2) and 42B(2).
  • (11B) Where this subsection applies, the Regulator must—
  • (a) change the date that has effect for the purposes of sections 42A(2) and 42B(2) in the case of the contribution notices or revised contribution notices issued in respect of the debt to those other persons, and
  • (b) specify the revised date in the revised contribution notices issued to those other persons under subsection (11) or, if the Regulator does not issue revised contribution notices under subsection (11), issue revised contribution notices to those other persons specifying the revised date.
  • (12) For the purposes of this section—
  • (a) references to a debt due under section 75 of the 1995 Act include a contingent debt under that section, and
  • (b) references to the amount of such a debt include the amount of such a contingent debt.

Section 38 contribution notice: clearance statements

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  • (1) An application may be made to the Regulator under this section for the issue of a clearance statement within paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of subsection (2) in relation to circumstances described in the application.
  • (2) A clearance statement is a statement, made by the Regulator, that in its opinion in the circumstances described in the application—
  • (a) the applicant would not be, for the purposes of subsection (3)(a) of section 38, a party to an act or a deliberate failure to act falling within subsection (5)(a) of that section,
  • (b) it would not be reasonable to impose any liability on the applicant under a contribution notice issued under section 38, or
  • (c) such requirements of that section as may be prescribed would not be satisfied in relation to the applicant.
  • (3) Where an application is made under this section, the Regulator—
  • (a) may request further information from the applicant;
  • (b) may invite the applicant to amend the application to modify the circumstances described.
  • (4) Where an application is made under this section, the Regulator must as soon as reasonably practicable—
  • (a) determine whether to issue the clearance statement, and
  • (b) where it determines to do so, issue the statement.
  • (5) A clearance statement issued under this section binds the Regulator in relation to the exercise of the power to issue a contribution notice under section 38 to the applicant unless—
  • (a) the circumstances in relation to which the exercise of the power under that section arises are not the same as the circumstances described in the application, and
  • (b) the difference in those circumstances is material to the exercise of the power.

Financial support directions

Financial support directions

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  • (1) This section applies in relation to an occupational pension scheme other than—
  • (a) a money purchase scheme, or
  • (b) a prescribed scheme or a scheme of a prescribed description.
  • (2) The Regulator may issue a financial support direction under this section in relation to such a scheme if the Regulator is of the opinion that the employer in relation to the scheme—
  • (a) is a service company, or
  • (b) is insufficiently resourced,

at a time determined by the Regulator which falls within subsection (9) (“the relevant time”).

  • (3) A financial support direction in relation to a scheme is a direction which requires the person or persons to whom it is issued to secure—
  • (a) that financial support for the scheme is put in place within the period specified in the direction,
  • (b) that thereafter that financial support or other financial support remains in place while the scheme is in existence, and
  • (c) that the Regulator is notified in writing of prescribed events in respect of the financial support as soon as reasonably practicable after the event occurs.
  • (4) A financial support direction in relation to a scheme may be issued to one or more persons.
  • (5) But the Regulator may issue such a direction to a person only if—
  • (a) the person is at the relevant time a person falling within subsection (6), and
  • (b) the Regulator is of the opinion that it is reasonable to impose the requirements of the direction on that person.
  • (6) A person falls within this subsection if the person is—
  • (a) the employer in relation to the scheme,
  • (b) an individual who—
  • (i) is an associate of an individual who is the employer, but
  • (ii) is not an associate of that individual by reason only of being employed by him, or
  • (c) a person, other than an individual, who is connected with or an associate of the employer.
  • (7) The Regulator, when deciding for the purposes of subsection (5)(b) whether it is reasonable to impose the requirements of a financial support direction on a particular person, must have regard to such matters as the Regulator considers relevant including, where relevant, the following matters—
  • (a) the relationship which the person has or has had with the employer (including, where the employer is a company within the meaning of subsection (11) of section 435 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45), whether the person has or has had control of the employer within the meaning of subsection (10) of that section),
  • (b) in the case of a person falling within subsection (6)(b) or (c), the value of any benefits received directly or indirectly by that person from the employer,
  • (c) any connection or involvement which the person has or has had with the scheme,
  • (d) the financial circumstances of the person, and
  • (e) such other matters as may be prescribed.
  • (8) A financial support direction must identify all the persons to whom the direction is issued.
  • (9) A time falls within this subsection if it is a time which falls within a prescribed period which ends with the giving of a warning notice in respect of the financial support direction in question.
  • (10) For the purposes of subsection (3), a scheme is in existence until it is wound up.
  • (11) No duty to which a person is subject is to be regarded as contravened merely because of any information or opinion contained in a notice given by virtue of subsection (3)(c).

This is subject to section 311 (protected items).

  • (12) In this section “a warning notice” means a notice given as mentioned in section 96(2)(a).

Meaning of “service company” and “insufficiently resourced”

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  • (1) This section applies for the purposes of section 43 (financial support directions).
  • (2) An employer (“E”) is a “service company” at the relevant time if—
  • (a) E is a company as defined in section 1(1) of the Companies Act 2006,
  • (b) E is a member of a group of companies, and
  • (c) E’s turnover, as shown in the latest available individual accounts for E prepared in accordance with Part 15 of that Act, is solely or principally derived from amounts charged for the provision of the services of employees of E to other members of that group.
  • (3) The employer in relation to a scheme is insufficiently resourced at the relevant time if—
  • (a) at that time the value of the resources of the employer is less than the amount which is a prescribed percentage of the estimated section 75 debt in relation to the scheme, and
  • (b) condition A or B is met.
  • (3A) Condition A is met if—
  • (a) there is at that time a person who falls within section 43(6)(b) or (c), and
  • (b) the value at that time of that person's resources is not less than the relevant deficit, that is to say the amount which is the difference between—
  • (i) the value of the resources of the employer, and
  • (ii) the amount which is the prescribed percentage of the estimated section 75 debt.
  • (3B) Condition B is met if—
  • (a) there are at that time two or more persons who—
  • (i) fall within section 43(6)(b) or (c), and
  • (ii) are connected with, or associates of, each other, and
  • (b) the aggregate value at that time of the resources of the persons who fall within paragraph (a) (or any of them) is not less than the relevant deficit.
  • (4) For the purposes of subsections (3) to (3B) —
  • (a) what constitutes the resources of a person is to be determined in accordance with regulations, and
  • (b) the value of a person’s resources is to be determined, calculated and verified in a prescribed manner.
  • (5) In this section the “estimated section 75 debt”, in relation to a scheme, means the amount which the Regulator estimates to be the amount of the debt which would become due from the employer to the trustees or managers of the scheme under section 75 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (deficiencies in the scheme assets) if—
  • (a) subsection (2) of that section applied, and
  • (b) the time designated by the trustees or managers of the scheme for the purposes of that subsection were the relevant time.
  • (6) When calculating the estimated section 75 debt in relation to a scheme under subsection (5), the amount of any debt due at the relevant time from the employer under section 75 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) is to be disregarded.
  • (7) In this section “the relevant time” has the same meaning as in section 43.

Meaning of “financial support”

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  • (1) For the purposes of section 43 (financial support directions), “financial support” for a scheme means one or more of the arrangements falling within subsection (2) the details of which are approved in a notice issued by the Regulator.
  • (2) The arrangements falling within this subsection are—
  • (a) an arrangement whereby, at any time when the employer is a member of a group of companies, all the members of the group are jointly and severally liable for the whole or part of the employer’s pension liabilities in relation to the scheme;
  • (b) an arrangement whereby, at any time when the employer is a member of a group of companies, a company (within the meaning of section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006) which meets prescribed requirements and is the holding company of the group is liable for the whole or part of the employer’s pension liabilities in relation to the scheme;
  • (c) an arrangement which meets prescribed requirements and whereby additional financial resources are provided to the scheme;
  • (d) such other arrangements as may be prescribed.
  • (3) The Regulator may not issue a notice under subsection (1) approving the details of one or more arrangements falling within subsection (2) unless it is satisfied that the arrangement is, or the arrangements are, reasonable in the circumstances.
  • (4) In subsection (2), “the employer’s pension liabilities” in relation to a scheme means—
  • (a) the liabilities for any amounts payable by or on behalf of the employer towards the scheme (whether on his own account or otherwise) in accordance with a schedule of contributions under section 227, and
  • (b) the liabilities for any debt which is or may become due to the trustees or managers of the scheme from the employer whether by virtue of section 75 of the Pensions Act 1995 (deficiencies in the scheme assets) or otherwise.

Financial support directions: clearance statements

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  • (1) An application may be made to the Regulator under this section for the issue of a clearance statement within paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of subsection (2) in relation to circumstances described in the application and relating to an occupational pension scheme.
  • (2) A clearance statement is a statement, made by the Regulator, that in its opinion in the circumstances described in the application—
  • (a) the employer in relation to the scheme would not be a service company for the purposes of section 43,
  • (b) the employer in relation to the scheme would not be insufficiently resourced for the purposes of that section, or
  • (c) it would not be reasonable to impose the requirements of a financial support direction, in relation to the scheme, on the applicant.
  • (3) Where an application is made under this section, the Regulator—
  • (a) may request further information from the applicant;
  • (b) may invite the applicant to amend the application to modify the circumstances described.
  • (4) Where an application is made under this section, the Regulator must as soon as reasonably practicable—
  • (a) determine whether to issue the clearance statement, and
  • (b) where it determines to do so, issue the statement.
  • (5) A clearance statement issued under this section binds the Regulator in relation to the exercise of the power to issue a financial support direction under section 43 in relation to the scheme to the applicant unless—
  • (a) the circumstances in relation to which the exercise of the power under that section arises are not the same as the circumstances described in the application, and
  • (b) the difference in those circumstances is material to the exercise of the power.

Contribution notices where non-compliance with financial support direction

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  • (1) This section applies where there is non-compliance with a financial support direction issued in relation to a scheme under section 43.
  • (2) The Regulator may issue a notice to any one or more of the persons to whom the direction was issued stating that the person is under a liability to pay to the trustees or managers of the scheme the sum specified in the notice (a “contribution notice”).
  • (3) The Regulator may issue a contribution notice to a person only if the Regulator is of the opinion that it is reasonable to impose liability on the person to pay the sum specified in the notice.
  • (4) The Regulator, when deciding for the purposes of subsection (3) whether it is reasonable to impose liability on a particular person to pay the sum specified in the notice, must have regard to such matters as the Regulator considers relevant including, where relevant, the following matters—
  • (a) whether the person has taken reasonable steps to secure compliance with the financial support direction,
  • (b) the relationship which the person has or has had with the employer (including, where the employer is a company within the meaning of subsection (11) of section 435 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45), whether the person has or has had control of the employer within the meaning of subsection (10) of that section),
  • (c) in the case of a person to whom the financial support direction was issued as a person falling within section 43(6)(b) or (c), the value of any benefits received directly or indirectly by that person from the employer,
  • (d) the relationship which the person has or has had with the parties to any arrangements put in place in accordance with the direction (including, where any of those parties is a company within the meaning of subsection (11) of section 435 of the Insolvency Act 1986, whether the person has or has had control of that company within the meaning of subsection (10) of that section),
  • (e) any connection or involvement which the person has or has had with the scheme,
  • (f) the financial circumstances of the person, and
  • (g) such other matters as may be prescribed.
  • (5) A contribution notice may not be issued under this section in respect of non-compliance with a financial support direction in relation to a scheme where the Board of the Pension Protection Fund has assumed responsibility for the scheme in accordance with Chapter 3 of Part 2 (pension protection).

The sum specified in a section 47 contribution notice

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  • (1) The sum specified by the Regulator in a contribution notice under section 47 may be either the whole or a specified part of the shortfall sum in relation to the scheme.
  • (2) The shortfall sum in relation to a scheme is—
  • (a) in a case where, at the time of non-compliance, a debt was due from the employer to the trustees or managers of the scheme under section 75 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (“the 1995 Act”) (deficiencies in the scheme assets), the amount which the Regulator estimates to be the amount of that debt at that time, and
  • (b) in a case where, at the time of non-compliance, no such debt was due, the amount which the Regulator estimates to be the amount of the debt under section 75 of the 1995 Act which would become due if—
  • (i) subsection (2) of that section applied, and
  • (ii) the time designated by the trustees or managers of the scheme for the purposes of that subsection were the time of non-compliance.
  • (3) For the purposes of this section “the time of non-compliance” means—
  • (a) in the case of non-compliance with paragraph (a) of subsection (3) of section 43 (financial support directions), the time immediately after the expiry of the period specified in the financial support direction for putting in place the financial support,
  • (b) in the case of non-compliance with paragraph (b) of that subsection, the time when financial support for the scheme ceased to be in place,
  • (c) in the case of non-compliance with paragraph (c) of that subsection, the time when the prescribed event occurred in relation to which there was the failure to notify the Regulator, or
  • (d) where more than one of paragraphs (a) to (c) above apply, whichever of the times specified in the applicable paragraphs the Regulator determines.

Content and effect of a section 47 contribution notice

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  • (1) This section applies where a contribution notice is issued to a person under section 47.
  • (2) The contribution notice must—
  • (a) contain a statement of the matters which it is asserted constitute the non-compliance with the financial support direction in respect of which the notice is issued, and
  • (b) specify the sum which the person is stated to be under a liability to pay.
  • (3) The sum specified in the notice is to be treated as a debt due from the person to the trustees or managers of the scheme.
  • (4) The Regulator may, on behalf of the trustees or managers of the scheme, exercise such powers as the trustees or managers have to recover the debt.
  • (5) But during any assessment period (within the meaning of section 132) in relation to the scheme, the rights and powers of the trustees or managers of the scheme in relation to any debt due to them by virtue of a contribution notice, are exercisable by the Board of the Pension Protection Fund to the exclusion of the trustees or managers and the Regulator.
  • (6) Where, by virtue of subsection (5), any amount is paid to the Board in respect of a debt due by virtue of a contribution notice, the Board must pay the amount to the trustees or managers of the scheme.
  • (7) The contribution notice must identify any other persons to whom contribution notices have been or are issued in respect of the non-compliance in question and the sums specified in each of those notices.
  • (8) Where the contribution notice so specifies, the person to whom the notice is issued (“P”) is to be treated as jointly and severally liable for the debt with any persons specified in the notice who are persons to whom corresponding contribution notices are issued.
  • (9) For the purposes of subsection (8), a corresponding contribution notice is a notice which—
  • (a) is issued in respect of the same non-compliance with the financial support direction as the non-compliance in respect of which P’s contribution notice is issued,
  • (b) specifies the same sum as is specified in P’s contribution notice, and
  • (c) specifies that the person to whom the contribution notice is issued is jointly and severally liable with P, or with P and other persons, for the debt in respect of that sum.
  • (10) A debt due by virtue of a contribution notice is not to be taken into account for the purposes of section 75(2) and (4) of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (deficiencies in the scheme assets) when ascertaining the amount or value of the assets or liabilities of a scheme.

Section 47 contribution notice: relationship with employer debt

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  • (1) This section applies where a contribution notice is issued to a person (“P”) under section 47 and condition A or B is met.
  • (2) Condition A is met if, at the time at which the contribution notice is issued, there is a debt due from the employer to the trustees or managers of the scheme under section 75 of the Pensions Act 1995 (“the 1995 Act”) (deficiencies in the scheme assets).
  • (3) Condition B is met if, after the contribution notice is issued but before the whole of the debt due by virtue of the notice is recovered, a debt becomes due from the employer to the trustees or managers of the scheme under section 75 of the 1995 Act.
  • (4) The Regulator may issue a direction to the trustees or managers of the scheme not to take any or any further steps to recover the debt due to them under section 75 of the 1995 Act pending the recovery of all or a specified part of the debt due to them by virtue of the contribution notice.
  • (5) If the trustees or managers fail to comply with a direction issued to them under subsection (4), section 10 of the 1995 Act (civil penalties) applies to any trustee or manager who has failed to take all reasonable steps to secure compliance.
  • (6) Any sums paid—
  • (a) to the trustees or managers of the scheme in respect of any debt due to them by virtue of the contribution notice, or
  • (b) to the Board of the Pension Protection Fund in respect of any debt due to it by virtue of the contribution notice (where it has assumed responsibility for the scheme in accordance with Chapter 3 of Part 2 (pension protection)),

are to be treated as reducing the amount of the debt due to the trustees or managers or, as the case may be, to the Board under section 75 of the 1995 Act.

  • (7) Where a sum is paid to the trustees or managers of the scheme or, as the case may be, to the Board in respect of the debt due under section 75 of the 1995 Act, P may make an application under this subsection to the Regulator for a reduction in the amount of the sum specified in P’s contribution notice.
  • (8) An application under subsection (7) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the sum is paid to the trustees or managers or, as the case may be, to the Board in respect of the debt due under section 75 of the 1995 Act.
  • (9) Where such an application is made to the Regulator, the Regulator may, if it is of the opinion that it is appropriate to do so—
  • (a) reduce the amount of the sum specified in P’s contribution notice by an amount which it considers reasonable, and
  • (b) issue a revised contribution notice specifying the revised sum.
  • (10) For the purposes of subsection (9), the Regulator must have regard to such matters as the Regulator considers relevant including, where relevant, the following matters—
  • (a) the amount paid in respect of the debt due under section 75 of the 1995 Act since the contribution notice was issued,
  • (b) any amounts paid in respect of the debt due by virtue of that contribution notice,
  • (c) whether contribution notices have been issued to other persons in respect of the same non-compliance with the financial support direction in question as the non-compliance in respect of which P’s contribution notice was issued,
  • (d) where such contribution notices have been issued, the sums specified in each of those notices and any amounts paid in respect of the debt due by virtue of those notices,
  • (e) whether P’s contribution notice specifies that P is jointly and severally liable for the debt with other persons, and
  • (f) such other matters as may be prescribed.
  • (11) Where—
  • (a) P’s contribution notice specifies that P is jointly and severally liable for the debt with other persons, and
  • (b) a revised contribution notice is issued to P under subsection (9) specifying a revised sum,

the Regulator must also issue revised contribution notices to those other persons specifying the revised sum and their joint and several liability with P for the debt in respect of that sum.

Sections 43 to 50: interpretation

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  • (1) In sections 43 to 50—
  • group of companies” means a holding company and its subsidiaries (and references to a member of a group of companies are to be read accordingly); and
  • “holding company” and “subsidiary” have the meaning given by section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006.
  • (2) For the purposes of those sections—
  • (a) references to a debt due under section 75 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) include a contingent debt under that section, and
  • (b) references to the amount of such a debt include the amount of such a contingent debt.
  • (3) For the purposes of those sections—
  • (a) section 249 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45) (connected persons) applies as it applies for the purposes of any provision of the first Group of Parts of that Act,
  • (b) section 435 of that Act (associated persons) applies as it applies for the purposes of that Act, and
  • (c) section 229 of the Bankruptcy (Scotland) Act 2016 (associated persons) applies as it applies for the purposes of that Act.

Transactions at an undervalue

Restoration orders where transactions at an undervalue

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  • (1) This section applies in relation to an occupational pension scheme other than—
  • (a) a money purchase scheme, or
  • (b) a prescribed scheme or a scheme of a prescribed description.
  • (2) The Regulator may make a restoration order in respect of a transaction involving assets of the scheme if—
  • (a) a relevant event has occurred in relation to the employer in relation to the scheme, and
  • (b) the transaction is a transaction at an undervalue entered into with a person at a time which—
  • (i) is on or after 27th April 2004, but
  • (ii) is not more than two years before the occurrence of the relevant event in relation to the employer.
  • (3) A restoration order in respect of a transaction involving assets of a scheme is such an order as the Regulator thinks fit for restoring the position to what it would have been if the transaction had not been entered into.
  • (4) For the purposes of this section a relevant event occurs in relation to the employer in relation to a scheme if and when on or after the appointed day—
  • (a) an insolvency event occurs in relation to the employer, or
  • (b) the trustees or managers of the scheme make an application under subsection (1) of section 129 or receive a notice from the Board of the Pension Protection Fund under subsection (5)(a) of that section (applications and notifications prior to the Board assuming responsibility for a scheme).
  • (5) For the purposes of subsection (4)—
  • (a) the “appointed day” means the day appointed under section 126(2) (no pension protection under Chapter 3 of Part 2 if the scheme begins winding up before the day appointed by the Secretary of State),
  • (b) section 121 (meaning of “insolvency event”) applies for the purposes of determining if and when an insolvency event has occurred in relation to the employer, and
  • (c) the reference to an insolvency event in relation to the employer does not include an insolvency event which occurred in relation to him before he became the employer in relation to the scheme.
  • (6) For the purposes of this section and section 53, a transaction involving assets of a scheme is a transaction at an undervalue entered into with a person (“P”) if the trustees or managers of the scheme or appropriate persons in relation to the scheme—
  • (a) make a gift to P or otherwise enter into a transaction with P on terms that provide for no consideration to be provided towards the scheme, or
  • (b) enter into a transaction with P for a consideration the value of which, in money or money’s worth, is significantly less than the value, in money or money’s worth, of the consideration provided by or on behalf of the trustees or managers of the scheme.
  • (7) In subsection (6) “appropriate persons” in relation to a scheme means a person who, or several persons each of whom is a person who, at the time at which the transaction in question is entered into, is—
  • (a) a person of a prescribed description, and
  • (b) entitled to exercise powers in relation to the scheme.
  • (8) For the purposes of this section and section 53—
  • assets” includes future assets;
  • transaction” includes a gift, agreement or arrangement and references to entering into a transaction are to be construed accordingly.
  • (9) The provisions of this section apply without prejudice to the availability of any other remedy, even in relation to a transaction where the trustees or managers of the scheme or appropriate persons in question had no power to enter into the transaction.

Restoration orders: supplementary

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  • (1) This section applies in relation to a restoration order under section 52 in respect of a transaction involving assets of a scheme (“the transaction”).
  • (2) The restoration order may in particular—
  • (a) require any assets of the scheme (whether money or other property) which were transferred as part of the transaction to be transferred back—
  • (i) to the trustees or managers of the scheme, or
  • (ii) where the Board of the Pension Protection Fund has assumed responsibility for the scheme, to the Board;
  • (b) require any property to be transferred to the trustees or managers of the scheme or, where the Board has assumed responsibility for the scheme, to the Board if it represents in any person’s hands—
  • (i) any of the assets of the scheme which were transferred as part of the transaction, or
  • (ii) property derived from any such assets so transferred;
  • (c) require such property as the Regulator may specify in the order, in respect of any consideration for the transaction received by the trustees or managers of the scheme, to be transferred—
  • (i) by the trustees or managers of the scheme, or
  • (ii) where the Board has assumed responsibility for the scheme, by the Board,

to such persons as the Regulator may specify in the order;

  • (d) require any person to pay, in respect of benefits received by him as a result of the transaction, such sums (not exceeding the value of the benefits received by him) as the Regulator may specify in the order—
  • (i) to the trustees or managers of the scheme, or
  • (ii) where the Board has assumed responsibility for the scheme, to the Board.
  • (3) A restoration order is of no effect to the extent that it prejudices any interest in property which was acquired in good faith and for value or any interest deriving from such an interest.
  • (4) Nothing in subsection (3) prevents a restoration order requiring a person to pay a sum of money if the person received a benefit as a result of the transaction otherwise than in good faith and for value.
  • (5) Where a person has acquired an interest in property from a person or has received a benefit as a result of the transaction and—
  • (a) he is one of the trustees or managers or appropriate persons who entered into the transaction as mentioned in subsection (6) of section 52, or
  • (b) at the time of the acquisition or receipt—
  • (i) he has notice of the fact that the transaction was a transaction at an undervalue,
  • (ii) he is a trustee or manager, or the employer, in relation to the scheme, or
  • (iii) he is connected with, or an associate of, any of the persons mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b)(ii),

then, unless the contrary is shown, it is to be presumed for the purposes of subsections (3) and (4) that the interest was acquired or the benefit was received otherwise than in good faith.

  • (6) For the purposes of this section—
  • (a) section 249 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45) (connected persons) applies as it applies for the purposes of any provision of the first Group of Parts of that Act,
  • (b) section 435 of that Act (associated persons) applies as it applies for the purposes of that Act, and
  • (c) section 229 of the Bankruptcy (Scotland) Act 2016 (associated persons) applies as it applies for the purposes of that Act.
  • (7) For the purposes of this section “property” includes—
  • (a) money, goods, things in action, land and every description of property wherever situated, and
  • (b) obligations and every description of interest, whether present or future or vested or contingent, arising out of, or incidental to, property.
  • (8) References in this section to where the Board has assumed responsibility for a scheme are to where the Board has assumed responsibility for the scheme in accordance with Chapter 3 of Part 2 (pension protection).

Content and effect of a restoration order

54
  • (1) This section applies where a restoration order is made under section 52 in respect of a transaction involving assets of a scheme.
  • (2) Where the restoration order imposes an obligation on a person to do something, the order must specify the period within which the obligation must be complied with.
  • (3) Where the restoration order imposes an obligation on a person (“A”) to transfer or pay a sum of money to a person specified in the order (“B”), the sum is to be treated as a debt due from A to B.
  • (4) Where the trustees or managers of the scheme are the persons to whom the debt is due, the Regulator may on their behalf, exercise such powers as the trustees or managers have to recover the debt.
  • (5) But during any assessment period (within the meaning of section 132) in relation to the scheme, the rights and powers of the trustees or managers of the scheme in relation to any debt due to them by virtue of a restoration order are exercisable by the Board of the Pension Protection Fund to the exclusion of the trustees or managers and the Regulator.
  • (6) Where, by virtue of subsection (5), any amount is transferred or paid to the Board in respect of a debt due by virtue of a restoration order, the Board must pay the amount to the trustees or managers of the scheme.

Contribution notice where failure to comply with restoration order

55
  • (1) This section applies where—
  • (a) a restoration order is made under section 52 in respect of a transaction involving assets of a scheme (“the transaction”), and
  • (b) a person fails to comply with an obligation imposed on him by the order which is not an obligation to transfer or pay a sum of money.
  • (2) The Regulator may issue a notice to the person stating that the person is under a liability to pay the sum specified in the notice (a “contribution notice”)—
  • (a) to the trustees or managers of the scheme, or
  • (b) where the Board of the Pension Protection Fund has assumed responsibility for the scheme in accordance with Chapter 3 of Part 2 (pension protection), to the Board.
  • (3) The sum specified by the Regulator in a contribution notice may be either the whole or a specified part of the shortfall sum in relation to the scheme.
  • (4) The shortfall sum in relation to the scheme is the amount which the Regulator estimates to be the amount of the decrease in the value of the assets of the scheme as a result of the transaction having been entered into.

Content and effect of a section 55 contribution notice

56
  • (1) This section applies where a contribution notice is issued to a person under section 55.
  • (2) The contribution notice must—
  • (a) contain a statement of the matters which it is asserted constitute the failure to comply with the restoration order under section 52 in respect of which the notice is issued, and
  • (b) specify the sum which the person is stated to be under a liability to pay.
  • (3) Where the contribution notice states that the person is under a liability to pay the sum specified in the notice to the trustees or managers of the scheme, the sum is to be treated as a debt due from the person to the trustees or managers of the scheme.
  • (4) In such a case, the Regulator may, on behalf of the trustees or managers of the scheme, exercise such powers as the trustees or managers have to recover the debt.
  • (5) But during any assessment period (within the meaning of section 132) in relation to the scheme, the rights and powers of the trustees or managers of the scheme in relation to any debt due to them by virtue of a contribution notice, are exercisable by the Board of the Pension Protection Fund to the exclusion of the trustees or managers and the Regulator.
  • (6) Where, by virtue of subsection (5), any amount is paid to the Board in respect of a debt due by virtue of a contribution notice, the Board must pay the amount to the trustees or managers of the scheme.
  • (7) Where the contribution notice states that the person is under a liability to pay the sum specified in the notice to the Board, the sum is to be treated as a debt due from the person to the Board.

Sections 38 to 56: partnerships and limited liability partnerships

Sections 38 to 56: partnerships and limited liability partnerships

57
  • (1) For the purposes of any of sections 38 to 56, regulations may modify any of the definitions mentioned in subsection (2) (as applied by any of those sections) in relation to—
  • (a) a partnership or a partner in a partnership;
  • (b) a limited liability partnership or a member of such a partnership.
  • (2) The definitions mentioned in subsection (1) are—
  • (a) section 249 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45) (connected persons),
  • (b) section 435 of that Act (associated persons),
  • (c) section 229 of the Bankruptcy (Scotland) Act 2016 (associated persons), and
  • (d) section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006 (meaning of “subsidiary” and “holding company” etc).
  • (3) Regulations may also provide that any provision of sections 38 to 51 applies with such modifications as may be prescribed in relation to—
  • (a) any case where a partnership is or was—
  • (i) the employer in relation to an occupational pension scheme, or
  • (ii) for the purposes of any of those sections, connected with or an associate of the employer;
  • (b) any case where a limited liability partnership is—
  • (i) the employer in relation to an occupational pension scheme, or
  • (ii) for the purposes of any of those sections, connected with or an associate of the employer.
  • (4) Regulations may also provide that any provision of sections 52 to 56 applies with such modifications as may be prescribed in relation to a partnership or a limited liability partnership.
  • (5) For the purposes of this section—
  • (a) “partnership” includes a firm or entity of a similar character formed under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and
  • (b) references to a partner are to be construed accordingly.
  • (6) For the purposes of this section, “limited liability partnership” means—
  • (a) a limited liability partnership registered under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000, or
  • (b) an entity which is of a similar character to such a limited liability partnership and which is formed under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom,

and references to a member of a limited liability partnership are to be construed accordingly.

  • (7) This section is without prejudice to—
  • (a) section 307 (power to modify this Act in relation to certain categories of scheme), and
  • (b) section 318(4) (power to extend the meaning of “employer”).

Applications under the Insolvency Act 1986

Regulator’s right to apply under section 423 of Insolvency Act 1986

58
  • (1) In this section “section 423” means section 423 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (transactions defrauding creditors).
  • (2) The Regulator may apply for an order under section 423 in relation to a debtor if—
  • (a) the debtor is the employer in relation to an occupational pension scheme, and
  • (b) condition A or condition B is met in relation to the scheme.
  • (3) Condition A is that a determination made, or actuarial valuation obtained, in respect of the scheme by the Board of the Pension Protection Fund under section 143(2) indicates that the value of the assets of the scheme at the relevant time, as defined by section 143 , was less than the amount of the protected liabilities, as defined by section 131, at that time.
  • (4) Condition B is that an actuarial valuation, as defined by section 224(2), obtained by the trustees or managers of the scheme indicates that the statutory funding objective in section 222 is not met.
  • (5) In a case where the debtor—
  • (a) has been made bankrupt,
  • (b) is a body corporate which is being wound up or is in administration, or
  • (c) is a partnership which is being wound up or is in administration,

subsection (2) does not enable an application to be made under section 423 except with the permission of the court.

  • (6) An application made under this section is to be treated as made on behalf of every victim of the transaction who is—
  • (a) a trustee or member of the scheme, or
  • (b) the Board.
  • (7) This section does not apply where the valuation mentioned in subsection (3) or (4) is made by reference to a date that falls before the commencement of this section.
  • (8) Expressions which are defined by section 423 for the purposes of that section have the same meaning when used in this section.

Register of schemes

Register of occupational and personal pension schemes

59
  • (1) The Regulator must compile and maintain a register of occupational pension schemes and personal pension schemes which are, or have been, registrable schemes (referred to in this Act as “the register”).
  • (2) In this section and sections 62 to 65 “registrable scheme” means an occupational pension scheme, or a personal pension scheme, of a prescribed description.
  • (3) In respect of each registrable scheme, the Regulator must record in the register—
  • (a) the registrable information most recently provided to it in respect of the scheme, and
  • (b) if the Regulator has received—
  • (i) a notice under section 62(5) (scheme which is wound up or ceases to be registrable),
  • (ii) a copy of a notice under section 160 (transfer notice), or
  • (iii) any notice, or copy of a notice, under any provision in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to a provision mentioned in sub-paragraph (i) or (ii),

that fact.

  • (4) In respect of each scheme which has been a registrable scheme, but
  • (a) has been, or is treated as having been, wound up, or
  • (b) has ceased to be a registrable scheme,

the Regulator must maintain in the register the registrable information last provided to it in respect of the scheme.

  • (5) Information recorded in the register must be so recorded in such manner as the Regulator considers appropriate.
  • (6) In particular, the register may consist of more than one part.
  • (7) In this section references to “registrable information”, in relation to a scheme to which any provision in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to section 60(2) (“the corresponding Northern Ireland provision”) applies, are to information of any description within the corresponding Northern Ireland provision.

Registrable information

60
  • (1) For the purposes of sections 59 to 65 “registrable information”, in relation to an occupational or personal pension scheme, means information within subsection (2).
  • (2) That information is—
  • (a) the name of the scheme;
  • (b) the address of the scheme;
  • (c) the full names and addresses of each of the trustees or managers of the scheme;
  • (ca) in the case of an occupational pension scheme established under a trust, the full name and address of any chair of the trustees;
  • (d) the status of the scheme with respect to the following matters—
  • (i) whether new members may be admitted to the scheme;
  • (ii) whether further benefits may accrue to, or in respect of, members under the scheme;
  • (iii) whether further contributions may be paid towards the scheme;
  • (iv) whether any members of the scheme are active members;
  • (e) the categories of benefits under the scheme;
  • (f) in the case of an occupational pension scheme—
  • (i) the name and address of each relevant employer, and
  • (ii) any other name by which any relevant employer has been known at any time on or after the relevant date;
  • (g) in the case of an occupational pension scheme, the number of members of the scheme on the later of—
  • (i) the last day of the scheme year which ended most recently, and
  • (ii) the day on which the scheme became a registrable scheme; and
  • (h) such other information as may be prescribed.
  • (3) Regulations may make provision about the interpretation of any of the descriptions in subsection (2).
  • (4) For the purposes of subsection (2)(f)—
  • relevant employer” means any person—who is, orwho, at any time on or after 6th April 1975, has been,the employer in relation to the scheme;
  • relevant date”, in relation to a relevant employer, means—6th April 1975, orif later, the date on which the relevant employer first became the employer in relation to the scheme.

The register: inspection, provision of information and reports etc

61
  • (1) Regulations may provide—
  • (a) for—
  • (i) information recorded in the register,
  • (ii) extracts from the register, or
  • (iii) copies of the register or of extracts from it,

to be provided to prescribed persons in prescribed circumstances, and

  • (b) for the inspection of—
  • (i) the register,
  • (ii) extracts from the register, or
  • (iii) copies of the register or of extracts from it,

by prescribed persons in prescribed circumstances.

  • (2) Regulations under subsection (1) may, in particular—
  • (a) confer functions on—
  • (i) the Secretary of State, or
  • (ii) a person authorised by him for the purposes of the regulations;
  • (b) make provision with respect to the disclosure of information obtained by virtue of the regulations.
  • (3) Regulations which contain any provision made by virtue of subsection (2)(b) may, in particular, modify section 82 (restricted information).
  • (4) The Secretary of State may direct the Regulator to submit to him statistical and other reports concerning—
  • (a) information recorded in the register, and
  • (b) the operation of the Regulator’s functions in relation to the register.
  • (5) A direction under subsection (4) may specify—
  • (a) the form in which, and
  • (b) the times at which,

reports required by the direction are to be submitted.

  • (6) The Secretary of State may publish any report submitted to him by virtue of a direction under subsection (4) in such manner as he considers appropriate.

The register: duties of trustees or managers

62
  • (1) Subsection (2) applies where—
  • (a) a registrable scheme is established, or
  • (b) an occupational or personal pension scheme otherwise becomes a registrable scheme.
  • (2) The trustees or managers of the scheme must, before the end of the initial notification period—
  • (a) notify the Regulator that the scheme is a registrable scheme, and
  • (b) provide to the Regulator all the registrable information with respect to the scheme.
  • (3) In subsection (2), the “initial notification period” means the period of three months beginning with—
  • (a) the date on which the scheme is established, or
  • (b) if later, the date on which it becomes a registrable scheme.
  • (4) Where there is a change in any registrable information in respect of a registrable scheme, the trustees or managers of the scheme must as soon as reasonably practicable, notify the Regulator—
  • (a) of that fact, and
  • (b) of the new registrable information.
  • (5) Where a registrable scheme—
  • (a) ceases to be a registrable scheme, or
  • (b) is wound up (otherwise than under section 161(2) (effect of Board assuming responsibility for scheme)),

the trustees or managers of the scheme must as soon as reasonably practicable, notify the Regulator of that fact.

  • (6) If subsection (2), (4) or (5) is not complied with, section 10 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (civil penalties) applies to any trustee or manager who has failed to take all reasonable steps to secure compliance.

Duty of the Regulator to issue scheme return notices

63
  • (1) The Regulator must issue scheme return notices in accordance with this section requiring scheme returns to be provided in respect of registrable schemes.
  • (2) In respect of each registrable scheme, the Regulator—
  • (a) must issue the first scheme return notice in accordance with subsection (3), and
  • (b) must issue subsequent scheme return notices in accordance with subsection (4).
  • (3) The return date specified in a scheme return notice issued in respect of a scheme under subsection (2)(a)—
  • (a) must fall within the period of three years beginning with—
  • (i) the date on which the Regulator receives a notice under section 62(2)(a) in respect of the scheme, or
  • (ii) if earlier, the date on which the Regulator first becomes aware that the scheme is a registrable scheme, and
  • (b) if the trustees or managers have complied with paragraph (b) of section 62(2), must fall after the end of the period of one year beginning with the date on which they provided the information required by that paragraph to the Regulator.
  • (3A) But subsection (3)(a) has effect as if the reference to three years were a reference to five years if—
  • (a) the trustees or managers have complied with paragraph (b) of section 62(2),
  • (b) the information they provided under that paragraph included the number of members of the scheme, and
  • (c) that number was no more than 4.
  • (4) The return date specified in a scheme return notice issued in respect of a scheme under subsection (2)(b) must fall—
  • (a) within the period of three years, but
  • (b) after the end of the period of one year,

beginning with the return date specified in the previous scheme return notice issued in respect of the scheme.

  • (4A) But subsection (4)(a) has effect as if the reference to three years were a reference to five years if—
  • (a) on the date on which the previous scheme return notice was issued, the number of members of the scheme was recorded in the register, and
  • (b) that number was no more than 4.

Duty of trustees or managers to provide scheme return

64
  • (1) The trustees or managers of a registrable scheme in respect of which a scheme return notice is issued must, on or before the return date, provide a scheme return to the Regulator.
  • (2) If a scheme return in respect of a scheme is not provided in compliance with subsection (1), section 10 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (civil penalties) applies to any trustee or manager of the scheme who has failed to take all reasonable steps to secure compliance.

Scheme returns: supplementary

65
  • (1) This section has effect for the purposes of sections 63 and 64.
  • (2) In those sections and this section, in relation to a scheme return notice—
  • return date” means the date specified under subsection (3)(b) in the scheme return notice;
  • scheme return” means a document in the form (if any) specified in the scheme return notice, containing the information required by the notice.
  • (3) A scheme return notice must specify—
  • (a) the descriptions of information required by it, and
  • (b) the return date,

and may specify the form in which that information is to be provided.

  • (4) A scheme return notice in respect of a registrable scheme—
  • (a) must require all registrable information in relation to the scheme, and
  • (b) may require other information which the Regulator reasonably requires for the purposes of the exercise of its functions in relation to the scheme.
  • (5) The return date specified in a scheme return notice must fall after the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the date on which the notice is issued.
  • (6) A scheme return notice must be in writing and is treated as issued in respect of a registrable scheme when it is sent to the trustees or managers of the scheme.

Register of prohibited trustees

Register of prohibited trustees

66
  • (1) The Regulator must keep in such manner as it thinks fit a register (“the prohibition register”) of—
  • (a) all persons who are prohibited under section 3 of the Pensions Act 1995, and
  • (b) all persons appearing to the Regulator to be prohibited under section 3A of that Act.
  • (2) Arrangements made by the Regulator for the prohibition register must secure that the contents of the register are not disclosed or otherwise made available to members of the public except in accordance with section 67.
  • (3) Nothing in subsection (2) requires the Regulator to exclude any matter from a report published under section 89 (reports of Regulator’s consideration of cases).

Accessibility of register of prohibited trustees

67
  • (1) The Regulator must make arrangements to secure that the prohibition register is open, during its normal working hours, for inspection in person and without notice at—
  • (a) the principal office used by it for the carrying out of its functions, and
  • (b) such other of its offices (if any) as it considers to be places where it would be reasonable for a copy of the register to be kept open for inspection.
  • (2) If a request is made to the Regulator—
  • (a) to state whether a particular person identified in the request is a person appearing in the prohibition register as prohibited in respect of an occupational trust scheme specified in the request,
  • (b) to state whether a particular person so identified is a person appearing in that register as prohibited in respect of a particular description of occupational trust schemes so specified, or
  • (c) to state whether a particular person so identified is a person appearing in that register as prohibited in respect of all occupational trust schemes,

the Regulator must promptly comply with the request in such manner as it considers reasonable.

  • (3) The Regulator may, in such manner as it considers appropriate, publish a summary of the prohibition register if (subject to subsections (6) to (8)) the summary—
  • (a) contains all the information described in subsection (4),
  • (b) arranges that information in the manner described in subsection (5),
  • (c) does not (except by identifying a person as prohibited in respect of all occupational trust schemes, in respect of a particular description of such schemes or in respect of a particular such scheme) identify any of the schemes in respect of which persons named in the summary are prohibited, and
  • (d) does not disclose any other information contained in the register.
  • (4) That information is—
  • (a) the full names and titles, so far as the Regulator has a record of them, of all the persons appearing in the register as persons who are prohibited,
  • (b) the dates of birth of such of those persons as are persons whose dates of birth are matters of which the Regulator has a record, and
  • (c) in the case of each person whose name is included in the published summary, whether that person appears in the register—
  • (i) as prohibited in respect of only one occupational trust scheme,
  • (ii) as prohibited in respect of one or more particular descriptions of such schemes, but not in respect of all such schemes, or
  • (iii) as prohibited in respect of all such schemes.
  • (5) For the purposes of paragraph (c) of subsection (4), the information in the published register must be arranged in three separate lists, one for each of the descriptions of prohibition specified in the sub-paragraphs of that paragraph.
  • (6) The Regulator must ensure, in the case of any published summary, that a person is not identified in the summary as a prohibited person if it appears to the Regulator that the determination by virtue of which that person appears in the register—
  • (a) is the subject of any pending reference, review, appeal or legal proceedings which could result in that person’s removal from the register, or
  • (b) is a determination which might still become the subject of any such reference, review, appeal or proceedings.
  • (7) The Regulator must ensure, in the case of any published summary, that the particulars relating to a person do not appear in a particular list mentioned in subsection (5) if it appears to the Regulator that a determination by virtue of which that person’s particulars would appear in that list—
  • (a) is the subject of any pending reference, review, appeal or legal proceedings which could result in such a revocation or other overturning of a prohibition of that person as would require his particulars to appear in a different list, or
  • (b) is a determination which might still become the subject of any such reference, review, appeal or proceedings.
  • (8) Where subsection (7) prevents a person’s particulars from being included in a particular list in the published summary, they must be included, instead, in the list (if any) in which they would have been included if the prohibition to which the reference, review, appeal or proceedings relate or might relate had already been revoked or otherwise overturned.
  • (9) For the purposes of this section a determination is one which might still become the subject of a reference, review, appeal or proceedings if, and only if, in the case of that determination—
  • (a) the time for the making of an application for a review or reference, or for the bringing of an appeal or other proceedings, has not expired, and
  • (b) there is a reasonable likelihood that such an application might yet be made, or that such an appeal or such proceedings might yet be brought.
  • (10) In this section—
  • name”, in relation to a person any of whose names is recorded by the Regulator as an initial, means that initial;
  • occupational trust scheme” means an occupational pension scheme established under a trust.

Collecting information relevant to the Board of the Pension Protection Fund

Information relevant to the Board

68

The Regulator may collect any information which appears to it to be relevant to the exercise of the functions of the Board of the Pension Protection Fund.

Duty to notify the Regulator of certain events

69
  • (1) Except where the Regulator otherwise directs, the appropriate person must give notice of any notifiable event to the Regulator.
  • (2) In subsection (1) “notifiable event” means—
  • (a) a prescribed event in respect of an eligible scheme, or
  • (b) a prescribed event in respect of the employer in relation to an eligible scheme.
  • (3) For the purposes of subsection (1)—
  • (a) in the case of an event within subsection (2)(a), each of the following is “the appropriate person”—
  • (i) the trustees or managers of the scheme,
  • (ii) a person of a prescribed description, and
  • (b) in relation to an event within subsection (2)(b), each of the following is “the appropriate person”—
  • (i) the employer in relation to the scheme,
  • (ii) a person of a prescribed description.
  • (4) A notice under subsection (1)—
  • (a) must be in writing, and
  • (b) subject to subsection (5), must be given as soon as reasonably practicable after the person giving it becomes aware of the notifiable event.
  • (5) Regulations may require a notice under subsection (1) to be given before the beginning of the prescribed period ending with the notifiable event in question.
  • (6) No duty to which a person is subject is to be regarded as contravened merely because of any information or opinion contained in a notice under this section.

This is subject to section 311 (protected items).

  • (7) Where the trustees or managers of a scheme fail to comply with an obligation imposed on them by subsection (1), section 88A (financial penalties) applies in relation to any trustee or manager who has failed to take all reasonable steps to secure compliance with that subsection.
  • (8) Section 88A also applies to any other person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an obligation imposed on him by subsection (1).
  • (9) In this section—
  • eligible scheme” has the meaning given by section 126;
  • event” includes a failure to act.

Reporting breaches of the law

Duty to report breaches of the law

70
  • (1) Subsection (2) imposes a reporting requirement on the following persons—
  • (a) a trustee or manager of an occupational or personal pension scheme;
  • (aa) a member of the pension board of a public service pension scheme;
  • (b) a person who is otherwise involved in the administration of an occupational or personal pension scheme;
  • (c) the employer in relation to an occupational pension scheme;
  • (d) a professional adviser in relation to such a scheme;
  • (e) a person who is otherwise involved in advising the trustees or managers of an occupational or personal pension scheme in relation to the scheme;
  • (f) a scheme strategist or scheme funder of a Master Trust scheme within the meaning of Part 1 of the Pension Schemes Act 2017 (see section 39 of that Act).
  • (2) Where the person has reasonable cause to believe that—
  • (a) a duty which is relevant to the administration of the scheme in question, and is imposed by or by virtue of an enactment or rule of law, has not been or is not being complied with, and
  • (b) the failure to comply is likely to be of material significance to the Regulator in the exercise of any of its functions,

he must give a written report of the matter to the Regulator as soon as reasonably practicable.

  • (3) No duty to which a person is subject is to be regarded as contravened merely because of any information or opinion contained in a written report under this section.

This is subject to section 311 (protected items).

  • (4) Section 10 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (civil penalties) applies to any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an obligation imposed on him by this section.

Reports by skilled persons

Reports by skilled persons

71
  • (1) The Regulator may issue a notice (a “report notice”) to—
  • (a) the trustees or managers of a work-based pension scheme,
  • (b) any employer in relation to such a scheme, ...
  • (ba) in the case of a work-based scheme which is a public service pension scheme, a member of the pension board of the scheme, or
  • (c) any person who is otherwise involved in the administration of a work-based pension scheme,

requiring them or, as the case may be, him to provide the Regulator with a report on one or more specified matters which are relevant to the exercise of any of the Regulator’s functions.

  • (2) A report notice must require the person appointed to make the report to be a person—
  • (a) nominated or approved by the Regulator, and
  • (b) appearing to the Regulator to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter or matters concerned.
  • (3) A report notice may require the report to be provided to the Regulator—
  • (a) in a specified form;
  • (b) before a specified date.
  • (4) The costs of providing a report in accordance with a report notice must be met by the person to whom the notice is issued (“the notified person”).
  • (5) But a report notice may require a specified person (other than the Regulator) to reimburse to the notified person the whole or any part of the costs of providing the report.
  • (6) Where, by virtue of subsection (5), an amount is required to be reimbursed by a specified person to the notified person, that amount is to be treated as a debt due from the specified person to the notified person.
  • (7) If the trustees or managers of a work-based pension scheme fail to comply with a report notice issued to them, section 10 of the Pensions Act 1995 (civil penalties) applies to any trustee or manager who has failed to take all reasonable steps to secure compliance.
  • (8) That section also applies to any other person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a report notice issued to him.
  • (9) Where a report notice is issued, any person who is providing (or who at any time has provided) services to the notified person in relation to a matter on which the report is required must give the person appointed to make the report such assistance as he may reasonably require.
  • (10) The duty imposed by subsection (9) is enforceable, on the application of the Regulator, by an injunction or, in Scotland, by an order for specific performance under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988 (c. 36).
  • (11) In this section—
  • specified”, in relation to a report notice, means specified in the notice;
  • work-based pension scheme” has the same meaning as in section 5 (Regulator’s objectives).

Gathering information

Provision of information

72
  • (1) The Regulator may, by notice in writing, require any person to whom subsection (2) applies to produce any document, or provide any other information, which is—
  • (a) of a description specified in the notice, and
  • (b) relevant to the exercise of the Regulator’s functions.
  • (1A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (1B) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (2) This subsection applies to—
  • (a) a trustee or manager of an occupational or personal pension scheme,
  • (aa) a member of the pension board of a public service pension scheme,
  • (b) a professional adviser in relation to an occupational pension scheme,
  • (c) the employer in relation to—
  • (i) an occupational pension scheme, or
  • (ii) a personal pension scheme where direct payment arrangements exist in respect of one or more members of the scheme who are employees, and
  • (d) any other person appearing to the Regulator to be a person who holds, or is likely to hold, information relevant to the exercise of the Regulator’s functions.
  • (3) Where the production of a document, or the provision of information, is required by a notice given under subsection (1), the document must be produced, or information must be provided, in such a manner, at such a place and within such a period as may be specified in the notice.

Inspection of premises

73
  • (1) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether, in the case of any occupational pension scheme, the occupational scheme provisions are being, or have been, complied with, at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.
  • (2) In subsection (1), the “occupational scheme provisions” means provisions contained in or made by virtue of—
  • (a) any of the following provisions of this Act—
  • this Part;
  • Part 3 (scheme funding);
  • sections 241 to 243 (member-nominated trustees and directors);
  • sections 247 to 249 (requirement for knowledge and understanding);
  • section 252 (UK-based scheme to be trust with effective rules);
  • section 253 (non-UK scheme to be trust with UK-resident trustee);
  • section 255 (activities of occupational pension schemes);
  • section 256 (no indemnification for fines or civil penalties);
  • sections 259 and 261 (consultation by employers);
  • ...
  • Part 9 (miscellaneous and supplementary);
  • (b) either of the following provisions of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (c. 30)—
  • section 33 (time for discharge of pension credit liability);
  • section 45 (information);
  • (c) any of the provisions of Part 1 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (occupational pension schemes), other than—
  • (i) sections 51 to 54 (indexation), and
  • (ii) sections 62 to 65 (equal treatment);
  • (d) any of the following provisions of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (c. 48)—
  • Chapter 1 of Part 4ZA (transfer values);
  • Chapter 2 of Part 4ZA (early leavers: cash transfer sums and contribution refunds);
  • Chapter 2 of Part 4A (pension credit transfer values);
  • section 113 (information);
  • section 175 (levy);
  • (da) section 16 of the Public Service Pensions Act 2013;
  • (db) the Pension Schemes Act 2017;
  • (dc) Part 1 of the Pension Schemes Act 2021;
  • (e) any provisions in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to any provisions within paragraphs (a) to (dc) .
  • (2A) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether the Regulator has grounds in the case of an occupational pension scheme for issuing—
  • (a) a contribution notice under section 38 (contribution notices where avoidance of employer debt),
  • (b) a financial support direction under section 43 (financial support directions),
  • (c) a contribution notice under section 47 (contribution notices where non-compliance with financial support direction),
  • (d) a restoration order under section 52 (restoration orders where transactions at an undervalue),
  • (e) a contribution notice under section 55 (contribution notice where failure to comply with restoration order), or
  • (f) a notice, direction or order under any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland,

at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.

  • (3) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether, in the case of a stakeholder scheme—
  • (a) sections 1 and 2(4) of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (stakeholder pension schemes: registration etc), or
  • (b) any corresponding provisions in force in Northern Ireland,

are being, or have been, complied with, at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.

  • (4) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether, in the case of any trust-based personal stakeholder scheme, the trust-based scheme provisions are being, or have been, complied with, at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.
  • (5) In subsection (4)—
  • trust-based personal stakeholder scheme” means a personal pension scheme which—is a stakeholder scheme, andis established under a trust;the “trust-based scheme provisions” means any provisions contained in or made by virtue of—any provision which applies in relation to trust-based personal stakeholder schemes by virtue of paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (c. 30), as the provision applies by virtue of that paragraph, orany corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland.
  • (5A) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether the relevant provisions are being, or have been, complied with in the case of a scheme, at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.
  • (5B) In subsection (5A), “the relevant provisions” means provisions contained in or made by virtue of—
  • (a) such provisions of the pensions legislation as may be prescribed;
  • (b) any provisions in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to the provisions so prescribed.
  • (6) Premises are liable to inspection for the purposes of this section if the inspector has reasonable grounds to believe that—
  • (a) members of the scheme are employed there,
  • (b) documents relevant to the administration of the scheme are being kept there, ...
  • (c) the administration of the scheme, or work connected with that administration, is being carried out there.
  • (d) documents relevant to the administration of the business of the employer in relation to the scheme are being kept there,
  • (e) the administration of the business of the employer in relation to the scheme, or work connected with that administration, is being carried out there, or
  • (f) in the case of an occupational pension scheme other than a money purchase scheme, a prescribed scheme or a scheme of a prescribed description, documents relevant to a change in the ownership of the employer or of a significant asset of the employer are being kept there.
  • (6A) In the application of this section in relation to a provision mentioned in subsection (1), (2A), (3), (4) or (5A), references in this section to “employer” are to be read as having the meaning that it has for the purposes of the provision in question.
  • (6B) In this section a reference to an employer in relation to an occupational pension scheme includes a reference to a person who has been the employer in relation to the scheme.
  • (7) this section-

the pensions legislation” means any enactment contained in or made by virtue of—

  • (a) the Pension Schemes Act 1993,
  • (b) Part 1 or section 33 or 45 of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999,
  • (c) this Act,
  • (d) Schedule 18 to the Pensions Act 2014, or
  • (e) section 48 or 49 of the Pension Schemes Act 2015;

stakeholder scheme” means an occupational pension scheme or a personal pension scheme which is or has been registered under—

  • (a) section 2 of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (register of stakeholder schemes), or
  • (b) any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland.

Inspection of premises in respect of employers' obligations

74
  • (A1) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether an employer is contravening, or has contravened—
  • (a) any provision of, or of regulations under, Chapter 1 of Part 1, or section 50 or 54, of the Pensions Act 2008, or
  • (b) any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland,

at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.

  • (B1) Premises are liable to inspection for the purposes of subsection (A1) if the inspector has reasonable grounds to believe that—
  • (a) the employer employs workers there,
  • (b) documents relevant to any of the following are being kept there—
  • (i) the administration of the employer's business,
  • (ii) the duties of the employer under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of the Pensions Act 2008 or under any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland,
  • (iii) the administration of a pension scheme that is relevant to the discharge of those duties, or
  • (c) the administration of the employer's business, or work connected with that administration, is being carried out there.
  • (C1) In subsections (A1) and (B1) “employer” and “worker” have the meaning given by section 88 of the Pensions Act 2008.
  • (D1) In the application of subsections (A1) and (B1) in relation to any provision mentioned in subsection (A1)(b) (a “corresponding Northern Ireland provision”), references in those subsections to “employer” or “worker” are to be read as having the meaning that they have for the purposes of the corresponding Northern Ireland provision.
  • (1) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether an employer is complying, or has complied, with the requirements under—
  • (a) section 3 of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (duty of employers to facilitate access to stakeholder pension schemes), or
  • (b) any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland,

at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.

  • (2) Premises are liable to inspection for the purposes of subsection (1) if the inspector has reasonable grounds to believe that—
  • (a) employees of the employer are employed there,
  • (b) documents relevant to the administration of the employer’s business are being kept there, or
  • (c) the administration of the employer’s business, or work connected with that administration, is being carried out there.
  • (3) In subsections (1) and (2), “employer” has the meaning given by section 3(9) of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (or, where subsection (1)(b) applies, by any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland).
  • (4) An inspector may, for the purposes of investigating whether, in the case of any direct payment arrangements relating to a personal pension scheme, any of the following provisions—
  • (a) regulations made by virtue of sections 260 and 261 (consultation by employers),
  • (b) section 111A of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (c. 48) (monitoring of employers' payments to personal pension schemes), or
  • (c) any corresponding provisions in force in Northern Ireland,

is being, or has been, complied with, at any reasonable time enter premises liable to inspection.

  • (5) Premises are liable to inspection for the purposes of subsection (4) if the inspector has reasonable grounds to believe that—
  • (a) employees of the employer are employed there,
  • (b) documents relevant to the administration of—
  • (i) the employer’s business,
  • (ii) the direct payment arrangements, or
  • (iii) the scheme to which those arrangements relate,

are being kept there, or

  • (c) either of the following is being carried out there—
  • (i) the administration of the employer’s business, the arrangements or the scheme;
  • (ii) work connected with that administration.
  • (6) In the application of subsections (4) and (5) in relation to any provision mentioned in subsection (4)(c) (a “corresponding Northern Ireland provision”), references in those subsections to—
  • direct payment arrangements,
  • a personal pension scheme,
  • the employer, or
  • employees of the employer,

Inspection of premises: powers of inspectors

75
  • (1) Subsection (2) applies where, for a purpose mentioned in subsection (1), (2A), (3), (4) or (5A) of section 73 or subsection (A1), (1) or (4) of section 74, an inspector enters premises which are liable to inspection for the purposes of that provision.
  • (2) While there, the inspector—
  • (a) may make such examination and inquiry as may be necessary for the purpose for which he entered the premises,
  • (b) may require any person on the premises to produce, or secure the production of, any document relevant to compliance with the regulatory provisions for his inspection,
  • (c) may take copies of any such document,
  • (d) may take possession of any document appearing to be a document relevant to compliance with the regulatory provisions or take in relation to any such document any other steps which appear necessary for preserving it or preventing interference with it,
  • (e) may, in the case of any such document which consists of information which is stored in electronic form and is on, or accessible from, the premises, require the information to be produced in a form—
  • (i) in which it can be taken away, and
  • (ii) in which it is legible or from which it can readily be produced in a legible form, and
  • (f) may, as to any matter relevant to compliance with the regulatory provisions, examine, or require to be examined, either alone or in the presence of another person, any person on the premises whom he has reasonable cause to believe to be able to give information relevant to that matter.

Inspection of premises: supplementary

76
  • (1) This section applies for the purposes of sections 73 to 75.
  • (2) Premises which are a private dwelling-house not used by, or by permission of, the occupier for the purposes of a trade or business are not liable to inspection.
  • (3) Any question whether—
  • (a) anything is being or has been done or omitted which might by virtue of any of the regulatory provisions give rise to a liability for a civil penalty under or by virtue of section 77A, 77B or 88A of this Act, section 10 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) or section 168(4) of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (c. 48) (or under or by virtue of any provision in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to any of those provisions), or
  • (b) an offence is being or has been committed under any of the regulatory provisions,

is to be treated as a question whether the regulatory provision is being, or has been, complied with.

  • (4) An inspector applying for admission to any premises for the purposes of section 73 or 74 must, if so required, produce his certificate of appointment.
  • (5) When exercising a power under section 73, 74 or 75 an inspector may be accompanied by such persons as he considers appropriate.
  • (6) Any document of which possession is taken under section 75 may be retained—
  • (a) if the document is relevant to proceedings against any person for any offence which are commenced before the end of the retention period, until the conclusion of those proceedings, and
  • (b) otherwise, until the end of the retention period.
  • (7) In subsection (6), “the retention period” means the period comprising—
  • (a) the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which possession was taken of the document, and
  • (b) any extension of that period under subsection (8).
  • (8) The Regulator may, by a direction made before the end of the retention period (including any extension of it under this subsection), extend it by such period not exceeding 12 months as the Regulator considers appropriate.
  • (9) “The regulatory provisions”, in relation to an inspection under subsection (1), (2A), (3), (4) or (5A) of section 73 or subsection (A1), (1) or (4) of section 74, means the provision or provisions referred to in that subsection.

Penalties relating to sections 72 to 75

77
  • (1) A person who, without reasonable excuse, neglects or refuses to provide information or produce a document when required to do so under section 72 is guilty of an offence.
  • (1A) A person who, without reasonable excuse, neglects or refuses—
  • (a) to attend before the Regulator as required under section 72A(1), or
  • (b) to answer a question or provide an explanation on a matter specified in the notice under section 72A(1), when so attending before the Regulator,

is guilty of an offence.

  • (2) A person who without reasonable excuse—
  • (a) intentionally delays or obstructs an inspector exercising any power under section 73, 74 or 75,
  • (b) neglects or refuses to produce, or secure the production of, any document when required to do so under section 75, or
  • (c) neglects or refuses to answer a question or to provide information when so required,

is guilty of an offence.

  • (3) A person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) , (1A) or (2) is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
  • (4) An offence under subsection (1) , (1A) or (2)(b) or (c) may be charged by reference to any day or longer period of time; and a person may be convicted of a second or subsequent offence by reference to any period of time following the preceding conviction of the offence.
  • (5) Any person who intentionally and without reasonable excuse alters, suppresses, conceals or destroys any document which he is or is liable to be required to produce under section 72 or 75 is guilty of an offence.
  • (6) Any person guilty of an offence under subsection (5) is liable—
  • (a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or both.

Warrants

78
  • (1) A justice of the peace may issue a warrant under this section if satisfied on information on oath given by or on behalf of the Regulator that there are reasonable grounds for believing—
  • (a) that there is on, or accessible from, any premises any document—
  • (i) whose production has been required under section 72 or 75, or any corresponding provision in force in Northern Ireland, and
  • (ii) which has not been produced in compliance with that requirement,
  • (b) that there is on, or accessible from, any premises any document whose production could be so required and, if its production were so required, the document—
  • (i) would not be produced, but
  • (ii) would be removed, or made inaccessible, from the premises, hidden, tampered with or destroyed, or
  • (c) that—
  • (i) an offence has been committed,
  • (ii) a person will do any act which constitutes a misuse or misappropriation of the assets of an occupational pension scheme or a personal pension scheme,
  • (iii) a person is liable to pay a penalty under or by virtue of section 77A, 77B or 88A of this Act, section 10 of the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26) (civil penalties) or section 168(4) of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (c. 48) (civil penalties for breach of regulations), or under or by virtue of any provision in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to any of those provisions , or
  • (iv) a person is liable to be prohibited from being a trustee of an occupational or personal pension scheme under section 3 of the Pensions Act 1995 (prohibition orders), including that section as it applies by virtue of paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (c. 30) (stakeholder schemes), or under or by virtue of any corresponding provisions in force in Northern Ireland,

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