Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021

• (iv) regulation 2(6)(b) (specific category: display of UAS operator's registration number);

• (v) regulation 2(7)(a) (specific category: registration of UAS operator);

• (vi) regulation 2(7)(b) (specific category: display of UAS operator's registration number);

• (vii) regulation 2(9)(a) (specific category: registration of UAS operator);

• (viii) regulation 2(9)(b) (specific category: display of UAS operator's registration number).

• (4) P is guilty of an offence if—

• (a) P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide, as respects a flight by an unmanned aircraft, information as to the identity of a person,

• (b) P is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight,

• (c) the relevant registration requirement which the constable had reasonable grounds for suspecting is or was applicable as respects the UAS operator for the unmanned aircraft and the flight is or was so applicable, and

• (d) at the time when the constable imposed the requirement, P could have provided information of the kind which the constable required P to provide.

• (5) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.

• (6) Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by UAS operators of evidence of registration

3

• (1) A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—

• (a) has reasonable grounds for believing that—

• (i) a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and

• (ii) P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (b) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a relevant registration requirement is or was applicable as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (2) The constable may require P to provide such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of P's compliance, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, with a relevant registration requirement.

• (3) In this paragraph “relevant registration requirement” has the same meaning as in paragraph 2.

• (4) P is guilty of an offence if—

• (a) P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide evidence of P's compliance, as respects the flight, with a relevant registration requirement,

• (b) P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (c) the relevant registration requirement is or was applicable as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (5) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.

• (6) Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by UAS operators of information about remote pilots

4

• (1) A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—

• (a) has reasonable grounds for believing that—

• (i) a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and

• (ii) P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (b) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a relevant competency requirement is or was applicable as respects the remote pilot for the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (2) The constable may require P to provide such information as the constable considers reasonable as to the identity of the person or persons who are or were the remote pilot or remote pilots of the unmanned aircraft for the flight.

• (3) In this paragraph “relevant competency requirement” has the same meaning as in paragraph 1.

• (4) P is guilty of an offence if—

• (a) P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide information as to the identity of a person,

• (b) P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight,

• (c) the relevant competency requirement which the constable had reasonable grounds for suspecting is or was applicable as respects the remote pilot for the unmanned aircraft and the flight is or was so applicable, and

• (d) at the time when the constable imposed the requirement, P could have provided information of the kind which the constable required P to provide.

• (5) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.

• (6) Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by remote pilots or UAS operators of other information etc

5

• (1) A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable has reasonable grounds for believing that—

• (a) a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and

• (b) P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight.

• (2) The constable may require P to provide such information, documentation or evidence that is of a specified description as the constable considers reasonable.

• (3) In this paragraph “specified description” means a description specified by the Secretary of State by regulations for the purposes of this paragraph.

• (4) Regulations under this paragraph that specify a description of information, documentation or evidence may provide for conditions that must be met before a constable may require P to provide information, documentation or evidence that is within that description.

• (5) P is guilty of an offence if—

• (a) P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide information, documentation or evidence,

• (b) P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (c) at the time when the constable imposed the requirement, P could have provided information, documentation or evidence of the kind which the constable required P to provide.

• (6) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.

• (7) Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision of evidence of consents for certain flights

6

• (1) A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—

• (a) has reasonable grounds for believing that—

• (i) a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and

• (ii) P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (b) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a provision of the ANO 2016 or the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 is or was being contravened unless a relevant consent is or was applicable as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (2) The constable may require P to provide, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of a relevant consent.

• (3) In this paragraph “relevant consent” means a permission, operational authorisation, LUC, authorisation or certification required by, or referred to in

• (a) any of the following provisions of the ANO 2016—

• (i) article 94A (permission for flights over or near aerodromes);

• (ii) article 265E(3) (tethered small unmanned aircraft: permission from CAA);

• (b) any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025—

• (i) regulation 2(1)(b) (operational authorisation, LUC with appropriate privileges, or authorisation);

• (ii) regulation 2(1)(c) (certification of UAS and UAS operator);

• (iii) regulation 3(1)(b) (operational authorisation, LUC with appropriate privileges, or authorisation);

• (iv) regulation 3(1)(c) (certification of UAS and UAS operator).

• (4) P is guilty of an offence if—

• (a) P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide, as respects a flight by an unmanned aircraft, evidence of a relevant consent,

• (b) P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (c) the relevant consent is or was applicable as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (5) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.

• (6) Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision of evidence of exemptions for certain flights

7

• (1) A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—

• (a) has reasonable grounds for believing that—

• (i) a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and

• (ii) P is or was, as respects the flight, the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft, and

• (b) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a provision of the ANO 2016 is or was being contravened unless an ANO exemption is or was applicable as respects—

• (i) a person and the unmanned aircraft and the flight, or

• (ii) the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (2) The constable may require P to provide, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of an ANO exemption.

• (3) In this paragraph “ANO exemption” means an exemption under article 266 of the ANO 2016.

• (4) The evidence which a constable may require a person to provide under this paragraph includes evidence of the applicability of an ANO exemption to a person, or the unmanned aircraft, as respects the flight.

• (5) P is guilty of an offence if—

• (a) P without reasonable excuse fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide, as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight, or as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, evidence of an ANO exemption,

• (b) P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and

• (c) the ANO exemption is or was applicable as respects—

• (i) P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight, or

• (ii) the unmanned aircraft and the flight.

• (6) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.

• (7) Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Power to inspect unmanned aircraft in connection with other powers

8

• (1) A constable may require a person in possession of an unmanned aircraft to allow the constable to inspect it if the constable considers that the inspection would assist the constable in deciding whether a power conferred by any of paragraphs 1 to 7 is exercisable.

• (2) A constable may if necessary use reasonable force for the purpose of exercising the power conferred by this paragraph.

• (3) A person who fails to comply with a requirement imposed under this paragraph is guilty of an offence.

• (4) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.

Offence of providing false or misleading information etc

9

• (1) A person commits an offence if—

• (a) anything that the person provides under this Schedule is false or misleading in a material respect, and

• (b) the person either—

• (i) knows that it is false or misleading, or

• (ii) is reckless as to whether it is false or misleading.

• (2) A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.

Provision of information etc at a police station

10

• (1) A person (P) may comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under any of paragraphs 1 to 7 by providing what the constable required at a police station specified by P at the time when the constable imposed the requirement (the “nominated police station”)—

• (a) within seven days beginning with the day after which the constable imposed the requirement, or

• (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to do so within that seven day period, as soon after the end of that period as is reasonably practicable.

• (2) It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under any of paragraphs 1 to 7 in respect of a failure to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable to prove that it was not reasonably practicable to provide what the constable required at the nominated police station before the day on which the proceedings were commenced.

• (3) For that purpose, the proceedings against a person for an offence are commenced when—

• (a) in the case of proceedings in England and Wales—

• (i) an information is laid for the offence,

• (ii) the person is charged with the offence under Part 4 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, or

• (iii) a written charge is issued against the person for the offence under section 29 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003;

• (b) in the case of proceedings in Scotland, a complaint is served on the person in respect of the offence;

• (c) in the case of proceedings in Northern Ireland—

• (i) a summons or warrant is issued under Article 20 of the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 in respect of the person and the offence,

• (ii) a summons is issued under section 93 of the Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 2015 in respect of the person and the offence, or

• (iii) the person is charged with the offence after being taken into custody without a warrant.

Interpretation

11

• (1) In this Schedule the following expressions have the same meanings as in the ANO 2016 (see Schedule 1 to the ANO 2016)— “ remote pilot ”; “ UAS operator ”.

• (2) A reference in this Schedule to a provision of subordinate legislation (whenever the reference is passed or made) is a reference to that provision as it has effect from time to time.

• (3) Sub-paragraph (2) is subject to any contrary provision made in subordinate legislation.

SCHEDULE 10

Power to issue fixed penalty notices

1

• (1) This paragraph applies where a constable has reason to believe that a person (P) aged 18 or over is committing, or has committed, a fixed penalty offence.

• (2) The constable may give P a fixed penalty notice in respect of the fixed penalty offence if Condition A and Condition B are met.

• (3) Condition A: the constable believes that P did not, and did not intend to—

• (a) endanger any other aircraft (whether or not an unmanned aircraft),

• (b) cause any person harm, harassment, alarm or distress,

• (c) cause any person occupying any premises nuisance or annoyance relating to their occupation of the premises,

• (d) undermine security or good order and discipline in any prison or in any other institution where persons are lawfully detained,

• (e) disturb public order, or

• (f) damage property (including land or buildings),

when committing the fixed penalty offence.

• (4) Condition B: the constable obtains P's name and address.

Fixed penalty offences

2

• (1) The Secretary of State may, by regulations, prescribe offences as fixed penalty offences for the purposes of this Schedule.

• (2) The Secretary of State may prescribe an offence only if it is—

• (a) an offence under Part 3 of this Act, or

• (b) an offence relating to unmanned aircraft under subordinate legislation,

which is triable summarily or triable either way.

• (3) After article 265F of the ANO 2016 insert—

(265G) In the case of an offence under any provision of this Order which is prescribed under paragraph 2(2) of Schedule 10 to the Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021, this Order has effect subject to Schedule 10 to that Act (fixed penalties for certain offences relating to unmanned aircraft).

• (4) That provision inserted into the ANO 2016 may be amended or revoked as if made by an Air Navigation Order.

• (5) In this paragraph “Air Navigation Order” means an Order in Council under section 60 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982.

Fixed penalty notices

3

• (1) A “fixed penalty notice” is a notice offering the opportunity of the discharge of any liability to conviction of the fixed penalty offence to which the notice relates by payment of a fixed penalty in accordance with this Schedule.

• (2) A fixed penalty notice must—

• (a) give reasonable particulars of the circumstances alleged to constitute the fixed penalty offence;

• (b) state the period during which (because of paragraph 4) proceedings will not be instituted for the offence;

• (c) specify the amount of the fixed penalty;

• (d) state the name and address of the person to whom the fixed penalty may be paid;

• (e) specify permissible methods of payment (which may include payment by cash);

• (f) specify permissible means by which a payment may be made (which may include payment by post).

• (3) A fixed penalty notice may specify two amounts under sub-paragraph (2)(c) and specify that, if the lower of those amounts is paid within a specified period of not more than 14 days, that is the amount of the fixed penalty.

• (4) Where a fixed penalty notice specifies that payment of a fixed penalty may be made by post using a specified method of payment—

• (a) payment may be made by pre-paying and posting to the person whose name is stated under sub-paragraph (2)(d), at the stated address, a letter containing the amount of the penalty that is paid by the specified method;

• (b) where that is done, payment is regarded as having been made at the time at which that letter would be delivered in the ordinary course of post.

Effect of fixed penalty notice

4

• (1) This paragraph applies if a person (P) is given a fixed penalty notice in respect of a fixed penalty offence.

• (2) No proceedings may be instituted for the offence during the 21 day response period.

• (3) But that prohibition ceases to apply if, during the 21 day response period, P has given notice requesting a hearing in respect of the offence in the manner specified in the fixed penalty notice.

• (4) P may not be convicted of the offence if P pays the fixed penalty during the 21 day response period.

• (5) In this paragraph “21 day response period” means the period of 21 days beginning with the day after the day on which the fixed penalty notice is given.

Amount of fixed penalty

5

• (1) The fixed penalty for a fixed penalty offence is to be prescribed by the Secretary of State by regulations; and where two amounts are specified in accordance with paragraph 3(3), the higher of those amounts must be the prescribed fixed penalty.

• (2) The fixed penalty prescribed for a fixed penalty offence may not exceed—

• (a) one half of the maximum amount of the fine to which a person committing that offence would be liable on summary conviction, or

• (b) where there is no such maximum amount, the amount corresponding to level 4 on the standard scale for summary offences.

Supplementary provision

6

• (1) The Secretary of State may, by regulations, make—

• (a) provision about the form of, and information to be included in, fixed penalty notices;

• (b) provision about the consequences of providing false statements in connection with fixed penalty notices, including provision creating criminal offences;

• (c) provision about procedure after a fixed penalty notice is given, including provision about appeals.

• (2) Regulations under this paragraph may amend or repeal provision contained in an Act of Parliament.

Issuing of registration documents

7

• (1) This paragraph applies if, by the end of the 21 day response period, the person (P) given the fixed penalty notice has not—

• (a) paid the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice, or

• (b) requested a hearing.

• (2) If the fixed penalty notice was issued in respect of an offence committed in England and Wales, the chief officer of police may, in respect of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice, issue a registration document.

• (3) If the fixed penalty notice was issued in respect of an offence committed in Scotland, the chief officer of police must issue a registration document.

• (4) If the fixed penalty notice was issued in respect of an offence committed in Northern Ireland, the chief officer of police may, in respect of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice, issue a registration document.

• (5) In this Schedule “registration document” means a document which—

• (a) states that the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice is registrable for enforcement against P as a fine,

• (b) gives particulars of the offence to which the fixed penalty notice relates, and

• (c) states the name and last known address of P and the amount of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice.

• (6) In this paragraph—

• “chief officer of police”, in relation to a fixed penalty notice, means the chief officer of the police force in which the constable who gave the notice serves;

• “21 day response period” has the meaning given in paragraph 4(5).

Sending of registration documents

8

• (1) Where—

• (a) a person (P) is given a fixed penalty notice in respect of a fixed penalty offence, and

• (b) a registration document is issued by a person (R) under paragraph 7 in respect of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice,

R must cause the registration document to be sent to the relevant recipient.

• (2) If P appears to R to reside in England and Wales, the relevant recipient is the designated officer for the local justice area in which P appears to R to reside.

• (3) If P appears to R to reside in Scotland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to R to reside.

• (4) If P appears to R to reside in Northern Ireland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of petty sessions.

• (5) If there is no relevant recipient under any of sub-paragraphs (2) to (4), the relevant recipient is to be determined under sub-paragraphs (6) to (8).

• (6) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in England and Wales, the relevant recipient is the designated officer for the local justice area in which the offence was committed.

• (7) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.

• (8) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of petty sessions.

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to designated officer in England and Wales

9

• (1) Where the designated officer for a local justice area (D) receives a registration document in respect of the penalty specified in a fixed penalty notice given to a person (P) the registration document must be dealt with in accordance with this paragraph.

• (2) That duty applies whether D receives the registration document under paragraph 8, this paragraph or paragraph 10 or 11.

• (3) If it appears to D that P resides in the local justice area for which D is the designated officer, D must register the amount of the penalty as a fine in that area by entering it in the register of a magistrates' court acting in that area.

• (4) If it appears to D that P resides in any other local justice area in England and Wales, D must send the registration document to the designated officer for that area.

• (5) If it appears to D that P resides in Scotland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to D to reside.

• (6) If it appears to D that P resides in Northern Ireland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.

• (7) If the registration document is not dealt with under any of sub-paragraphs (3) to (6), it must be dealt with under sub-paragraphs (8) to (11).

• (8) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in the local justice area for which D is the designated officer, D must register the amount of the penalty as a fine in that area by entering it in the register of a magistrates' court acting in that area.

• (9) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in any other local justice area in England and Wales, D must send the registration document to the designated officer for that area.

• (10) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.

• (11) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.

• (12) If D registers the amount of the penalty as a fine under this paragraph, D must give P notice of the registration.

• (13) The notice must—

• (a) specify the amount of the penalty registered, and

• (b) give the information with respect to the fixed penalty offence, and the authority for registration, which was included in the registration document under paragraph 7.

• (14) On the registration of the amount of the penalty as a fine under this paragraph, any enactment referring (in whatever terms) to a fine imposed or other sum adjudged to be paid on the conviction of a magistrates' court is to have effect in the case in question as if the amount so registered were a fine imposed by the magistrates' court on the conviction of P on the date of the registration.

• (15) Accordingly, in the application by virtue of this paragraph of the provisions of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 relating to the satisfaction and enforcement of sums adjudged to be paid on the conviction of a magistrates' court, section 85 of that Act (power to remit a fine in whole or in part) is not excluded by subsection (2) of that section (references in that section to a fine not to include any other sum adjudged to be paid on a conviction) from applying to a sum registered in a magistrates' court by virtue of this paragraph.

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to clerk in Scotland

10

• (1) Where the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction (C) receives a registration document in respect of the penalty specified in a fixed penalty notice given to a person (P), the registration document must be dealt with in accordance with this paragraph.

• (2) That duty applies whether C receives the registration document under paragraph 8 or 9, this paragraph or paragraph 11.

• (3) If it appears to C that P resides in the area of the court, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by that court.

• (4) If it appears to C that P resides in Scotland but not in the area of C's court, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to reside.

• (5) If it appears to C that P resides in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which P appears to C to reside.

• (6) If it appears to C that P resides in Northern Ireland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.

• (7) If the registration document is not dealt with under any of sub-paragraphs (3) to (6), it must be dealt with under sub-paragraphs (8) to (11).

• (8) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in the area of the court, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by that court.

• (9) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland but not in the area of C's court, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.

• (10) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which the offence was committed.

• (11) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.

• (12) If C registers the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine under this paragraph, C must give P notice of the registration.

• (13) The notice must—

• (a) specify the amount of the penalty registered, and

• (b) give the information with respect to the fixed penalty offence, and the authority for registration, which was included in the registration document under paragraph 7.

• (14) On the registration of the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by a court of summary jurisdiction, any enactment referring (in whatever terms) to a fine imposed or other sum adjudged to be paid on the conviction of a court of summary jurisdiction is to have effect in the case in question as if the amount so registered were a fine imposed by the court of summary jurisdiction on the conviction of P on the date of the registration.

• (15) The reference in sub-paragraph (14) to any enactment includes any enactment comprised in, or in an instrument made under, an Act of the Scottish Parliament.

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to clerk of petty sessions in Northern Ireland

11

• (1) Where the clerk of petty sessions (C) receives a registration document in respect of the penalty specified in a fixed penalty notice given to a person (P), the registration document must be dealt with in accordance with this paragraph.

• (2) That duty applies whether C receives the registration document under paragraph 8, 9 or 10.

• (3) If it appears to C that P resides in Northern Ireland, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by entering it in the Order Book of a court of summary jurisdiction.

• (4) If it appears to C that P resides in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which P appears to C to reside.

• (5) If it appears to C that P resides in Scotland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to C to reside.

• (6) If the registration document is not dealt with under any of sub-paragraphs (3) to (5), it must be dealt with under sub-paragraphs (7) to (9).

• (7) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by entering it in the Order Book of a court of summary jurisdiction.

• (8) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which the offence was committed.

• (9) If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.

• (10) If C registers the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine under this paragraph, C must give P notice of the registration.

• (11) The notice must—

• (a) specify the amount of the penalty registered,

• (b) require payment of it by such date, not less than 28 days from the date of registration, as may be specified in the notice, and

• (c) give the information with respect to the fixed penalty offence, and the authority for registration, which was included in the registration document under paragraph 7.

• (12) On the registration of any amount in the Order Book of a court of summary jurisdiction by virtue of this paragraph, any enactment referring (in whatever terms) to a fine imposed or other sum adjudged to be paid on the conviction of such a court is to have effect in the case in question as if the amount so registered were a fine imposed by that court on the conviction of P on the date of the registration.

• (13) The clerk of petty sessions must refer the case to a district judge (magistrates' courts) for the judge to consider whether to make a collection order; and the order may be made without a court hearing.

• (14) Where a collection order is made in that case, the date specified in the order as the date by which the sum due must be paid must, unless the court directs otherwise, be the same as the date specified in the notice of registration under sub-paragraph (11)(b).

• (15) In this paragraph “collection order” means an order under section 3 of the Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 2016.

Bodies corporate & the Crown

12

• (1) For the purposes of this Schedule, where a fixed penalty notice is given to a body corporate, the place where that body resides and the address of that body are the registered or principal office of that body.

• (2) Nothing in this Schedule authorises a fixed penalty notice to be given in respect of the commission of a fixed penalty offence if, by virtue of any immunity of the Crown, no liability to a penalty for commission of the offence would arise.

Interpretation

13

In this Schedule—

• “court of summary jurisdiction”, in relation to Scotland, has the same meaning as in section 307(1) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995;

• “fixed penalty notice” has the meaning given in paragraph 3(1);

• “fixed penalty offence” means an offence prescribed under paragraph 2(1).

SCHEDULE 11

PART 1 — Amendment of provisions that relate to offences

Amendments in consequence of relevant subordinate legislation

1

• (1) The power to make Air Navigation Orders includes power to make any amendment of this Act which is authorised by sub-paragraph (3) or (4).

• (2) The Secretary of State may by regulations make any amendment of this Act which is authorised by sub-paragraph (3) or (4).

• (3) The Order in Council or regulations may make such amendments of Schedule 8 as the appropriate authority considers appropriate for or in connection with—

• (a) maintaining the effect of a provision of that Schedule in a case where it would otherwise cease to be effective because of provision made in any relevant subordinate legislation; or

• (b) extending a provision of that Schedule to apply to an offence relating to unmanned aircraft under relevant subordinate legislation to which the provision does not already apply.

• (4) The Order in Council or regulations may make such amendments of section 14 and Schedule 9 as the appropriate authority considers appropriate for or in connection with—

• (a) maintaining the effect of a provision of that section or Schedule in a case where it would otherwise cease to be effective because of provision made in any relevant subordinate legislation;

• (b) extending a provision of that section or Schedule to apply to an offence relating to unmanned aircraft under relevant subordinate legislation to which the provision does not already apply; or

• (c) conferring, in consequence of provision made in any relevant subordinate legislation, a police power that corresponds to a power conferred by Schedule 9 as enacted.

• (5) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (4)(c) each of the following police powers “corresponds to a power conferred by Schedule 9 as enacted”—

• (a) a power to require a person who the constable has reasonable grounds for believing is or was the remote pilot of an unmanned aircraft for a flight (“A”)—

• (i) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to A's compliance with any requirement relating to A's competency to be the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight;

• (ii) to provide information relating to the identity of a person who is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft, or made the unmanned aircraft available to A, for the flight;

• (iii) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the existence of a consent which is or was required for the flight; or

• (iv) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the application to the flight of an exemption from a requirement which would otherwise be applicable to the flight;

• (b) a power to require a person who the constable has reasonable grounds for believing is or was the UAS operator of an unmanned aircraft for a flight (“B”)—

• (i) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to B's compliance, as respects the flight, with any requirement relating to registration of B as the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft;

• (ii) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to B's compliance, as respects the flight, with any requirement relating to registration of the unmanned aircraft;

• (iii) to provide information relating to the identity of a person who is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight;

• (iv) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the existence of a consent which is or was required for the flight;

• (v) to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the application to the flight of an exemption from a requirement which would otherwise be applicable to the flight;

• (c) a power to require a person who is in possession of an unmanned aircraft to allow the constable to inspect it—

• (i) if the constable considers that the inspection would assist the constable in deciding whether any other power conferred by Schedule 9 is exercisable;

• (ii) for the purpose of checking whether a requirement to display any number, mark or information on the unmanned aircraft is being complied with.

• (6) The provision that may be made under sub-paragraph (4)(c) in connection with conferring a police power includes—

• (a) provision authorising a constable to use reasonable force in the exercise of the power;

• (b) provision for a person to be guilty of an offence if the person—

• (i) does not comply with a requirement imposed by a constable in the exercise of the power, or

• (ii) knowingly or recklessly provides a constable exercising the power with information, documentation or evidence that is false or misleading in a material respect.

• (7) In this paragraph—

• “appropriate authority” means—Her Majesty, in relation to an Air Navigation Order;the Secretary of State, in relation to regulations;

• “relevant subordinate legislation” means—an Air Navigation Order;regulations made under paragraph 3 of this Schedule;regulations made under Article 57 or 58 of the UK Basic Regulation;regulations made under Article 15 of the UK Implementing Regulation;

• “remote pilot”, in relation to an unmanned aircraft, means a person (however described) conducting the flight of the unmanned aircraft (including a person who is a remote pilot within the meaning of the ANO 2016 — see Schedule 1 to the ANO 2016);

• “UAS operator”, in relation to an unmanned aircraft, means a person (however described) who is the operator of the unmanned aircraft (including a person who is a UAS operator within the meaning of the ANO 2016 — see Schedule 1 to the ANO 2016).

Parliamentary procedure

2

In the table in Part 2 of Schedule 13 to the Civil Aviation Act 1982, in the entry relating to section 60 (which sets out the Parliamentary procedure applicable to Air Navigation Orders), in the third column, after “section 60(3)(r)” (provision that is subject to affirmative resolution procedure) insert “ or makes, under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 11 to the Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021, provision authorised by paragraph 1(3)(b) or (4)(b) or (c) of that Schedule; ”.

PART 2 — Enforcement of particular EU-derived legislation

Regulations providing for criminal offences or civil penalties

3

• (1) The Secretary of State may, for the purpose of securing compliance with any relevant legislation, make regulations providing—

• (a) subject to sub-paragraph (2), for persons to be guilty of offences in such circumstances as may be specified in the regulations and to be liable on conviction of those offences to such penalties as may be so specified;

• (b) for the imposition of civil penalties in such circumstances as may be specified in the regulations.

• (2) The power conferred by sub-paragraph (1)(a) does not include power—

• (a) to provide for offences to be triable only on indictment;

• (b) to authorise the imposition, on summary conviction of any offence, of any term of imprisonment or of a fine exceeding the statutory maximum;

• (c) to authorise the imposition, on conviction on indictment of an offence, of a term of imprisonment exceeding two years.

• (3) The power conferred by sub-paragraph (1)(b) does not include power to authorise the imposition of a civil penalty of an amount that exceeds the amount of a fine at level 4 on the standard scale.

• (4) Where regulations under this paragraph make provision for the imposition of a civil penalty, the regulations must also include provision for a right of appeal to a court or tribunal against the imposition of the penalty.

• (5) The provision that may be made under sub-paragraph (4) includes provision—

• (a) as to the jurisdiction of the court or tribunal to which an appeal may be made;

• (b) as to the grounds on which an appeal may be made;

• (c) as to the procedure for making an appeal (including any fee which may be payable);

• (d) suspending the imposition of the penalty, pending determination of the appeal;

• (e) as to the powers of the court or tribunal to which an appeal is made;

• (f) as to how any sum payable in pursuance of a decision of the court or tribunal is to be recoverable.

• (6) The provision referred to in sub-paragraph (5)(e) includes provision conferring on the court or tribunal to which an appeal is made power—

• (a) to confirm the penalty;

• (b) to withdraw the penalty;

• (c) to vary the amount of the penalty;

• (d) to award costs.

• (7) This paragraph does not limit the provision that may be made in an Air Navigation Order.

• (8) In this paragraph “relevant legislation” means—

• (a) the UK Delegated Regulation or provision made under that Regulation;

• (b) the UK Implementing Regulation or provision made under that Regulation;

• (c) regulations made under Article 57 or 58 of the UK Basic Regulation.

PART 3 — Interpretation

Interpretation

4

In this Schedule—

• “Air Navigation Order” means an Order in Council under section 60 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982;

• “power to make Air Navigation Orders” means the power under section 60 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 to make Air Navigation Orders;

• “UK Basic Regulation” means Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 July 2018 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Union Aviation Safety Agency, and amending Regulations (EC) No 2111/2005, (EC) No 1008/2008, (EU) No 996/2010, (EU) No 376/2014 and Directives 2014/30/EU and 2014/53/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Regulations (EC) No 552/2004 and (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council and Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91;

• “UK Delegated Regulation” means Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/945 of 12 March 2019 on unmanned aircraft systems and on third-country operators of unmanned aircraft systems;

• “UK Implementing Regulation” means Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/947 of 24 May 2019 on the rules and procedures for the operation of unmanned aircraft;

and a reference to the UK Basic Regulation, the UK Delegated Regulation or the UK Implementing Regulation is to that Regulation as it forms part of domestic law on and after IP completion day and as amended from time to time.

Meaning of “airspace change proposal”

Licensed air traffic services: modifying the licence and related appeals

Powers of police officers and prison authorities

Regulations

Appeals against decisions to give or vary directions

Decisions on appeal

Further appeals

Interpretation

Contravention notices

Enforcement orders

Enforcement orders: modification and revocation

Penalty for contravention of enforcement order

Procedure after imposing a penalty

Amount of penalty

Amount of penalty: fixed amount

Amount of penalty: daily amounts

Withdrawal of penalties

Recovering penalties

Statement of policy on penalties

Turnover

Appeals against enforcement orders

Appeals against penalties

Decisions on appeal

Further appeals

Definitions

After section 19 of the Transport Act 2000 insert—

This Schedule sets out the new Schedule A1 to the Transport Act 2000, to be inserted before Schedule 1 to that Act—

This Schedule sets out the new Schedule B1 to the Transport Act 2000, to be inserted after Schedule A1 to that Act (inserted by section 9 above)—

This Schedule sets out the new Schedule C1 to the Transport Act 2000, to be inserted after Schedule B1 to that Act (inserted by section 10 above)—

Transport Act 2000 (c.38)

Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c. 24)

Power of constable to require an unmanned aircraft to be grounded

Power of constable to stop and search persons or vehicles

Power to enter and search premises under warrant

Supplementary powers

Meaning of “relevant unmanned aircraft offence”

Meaning of “relevant offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025”

Meaning of “relevant offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016”

Meaning of “relevant prison offence”

Meaning of “Scottish common law prison offence”

Other interpretation

Authorisations to interfere with property etc

Provision by remote pilots of evidence of competency

Provision by remote pilots of information about UAS operators

Provision by UAS operators of evidence of registration

Provision by UAS operators of information about remote pilots

Provision by remote pilots or UAS operators of other information etc

Provision of evidence of consents for certain flights

Provision of evidence of exemptions for certain flights

Power to inspect unmanned aircraft in connection with other powers

Offence of providing false or misleading information etc

Provision of information etc at a police station

Interpretation

Power to issue fixed penalty notices

Fixed penalty offences

Fixed penalty notices

Effect of fixed penalty notice

Amount of fixed penalty

Supplementary provision

Issuing of registration documents

Sending of registration documents

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to designated officer in England and Wales

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to clerk in Scotland

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to clerk of petty sessions in Northern Ireland

Bodies corporate & the Crown

Interpretation

Amendments in consequence of relevant subordinate legislation

Parliamentary procedure

Regulations providing for criminal offences or civil penalties

Interpretation

Editorial notes

[^c24533811]: S. 7(2) in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538241]: S. 13 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538231]: S. 14 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538251]: S. 15 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537701]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537711]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537721]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537731]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537741]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537751]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537761]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537771]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537781]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537791]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537801]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537811]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537821]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537831]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537841]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537851]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537861]: Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537871]: Sch. 8 para. 1 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537881]: Sch. 8 para. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537891]: Sch. 8 para. 3 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537901]: Sch. 8 para. 4 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537911]: Sch. 8 para. 5 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537921]: Sch. 8 para. 6 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537931]: Sch. 8 para. 7 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537941]: Sch. 8 para. 8 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537951]: Sch. 8 para. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537961]: Sch. 8 para. 10 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537971]: Sch. 8 para. 11 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24537981]: Sch. 8 para. 12 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538121]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538131]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538141]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538151]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538161]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538171]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538181]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538191]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538201]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538211]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24538221]: Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)

[^c24537991]: Sch. 10 para. 1 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538001]: Sch. 10 para. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538011]: Sch. 10 para. 3 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538021]: Sch. 10 para. 4 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538031]: Sch. 10 para. 5 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538041]: Sch. 10 para. 6 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538051]: Sch. 10 para. 7 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538061]: Sch. 10 para. 8 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538071]: Sch. 10 para. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538081]: Sch. 10 para. 10 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538091]: Sch. 10 para. 11 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538101]: Sch. 10 para. 12 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^c24538111]: Sch. 10 para. 13 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)

[^key-44a678217253eb01957cfa8611824f89]: S. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(a)

[^key-e2aa075ce90bff7dca3c1f169d29a12f]: Sch. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(g)

[^key-6f2cc1c1c1dc7966e7b764ec17735ec2]: S. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(b)

[^key-76310576e2130c0abe7f4e142690ce16]: Sch. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(h)

[^key-3bcc9ed41a036ef116f935b42d5fa439]: Sch. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(i)

[^key-4a0074311cf181e28b48be801138939a]: Sch. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(f)

[^key-6cb5dc84e97c60efecde87eea75e6852]: Sch. 7 para. 1 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-b9091e05443954b565697b1bdde76791]: Sch. 7 para. 2 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-f481ffc8a5fd750d5bca1c9643478571]: Sch. 7 para. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-52a45f070a5fcc72c9c46fbd0fcc210e]: Sch. 7 para. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-968c92627b2ef80ad1ac2e21429d2bda]: Sch. 7 para. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-0d31212e78a74cbb8a9348905654448f]: Sch. 7 para. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-f3ad7ccc1b604bd1688d1c82d5f41757]: Sch. 7 para. 7 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-851c3fdf2ea11ba4571b24678a6bea5f]: Sch. 7 para. 8 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-55ef1c7ff77e31734adac6c67afcb9aa]: Sch. 7 para. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-217c3739a11b70c805f983ad39025931]: Sch. 7 para. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-d13d538c676019b6866d93797edcd3ce]: Sch. 7 para. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)

[^key-f3ffd06f21e55ced3fa7ad49428bccc3]: Sch. 8 para. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-ffacb2122b799f404a65895376fbab7b]: Sch. 8 para. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-5fb63406b9c59d31c4266bbecfa78b77]: Sch. 8 para. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-acbb195dc116fdb3b35052e69c490c68]: Sch. 8 para. 12 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-de27715a37be63d3a70a78be09c81389]: Sch. 10 para. 2 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-a0bdf27e5b7c6093d65a3c0ac6b877c5]: Sch. 10 para. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-c30913ba3d69def5f6c9c9c08201dd83]: S. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(c)

[^key-f14b5fcd20462925cd08ea4cb0151171]: S. 13 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(d)

[^key-6b95bbeaae12ee6bf5e02637a7338a6c]: S. 15 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(e)

[^key-fdf9e72639895e68dd6b4fed9c254ec9]: Sch. 8 para. 1 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-269e81ebb627b5546b2a903e0d4b2905]: Sch. 8 para. 2 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-b4ab55fce3d2d68333ebdb8da14b149c]: Sch. 8 para. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-c0bac265ee5e398e7443021b4065fc99]: Sch. 8 para. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-30d92aa766249d7feb1d799279f16c63]: Sch. 8 para. 7 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-a73be29ccf9b4a8de9669ab164bb715a]: Sch. 8 para. 8 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-2ed1b81d5ef0fb7dab6855a66475bb93]: Sch. 8 para. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-39ceae3a19c1ecfd4dd5286943d4fea3]: Sch. 8 para. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)

[^key-eaad25adf18814fd6ca3deefc4e2cd26]: Sch. 10 para. 1 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-fd3878b106b454509b8b9574d1032ce3]: Sch. 10 para. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-8fb1e16b354e70ba8e90c282b62e6a09]: Sch. 10 para. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-cf1e95301164538a8ebc5ef563b71956]: Sch. 10 para. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-7cb7c6a7ba4c6286f8e575ed3688d4a5]: Sch. 10 para. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-ad4966526634ee0287bd05ccd11a1647]: Sch. 10 para. 7 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-7013c50837e23f6ddf76ef11482da23d]: Sch. 10 para. 8 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-1b995ec1fb355576c35f3bcf51342d04]: Sch. 10 para. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-b1ae7bc0f093b0072912dbb5ac0a281c]: Sch. 10 para. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-f69fc62b2479e0d46705e9e08144f91e]: Sch. 10 para. 12 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-406bf3d4b47d1ea25fcf6ceb115b5d3b]: Sch. 10 para. 13 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

[^key-ae8234d7814c711eb25b5b4c0a33e10f]: S. 1 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(a)

[^key-269e8d7779e68f42c96ebc2cbc010857]: S. 2 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(b)

[^key-74d4c3e9e14f9fbbb1881b6289dbd73e]: S. 3 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(c)

[^key-5d7ddf64dd3ee88a5a18006d2183513b]: S. 4 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(d)

[^key-f3d8b0411075f2c5a91ee51717f664c3]: S. 5 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(e)

[^key-28904c35634384f501430b0626466535]: S. 6 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(f)

[^key-91281f5921c148d14b61f4a76f903ef1]: S. 7(1) in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(g)

[^key-1079195fede619de79a05777e3525427]: S. 7(2) in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(g)

[^key-6cef6971bfe34140c65c533b9a3b2fcd]: S. 8 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(h)

[^key-d767412a3678901e3a67c874d5704a0f]: Sch. 1 para. 1 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)

[^key-feff067b880a1f8de08e7bd4a3798634]: Sch. 1 para. 2 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)

[^key-6638e225616428ab0319ebac20f1a3e4]: Sch. 1 para. 3 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)

[^key-4d899108048a6abe7d8f20f5fd8207b6]: Sch. 1 para. 4 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)

[^key-37dfa396d76694d00487ad2b5c0d73b1]: Sch. 2 para. 1 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-55f784df773fde6da4b4d65a059f954e]: Sch. 2 para. 2 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-5c6e2fcbc57ee95dd362e90ef19e3726]: Sch. 2 para. 3 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-ebee7d877a8be888f00acc5c8afbebf9]: Sch. 2 para. 4 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-ecd4680237c65aa0540f610e259de2db]: Sch. 2 para. 5 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-3ac633295fffa33424debadf14e549e5]: Sch. 2 para. 6 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-32b1b7fb14030ac05b812d63cb8bdcfc]: Sch. 2 para. 7 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-6b0f22de589795717c68af7956fc0870]: Sch. 2 para. 8 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-50dfb97418ae6b24e9d32fad72ab6663]: Sch. 2 para. 9 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-58d1a48dae0106c5bed30777fa15e7d9]: Sch. 2 para. 10 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-49c9ff0ba42706a7805e92ba7a167b4a]: Sch. 2 para. 11 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-f14679dbeb3792dfe29d231861ff0cd2]: Sch. 2 para. 12 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-c2bfe83a4457d1b9fa07ff8b32b547f0]: Sch. 2 para. 13 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-32c739d77b515844417ecc5c0a47181a]: Sch. 2 para. 14 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-69608a78aa00aad23631e205d1a6da42]: Sch. 2 para. 15 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-3d51558529394f78f36ce32b6b612be5]: Sch. 2 para. 16 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-dd9355df6501950bcf0cc984d86fcad1]: Sch. 2 para. 17 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)

[^key-a00633d7bcd2a738c1993875d67b9d5b]: Words in s. 18 substituted (1.1.2024) by The Retained EU Law (Revocation and Reform) Act 2023 (Consequential Amendment) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/1424), reg. 1(2), Sch. para. 99

[^key-a3b0748f6bdd57e8569bd1dcc7d293d4]: Words in Sch. 8 para. 6 heading substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(a)