National Security Act 2023

Type Public General Act
Publication 2023-07-11
Last updated 2025-07-01
State In force
Department Statute Law Database
articles 1
Reform history JSON API
  • (4) An appropriate officer may not make an application to discharge or vary a disclosure order unless the officer is a senior officer or is authorised to do so by a senior officer.
  • (5) The Crown Court may—
  • (a) discharge the order;
  • (b) vary the order.

Rules of court

6

Rules of court may make provision as to the practice and procedure to be followed in connection with proceedings relating to disclosure orders.

Offences

7
  • (1) A person commits an offence if without reasonable excuse the person fails to comply with a requirement imposed under a disclosure order.
  • (2) A person guilty of an offence under sub-paragraph (1) is liable—
  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the maximum term for summary offences or a fine (or both);
  • (b) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
  • (3) A person commits an offence if, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed under a disclosure order, the person—
  • (a) makes a statement which the person knows to be false or misleading in a material particular, or
  • (b) recklessly makes a statement which is false or misleading in a material particular.
  • (4) A person guilty of an offence under sub-paragraph (3) is liable—
  • (a) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both);
  • (b) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
  • (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).

Monitoring measure

8
  • (1) A statement made by a person in response to a requirement imposed under a disclosure order may not be used in evidence against that person in criminal proceedings.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply on a prosecution for—
  • (a) an offence under paragraph 7(3),
  • (b) an offence under section 5 of the Perjury Act 1911 or Article 10 of the Perjury (Northern Ireland) Order 1979 (S.I. 1979/1714 (N.I. 19)) (false statements), or
  • (c) some other offence where, in giving evidence, the person makes a statement inconsistent with the statement mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
  • (3) A statement may not be used against a person by virtue of sub-paragraph (2)(c) unless—
  • (a) evidence relating to it is adduced, or
  • (b) a question relating to it is asked,

by or on behalf of the person in the proceedings arising out of the prosecution.

Interpretation

9
  • (1) This paragraph applies for the interpretation of this Part of this Schedule.
  • (2) “Disclosure order” has the meaning given by paragraph 2.
  • (3) “Judge” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales, a judge entitled to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court;
  • (b) in relation to Northern Ireland, a judge of the Crown Court.
  • (4) “Senior officer” means—
  • (a) a constable of at least the rank of superintendent;
  • (b) the Director General of the National Crime Agency or any other National Crime Agency officer authorised by the Director General (whether generally or specifically) for this purpose.
  • (5) “Document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded.
  • (6) “Excluded material”—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984;
  • (b) in relation to Northern Ireland, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)).
  • (7) The terms defined in paragraph 1 have the meanings given in that paragraph.

Part 2 — Scotland

Introductory

10
  • (1) This Part of this Schedule applies in Scotland.
  • (2) In this Part of this Schedule “relevant investigation” and “relevant property” have the same meaning as in Part 1 of this Schedule.

Disclosure orders

11
  • (1) The Lord Advocate may apply to the High Court of Justiciary for a disclosure order.
  • (2) The application must state that a person or property specified in the application is subject to a relevant investigation and the order is sought for the purposes of the investigation.
  • (3) The court may grant the application if satisfied that conditions 1 to 3 are met.
  • (4) Condition 1 is that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the property specified in the application is relevant property.
  • (5) Condition 2 is that there are reasonable grounds for believing that information which may be provided in compliance with a requirement imposed under the order is likely to be of substantial value, whether by itself or with other information, to the investigation.
  • (6) Condition 3 is that there are reasonable grounds for believing that it is in the public interest for the information to be provided, having regard to the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the information is obtained.
  • (7) A disclosure order is an order authorising the Lord Advocate to give to any person the Lord Advocate considers has relevant information notice in writing requiring the person to do any or all of the following with respect to any matter relevant to the investigation—
  • (a) answer questions, either at a time specified in the notice or at once, at a place so specified;
  • (b) provide information specified in the notice, by a time and in a manner so specified;
  • (c) produce documents, or documents of a description, specified in the notice, either at or by a time so specified or at once, and in a manner so specified.
  • (8) “Relevant information” means information (whether or not contained in a document) which the Lord Advocate considers to be relevant to the investigation.
  • (9) A person is not bound to comply with a requirement imposed by a notice given under a disclosure order unless evidence of authority to give the notice is produced.

Application

12
  • (1) A disclosure order does not confer the right to require a person—
  • (a) to answer any question,
  • (b) to provide any information, or
  • (c) to produce any document,

which the person would be entitled to refuse to answer, provide or produce in legal proceedings on grounds of confidentiality of communications.

  • (2) A disclosure order has effect despite any obligation as to secrecy or other restriction on the disclosure of information imposed by an enactment or otherwise.
  • (3) The Lord Advocate may take copies of any documents produced in compliance with a requirement to produce them imposed under a disclosure order.
  • (4) The documents may be retained for so long as it is necessary to retain them (as opposed to a copy of them) in connection with the investigation for the purposes of which the order was made.
  • (5) But if the Lord Advocate has reasonable grounds for believing that—
  • (a) the documents may need to be produced for the purposes of any legal proceedings, and
  • (b) they might otherwise be unavailable for those purposes,

they may be retained until the proceedings are concluded.

Applications

13

An application for a disclosure order may be made without notice to a judge of the High Court of Justiciary.

Discharge or variation

14
  • (1) An application to discharge or vary a disclosure order may be made to the High Court of Justiciary by—
  • (a) the Lord Advocate;
  • (b) any person affected by the order.
  • (2) The High Court of Justiciary may—
  • (a) discharge the order;
  • (b) vary the order.

Rules of court

15
  • (1) Provision may be made in rules of court as to the discharge and variation of disclosure orders.
  • (2) Rules of court are, without prejudice to section 305 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, to be made by Act of Adjournal.

Offences

16
  • (1) A person commits an offence if without reasonable excuse the person fails to comply with a requirement imposed under a disclosure order.
  • (2) A person guilty of an offence under sub-paragraph (1) is liable on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
  • (3) A person commits an offence if, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed under a disclosure order, the person—
  • (a) makes a statement which the person knows to be false or misleading in a material particular, or
  • (b) recklessly makes a statement which is false or misleading in a material particular.
  • (4) A person guilty of an offence under sub-paragraph (3) is liable—
  • (a) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine (or both);
  • (b) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).

Statements

17
  • (1) A statement made by a person in response to a requirement imposed under a disclosure order may not be used in evidence against that person in criminal proceedings.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply on a prosecution for—
  • (a) an offence under paragraph 16(3),
  • (b) perjury, or
  • (c) some other offence where, in giving evidence, the person makes a statement inconsistent with the statement mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
  • (3) A statement may not be used against a person by virtue of sub-paragraph (2)(c) unless—
  • (a) evidence relating to it is adduced, or
  • (b) a question relating to it is asked,

by or on behalf of the person in the proceedings arising out of the prosecution.

Interpretation

18
  • (1) This paragraph applies for the interpretation of this Part of this Schedule.
  • (2) “Disclosure order” has the meaning given by paragraph 11.
  • (3) “Document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded.

Schedule 4

Customer information orders

1
  • (1) An appropriate officer may apply to a judge for a customer information order.
  • (2) The judge may grant the application if satisfied that—
  • (a) the order is sought for the purposes of an investigation into foreign power threat activity, and
  • (b) the order will enhance the effectiveness of the investigation.
  • (3) “Appropriate officer” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales or Northern Ireland, a constable or a National Crime Agency officer;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, the procurator fiscal.
  • (4) The application must state that—
  • (a) a person specified in the application is subject to an investigation within sub-paragraph (2)(a) and the order is sought for the purposes of the investigation;
  • (b) the order is sought against the financial institution or financial institutions specified in the application.
  • (5) The application may specify—
  • (a) all financial institutions,
  • (b) a particular description, or particular descriptions, of financial institutions, or
  • (c) a particular financial institution or particular financial institutions.
  • (6) A customer information order is an order authorising an appropriate officer to give to a financial institution covered by the application notice in writing requiring it to provide any customer information it has relating to the person specified in the application.
  • (7) The financial institution must provide the information at or by the time, and in a manner, specified in the notice.
  • (8) A financial institution is not bound to comply with a requirement imposed by a notice given under a customer information order unless evidence of authority to give the notice is produced.
  • (9) An appropriate officer may not make an application under this paragraph unless the officer is a senior officer or is authorised to do so by a senior officer.
  • (10) Sub-paragraph (9) does not apply in relation to Scotland.

Supplementary provision

2

A customer information order has effect despite any obligation as to secrecy or other restriction on the disclosure of information imposed by an enactment or otherwise.

Applications

3

An application for a customer information order may be made without notice to a judge in chambers.

Discharge or variation

4
  • (1) An application to discharge or vary a customer information order may be made to the court by—
  • (a) the person who applied for the order;
  • (b) any person affected by the order.
  • (2) If the application for the customer information order was made by a constable, an application to discharge or vary the order may be made by a different constable.
  • (3) If the application for the customer information order was made by a National Crime Agency officer, an application to discharge or vary the order may be made by a different National Crime Agency officer.
  • (4) An appropriate officer may not make an application under this paragraph unless the officer is a senior officer or is authorised to do so by a senior officer.
  • (5) Sub-paragraph (4) does not apply in relation to Scotland.
  • (6) The court may—
  • (a) discharge the order;
  • (b) vary the order.

Rules of court

5
  • (1) Rules of court may make provision as to the practice and procedure to be followed in connection with proceedings relating to customer information orders.
  • (2) In Scotland rules of court are, without prejudice to section 305 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, to be made by Act of Adjournal.

Offences

6
  • (1) A person commits an offence if without reasonable excuse the person fails to comply with a requirement imposed under a customer information order.
  • (2) A person guilty of an offence under sub-paragraph (1) is liable—
  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the maximum term for summary offences or a fine (or both);
  • (b) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
  • (c) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).

Statements

7
  • (1) A statement made by a person in response to a requirement imposed under a customer information order may not be used in evidence against them in criminal proceedings.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply on a prosecution for an offence where, in giving evidence, the person makes a statement inconsistent with the statement mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
  • (3) A statement may not be used against a person by virtue of sub-paragraph (2) unless—
  • (a) evidence relating to it is adduced, or
  • (b) a question relating to it is asked,

by or on behalf of the person in the proceedings arising out of the prosecution.

Interpretation

8
  • (1) This paragraph applies for the interpretation of this Schedule.
  • (2) “Appropriate officer” has the meaning given by paragraph 1(3).
  • (3) “The court” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales or Northern Ireland, the Crown Court;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, the sheriff.
  • (4) “Customer information”—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales or Northern Ireland, has the meaning given by section 364 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, has the meaning given by section 398 of that Act.
  • (5) “Financial institution” has the same meaning as in Schedule 6 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (see paragraph 6 of that Schedule).
  • (6) “Judge” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales, a judge entitled to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court;
  • (b) in relation to Northern Ireland, a judge of the Crown Court;
  • (c) in relation to Scotland, the sheriff.
  • (7) “Senior officer” means—
  • (a) a constable of at least the rank of superintendent;
  • (b) the Director General of the National Crime Agency or any other National Crime Agency officer authorised by the Director General (whether generally or specifically) for this purpose.

Schedule 5

Account monitoring orders

1
  • (1) An appropriate officer may apply to a judge for an account monitoring order.
  • (2) The judge may grant the application if satisfied that—
  • (a) the order is sought for the purposes of an investigation into foreign power threat activity, and
  • (b) the order will enhance the effectiveness of the investigation.
  • (3) “Appropriate officer” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales or Northern Ireland, a constable or a National Crime Agency officer;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, the procurator fiscal.
  • (4) The application must state that the order is sought against the financial institution specified in the application in relation to information which—
  • (a) relates to an account or accounts held at the institution by the person specified in the application (whether solely or jointly with another), and
  • (b) is of the description so specified.
  • (5) The application may specify information relating to—
  • (a) all accounts held by the person specified in the application at the financial institution so specified,
  • (b) a particular description, or particular descriptions, of accounts so held, or
  • (c) a particular account, or particular accounts, so held.
  • (6) An account monitoring order is an order that the financial institution specified in the application must—
  • (a) for the period specified in the order,
  • (b) in the manner so specified,
  • (c) at or by the time or times so specified, and
  • (d) at the place or places so specified,

provide information of the description specified in the application to an appropriate officer.

  • (7) The period stated in an account monitoring order must not exceed the period of 90 days beginning with the day on which the order is made.

Applications

2

An application for an account monitoring order may be made without notice to a judge in chambers.

Discharge or variation

3
  • (1) An application to discharge or vary an account monitoring order may be made to the court by—
  • (a) the person who applied for the order;
  • (b) any person affected by the order.
  • (2) If the application for the account monitoring order was made by a constable, an application to discharge or vary the order may be made by a different constable.
  • (3) If the application for the account monitoring order was made by a National Crime Agency officer, an application to discharge or vary the order may be made by a different National Crime Agency officer.
  • (4) The court may—
  • (a) discharge the order;
  • (b) vary the order.

Rules of court

4
  • (1) Rules of court may make provision as to the practice and procedure to be followed in connection with proceedings relating to account monitoring orders.
  • (2) In Scotland rules of court are, without prejudice to section 305 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, to be made by Act of Adjournal.

Effect of orders

5
  • (1) In England and Wales and Northern Ireland, an account monitoring order has effect as if it were an order of the court.
  • (2) An account monitoring order has effect in spite of any obligation as to secrecy or other restriction on the disclosure of information imposed by an enactment or otherwise.

Statements

6
  • (1) A statement made by a person in response to an account monitoring order may not be used in evidence against them in criminal proceedings.
  • (2) But sub-paragraph (1) does not apply—
  • (a) in the case of proceedings for contempt of court;
  • (b) on a prosecution for an offence where, in giving evidence, the person makes a statement inconsistent with the statement mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
  • (3) A statement may not be used against a person by virtue of sub-paragraph (2)(b) unless—
  • (a) evidence relating to it is adduced, or
  • (b) a question relating to it is asked,

by or on behalf of the person in the proceedings arising out of the prosecution.

Interpretation

7
  • (1) This paragraph applies for the interpretation of this Schedule.
  • (2) “Appropriate officer” has the meaning given by paragraph 1(3).
  • (3) “The court” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales or Northern Ireland, the Crown Court;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, the sheriff.
  • (4) “Financial institution” has the same meaning as in Schedule 6 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (see paragraph 6 of that Schedule).
  • (5) “Judge” means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales, a judge entitled to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court;
  • (b) in relation to Northern Ireland, a judge of the Crown Court;
  • (c) in relation to Scotland, the sheriff.

Schedule 6

Part 1 — Treatment of persons detained under section 27

Place of detention

1
  • (1) The Secretary of State may designate places at which persons may be detained under section 27.
  • (2) The power in sub-paragraph (1) may be exercised only in relation to land or a building in the United Kingdom which is owned or controlled by a police force.
  • (3) In this Schedule a reference to a police station includes a reference to any place which the Secretary of State has designated under sub-paragraph (1) as a place where a person may be detained under section 27.
  • (4) A constable who arrests a person under section 27 must take the person as soon as is reasonably practicable to the police station which the constable considers the most appropriate.
  • (5) Where a person is arrested under section 27 in one part of the United Kingdom and some or all of the person’s detention under that section takes place in another part, the provisions of this Schedule which apply to detention in a particular part of the United Kingdom apply in relation to the person while detained in that part.
  • (6) In this paragraph—
  • “building” includes any part of a building;
  • “police force” has the same meaning as in paragraph 28.

Identification

2
  • (1) An authorised person may take any steps which are reasonably necessary for—
  • (a) photographing the detained person,
  • (b) measuring the detained person, or
  • (c) identifying the detained person.
  • (a) a constable;
  • (b) a prison officer;
  • (c) a person authorised by the Secretary of State.
  • (a) fingerprints, non-intimate samples or intimate samples (see instead paragraphs 10 to 14 below), or
  • (b) relevant physical data or samples as mentioned in section 18 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, as applied by paragraph 18 below.

Persons exercising public functions

3
  • (1) This paragraph applies to any interview by a constable of a detained person that takes place in a police station.
  • (2) The Secretary of State must—
  • (a) issue a code of practice about the video recording of interviews to which this paragraph applies, and
  • (b) make regulations requiring the video recording of interviews to which this paragraph applies in accordance with any relevant code of practice under paragraph (a).
  • (3) Regulations under sub-paragraph (2) must state that the video recording is to be with sound.
  • (a) may make provision in relation to a particular part of the United Kingdom, and
  • (b) may make different provision for different parts of the United Kingdom.
  • (5) The failure by a constable to observe a provision of a code does not of itself make the constable liable to criminal or civil proceedings.
  • (6) A code—
  • (a) is admissible in evidence in criminal and civil proceedings, and
  • (b) is to be taken into account by a court or tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be relevant.
  • (7) The Secretary of State may revise a code and issue the revised code.
4
  • (1) Before issuing a code of practice under paragraph 3, the Secretary of State must—
  • (a) publish a draft code,
  • (b) consider any representations made about the draft, and
  • (c) if the Secretary of State thinks it appropriate, modify the draft in the light of any such representations.
  • (2) The Secretary of State must lay a draft of the code before Parliament.
  • (3) After the code has been laid before Parliament the Secretary of State may bring it into operation by regulations.
  • (4) Sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) apply to the issue of a revised code as they apply to the first issue of the code.

Status

5

A detained person is to be treated as being in legal custody throughout the period of the person’s detention.

Part 2 — Rights of persons detained under section 27: England, Wales and Northern Ireland

Right to have named person informed of detention

6
  • (1) Subject to paragraph 9, a person detained under section 27 at a place in England, Wales or Northern Ireland is entitled, if the person so requests, to have one named person informed as soon as is reasonably practicable that the person is being detained there.
  • (2) The person named must be—
  • (a) a friend of the detained person,
  • (b) a relative of the detained person, or
  • (c) a person who is known to the detained person or who is likely to take an interest in the detained person’s welfare.
  • (3) A detained person must be informed of the right under this paragraph on first being detained.
  • (4) Where a detained person is transferred from one place to another, the person is entitled to exercise the right under this paragraph in respect of the place to which the person is transferred.

Right to consult a solicitor

7
  • (1) Subject to paragraph 9, a person detained under section 27 in England, Wales or Northern Ireland is entitled, if the person so requests, to consult a solicitor as soon as is reasonably practicable, privately and at any time.
  • (2) Where a request is made under sub-paragraph (1), a record must be made of the request and the time at which it was made.
  • (3) A detained person must be informed of the right under this paragraph on first being detained.
8
  • (1) Where a person exercises the right under paragraph 7 to consult a solicitor, a police officer of at least the rank of superintendent may direct that—
  • (a) the person may not consult the solicitor who attends for the purpose of the consultation, or who would so attend but for the giving of the direction, but
  • (b) the person may consult a different solicitor of the person’s choosing.
  • (2) A direction under this paragraph may be given before or after a person’s consultation with a solicitor has started (and if given after it has started, the right to further consult that solicitor ceases on the giving of the direction).
  • (3) An officer may give a direction under this paragraph only if the officer has reasonable grounds for believing that—
  • (a) unless the direction is given, the person’s consultation with the solicitor will have any of the consequences specified in sub-paragraph (4), or
  • (b) the person has benefited from their criminal conduct and that, unless the direction is given, the person’s consultation with the solicitor will hinder the recovery of the value of the property constituting the benefit.
  • (4) Those consequences are—
  • (a) interference with or harm to evidence of an indictable offence,
  • (b) interference with or physical injury to any person,
  • (c) the alerting of persons who are suspected of having committed an indictable offence but who have not been arrested for it,
  • (d) the hindering of the recovery of property obtained as a result of an indictable offence,
  • (e) interference with the gathering of information about a person’s involvement in foreign power threat activity,
  • (f) making it more difficult, by the alerting of a person, to prevent foreign power threat activity, and
  • (g) making it more difficult, by the alerting of a person, to secure a person’s apprehension, prosecution or conviction in connection with the person’s involvement in foreign power threat activity.
  • (5) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (3)(b), the question whether a person has benefited from their criminal conduct is to be decided in accordance with Part 2 or 4 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.

Delay in exercise of rights

9
  • (1) A police officer of at least the rank of superintendent may authorise a delay—
  • (a) in informing the person named by a detained person under paragraph 6;
  • (b) in permitting a detained person to consult a solicitor under paragraph 7.
  • (2) But the detained person must be permitted to exercise the rights under paragraphs 6 and 7 before the end of the period mentioned in section 27(3).
  • (3) An officer may authorise a delay under sub-paragraph (1) only if the officer has reasonable grounds for believing—
  • (a) in the case of an authorisation under sub-paragraph (1)(a), that informing the named person of the detained person’s detention will have any of the consequences specified in paragraph 8(4), or
  • (b) in the case of an authorisation under sub-paragraph (1)(b), that the exercise of the right under paragraph 7 at the time when the detained person desires to exercise it will have any of the consequences specified in paragraph 8(4).
  • (4) An officer may also authorise a delay under sub-paragraph (1) if the officer has reasonable grounds for believing that—
  • (a) the detained person has benefited from their criminal conduct, and
  • (b) the recovery of the value of the property constituting the benefit will be hindered by—
  • (i) informing the named person of the detained person’s detention (in the case of an authorisation under sub-paragraph (1)(a)), or
  • (ii) the detained person’s consultation with a solicitor (in the case of an authorisation under sub-paragraph (1)(b)).
  • (5) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (4), whether the detained person has benefited from their criminal conduct is to be decided in accordance with Part 2 or 4 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
  • (6) Where an officer authorises a delay under sub-paragraph (1) orally, the officer must confirm it in writing as soon as is reasonably practicable.
  • (a) the detained person must be told the reason for the delay as soon as is reasonably practicable, and
  • (b) the reason must be recorded as soon as is reasonably practicable.
  • (8) Where the reason for authorising delay no longer applies, there may be no further delay in permitting the exercise of the right in the absence of a further authorisation under sub-paragraph (1).

Taking of intimate and non-intimate samples

10
  • (2) Fingerprints may be taken from the detained person only if they are taken by a constable—
  • (a) with the appropriate consent given in writing, or
  • (3) A non-intimate sample may be taken from the detained person only if it is taken by a constable—
  • (a) with the appropriate consent given in writing, or
  • (4) Fingerprints or a non-intimate sample may be taken from the detained person without the appropriate consent only if—
  • (a) the person is detained at a police station and a police officer of at least the rank of superintendent authorises the fingerprints or sample to be taken (but see sub-paragraphs (6) and (7)), or
  • (b) the person has been convicted of a recordable offence and, where a non-intimate sample is to be taken, the person was convicted of the offence on or after 10th April 1995 (or 29th July 1996 where the non-intimate sample is to be taken in Northern Ireland).
  • (5) An intimate sample may be taken from the detained person only if—
  • (a) the person is detained at a police station,
  • (b) the appropriate consent is given in writing,
  • (c) a police officer of at least the rank of superintendent authorises the sample to be taken (but see sub-paragraph (6)), and
  • (a) the officer reasonably suspects that the detained person has been involved in foreign power threat activity, and
  • (b) the officer reasonably believes that the fingerprints or sample will tend to confirm or disprove the person’s involvement.
  • (7) An officer may also give an authorisation under sub-paragraph (4)(a) for the taking of fingerprints if—
  • (a) the officer is satisfied that the detained person’s fingerprints will help determine the person’s identity, and
  • (b) the person has refused to identify themselves or the officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the person is not who they claim to be.
  • (8) In this paragraph references to determining a person’s identity include showing that the detained person is not a particular person.
  • (9) If an authorisation under sub-paragraph (4)(a) or (5)(c) is given orally, the person giving it must confirm it in writing as soon as is reasonably practicable.
11
  • (1) Before fingerprints or a sample are taken from a detained person under paragraph 10, the person must be informed—
  • (a) that the fingerprints or sample may be used for the purposes of—
  • (ii) section 63A(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (checking of fingerprints and samples), or
  • (iii) Article 63A(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) (checking of fingerprints and samples), and
  • (b) where the fingerprints or sample are to be taken under paragraph 10(2)(a), (3)(a) or (4)(b), of the reason for taking the fingerprints or sample.
  • (2) Before fingerprints or a sample are taken from a person on an authorisation given under paragraph 10(4)(a) or (5)(c), the person must be informed—
  • (a) that the authorisation has been given,
  • (b) of the grounds upon which it has been given, and
  • (c) where relevant, of the nature of the offence in which the person is suspected of having been involved.
  • (3) After fingerprints or a sample are taken under paragraph 10, any of the following which apply must be recorded as soon as reasonably practicable—
  • (d) the grounds on which that authorisation has been given, and
  • (e) the fact that the appropriate consent has been given.
12
  • (a) two or more non-intimate samples suitable for the same means of analysis have been taken from a detained person under paragraph 10,
  • (b) those samples have proved insufficient, and
  • (c) the person has been released from detention.
  • (2) An intimate sample may be taken from the person if—
  • (a) the appropriate consent is given in writing,
  • (b) a police officer of at least the rank of superintendent authorises the sample to be taken, and
13
  • (1) Where appropriate written consent to the taking of an intimate sample from a person under paragraph 10 or 12 is refused without good cause, in any proceedings against that person for an offence—
  • (a) the court, in determining whether to commit the person for trial or whether there is a case to answer, may draw such inferences from the refusal as appear proper, and
  • (b) the court or jury, in determining whether that person is guilty of the offence charged, may draw such inferences from the refusal as appear proper.
  • (2) An intimate sample other than a sample of urine or a dental impression may be taken under paragraph 10 or 12 only by a registered medical practitioner acting on the authority of a constable.
  • (3) An intimate sample which is a dental impression may be taken under paragraph 10 or 12 only by a registered dentist acting on the authority of a constable.
  • (4) Where a sample of hair other than pubic hair is to be taken under paragraph 10, the sample may be taken either by cutting hairs or by plucking hairs with their roots so long as no more are plucked than the person taking the sample reasonably considers to be necessary for a sufficient sample.
14
  • (1) In the application of paragraphs 10 to 13 in relation to a person detained in England or Wales, the following expressions have the meaning given by section 65 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984—
  • (a) “appropriate consent”,
  • (b) “fingerprints”,
  • (c) “insufficient”,
  • (d) “intimate sample”,
  • (e) “non-intimate sample”,
  • (f) “registered dentist”, and
  • (g) “sufficient”.
  • (2) In the application of section 65(2A) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of this paragraph, the reference to the destruction of a sample under section 63R of that Act is a reference to the destruction of a sample under paragraph 25 of this Schedule.
  • (a) in relation to a person detained in England or Wales, has the meaning given by section 118(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, and
  • (b) in relation to a person detained in Northern Ireland, has the meaning given by Article 2(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)).

Part 3 — Rights of persons detained under section 27: Scotland

15
  • (1) A person detained under section 27 at a place in Scotland is entitled to have intimation of the person’s detention and of the place where the person is being detained sent without delay to a solicitor and to another person named by the detained person.
  • (2) The person named must be—
  • (a) a friend of the detained person,
  • (b) a relative of the detained person, or
  • (c) a person who is known to the detained person or who is likely to take an interest in the detained person’s welfare.
  • (3) Where a detained person is transferred from one place to another, the person is entitled to exercise the right under sub-paragraph (1) in respect of the place to which the person is transferred.
  • (4) A police officer of at least the rank of superintendent may authorise a delay in making intimation where, in the officer’s view, the delay is necessary on one of the grounds mentioned in paragraph 16(3) or where paragraph 16(4) applies.
  • (5) Where a detained person requests that the intimation be made, a record must be made of the time at which the request was made and complied with.
  • (6) A person who is detained as mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) is entitled to consult a solicitor at any time, without delay.
  • (7) A police officer of at least the rank of superintendent may authorise a delay in holding the consultation where, in the officer’s view, the delay is necessary on one of the grounds mentioned in paragraph 16(3) or where paragraph 16(4) applies.
  • (8) The consultation is to be private.
  • (9) A detained person must be permitted to exercise the rights under this paragraph before the end of the period mentioned in section 27(3).
  • (10) A detained person must be informed of the rights under sub-paragraphs (1) and (6) on first being detained.
16
  • (1) Where a person exercises the right under paragraph 15(6) to consult a solicitor, a police officer of at least the rank of superintendent may, if it appears to the officer to be necessary on one of the grounds mentioned in sub-paragraph (3), direct that—
  • (a) the person may not consult the solicitor who attends for the purpose of the consultation, or who would so attend but for the giving of the direction, but
  • (b) the person may consult a different solicitor of the person’s choosing.
  • (2) A direction under this paragraph may be given before or after a detained person’s consultation with a solicitor has started (and, if given after it has started, the right to further consult that solicitor ceases on the giving of the direction).
  • (a) that it is in the interests of the investigation or prevention of crime;
  • (b) that it is in the interests of the apprehension, prosecution or conviction of offenders;
  • (c) that it will further the recovery of property obtained as a result of an indictable offence;
  • (d) that it will further the operation of Part 2, 3 or 4 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (confiscation of the proceeds of an offence).
  • (4) This sub-paragraph applies where an officer mentioned in paragraph 15(4) or (7) has reasonable grounds for believing that—
  • (a) the detained person has benefited from their criminal conduct, and
  • (b) the recovery of the value of the property constituting the benefit will be hindered by—
  • (i) informing the named person of the detained person’s detention (in the case of an authorisation under paragraph 15(4)), or
  • (5) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (4), whether the detained person has benefited from their criminal conduct is to be decided in accordance with Part 3 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
  • (6) Where delay is authorised in the exercising of any of the rights mentioned in paragraph 15(1) and (6)—
  • (a) if the authorisation is given orally, the person giving it must confirm it in writing as soon as is reasonably practicable,
  • (b) the detained person must be told the reason for the delay as soon as is reasonably practicable, and
  • (c) the reason must be recorded as soon as is reasonably practicable.
17
  • (1) Paragraphs 15 and 16 have effect, in relation to a person detained under section 27, in place of any enactment or rule of law under or by virtue of which a person arrested or detained may be entitled to communicate or consult with any other person.
  • (2) But, where a person who is detained under section 27 at a place in Scotland appears to a constable to be a child—
  • (a) the other person named by the person detained in pursuance of paragraph 15(1) must be that person’s parent,
  • (b) intimation is to be made under paragraph 15(1) whether the detained person requests that it be made or not, and
  • (c) section 40 of the Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act 2016 (asp 1) (right of under 18s to have access to other person) applies as if the detained person were a person in police custody for the purposes of that section.
  • “child” means a person under 16 years of age;
  • “parent” includes guardian and any person who has the care of the child mentioned in sub-paragraph (2).
18
  • (1) Subject to the modifications specified in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3), section 18 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (procedure for taking certain prints and samples) applies to a person detained under section 27 at a police station in Scotland as it applies to a person arrested.
  • (2) For subsection (2) of section 18 substitute—

(2) Subject to subsection (2A), a constable may take from a detained person or require a detained person to provide relevant physical data only if— (a) the constable reasonably suspects that the person has been involved in foreign power threat activity, and (b) the constable reasonably believes that the relevant physical data will tend to confirm or disprove the person’s involvement. (2A) A constable may also take fingerprints from a detained person or require the person to provide them if— (a) the constable is satisfied that the person’s fingerprints will help determine their identity, and (b) the person has refused to identify themselves or the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the person is not who they claim to be. (2B) In this section references to determining a person’s identity include references to showing that a detained person is not a particular person.

  • (3) Subsections (3) to (5) of section 18 do not apply.

Part 4 — Dealing with fingerprints and samples etc: United Kingdom

Retention of fingerprints and samples etc: general

19
  • (b) a DNA profile derived from a DNA sample taken under paragraph 10 or 12,
  • (c) relevant physical data taken or provided by virtue of paragraph 18, and
  • (d) a DNA profile derived from a DNA sample taken or provided by virtue of paragraph 18.
  • (2) Fingerprints, relevant physical data and DNA profiles to which this paragraph applies (“paragraph 19 material”) must be destroyed if it appears to the responsible chief officer of police that—
  • (a) the material, or, in the case of a DNA profile, the sample from which the DNA profile was derived, was taken or required to be provided unlawfully, or
  • (b) the material was taken or provided, or, in the case of a DNA profile, was derived from a sample taken, from a person in connection with that person’s arrest under section 27 and the arrest was unlawful or based on mistaken identity.
  • (3) In any other case, paragraph 19 material must be destroyed unless it is retained under any power conferred by paragraphs 20 or 22.
  • (4) Where the retention of paragraph 19 material ceases to be allowed under paragraph 20 or 22, the material may continue to be retained under any other such power which applies to it.
  • (5) Nothing in this paragraph prevents a relevant search, in relation to paragraph 19 material, from being carried out within such time as may reasonably be required for the search if the responsible chief officer of police considers the search to be desirable.
  • (6) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (5), a “relevant search” is a search carried out for the purpose of checking the material against—
  • (a) other fingerprints or samples taken under paragraph 10 or 12, or a DNA profile derived from such samples,
  • (b) other fingerprints and samples taken under paragraph 1 of Schedule 12, or a DNA profile derived from such samples,
  • (c) any of the fingerprints, samples and information mentioned in section 63A(1)(a) and (b) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984,
  • (d) any of the fingerprints, samples and information mentioned in Article 63A(1)(a) and (b) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)),
  • (e) any of the relevant physical data, samples or information mentioned in section 19C(1) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995,
  • (f) any of the fingerprints, data or samples obtained under or by virtue of paragraphs 10 or 12 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000, or information derived from such samples,
  • (h) material to which section 18 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 applies,
  • (i) any of the fingerprints, data or samples obtained under paragraph 1 or 4 of Schedule 6 to the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011, or information derived from such samples, and
  • (j) any of the fingerprints, data or samples obtained under or by virtue of paragraph 34 of Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019, or information derived from such samples.
20
  • (2) Paragraph 19 material may be retained indefinitely if—
  • (a) the person has previously been convicted—
  • (i) of a recordable offence (other than a single exempt conviction), or
  • (ii) in Scotland, of an offence which is punishable by imprisonment, or
  • (b) the person is so convicted before the end of the period within which the material may be retained by virtue of this paragraph.
  • (3) In sub-paragraph (2)—
  • (a) the reference to a recordable offence includes an offence under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom where the act constituting the offence would constitute—
  • (i) a recordable offence under the law of England and Wales if done there, or
  • (ii) a recordable offence under the law of Northern Ireland if done there,

(and, in the application of sub-paragraph (2) where a person has previously been convicted, this applies whether or not the act constituted such an offence when the person was convicted);

  • (b) the reference to an offence in Scotland which is punishable by imprisonment includes an offence under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom where the act constituting the offence would constitute an offence under the law of Scotland which is punishable by imprisonment if done there (and, in the application of sub-paragraph (2) where a person has previously been convicted, this applies whether or not the act constituted such an offence when the person was convicted).
  • (4) Paragraph 19 material may be retained until the end of the retention period specified in sub-paragraph (5) if—
  • (a) the person has no previous convictions, or
  • (b) the person has only one exempt conviction.
  • (5) The retention period is—
  • (a) in the case of fingerprints or relevant physical data, the period of 3 years beginning with the date on which the fingerprints or relevant physical data were taken or provided, and

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