The Official Controls (Plant Health and Genetically Modified Organisms) (England) Regulations 2019
[^key-a3d33baf519b32e5206c891b1c24fa76]: Word in reg. 21(3) substituted (27.2.2025) by The Retained EU Law (Revocation and Reform) Act 2023 (Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/82), reg. 1(2), Sch. 15 para. 46(a)
[^key-90130660bfce2dfa2552eba95c442f7e]: Words in reg. 38(1)(f) substituted (27.2.2025) by The Retained EU Law (Revocation and Reform) Act 2023 (Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/82), reg. 1(2), Sch. 15 para. 46(b)
[^key-25b669248eca2da4317dc6d46d7a9a1a]: Word in reg. 43(2)(b) substituted (27.2.2025) by The Retained EU Law (Revocation and Reform) Act 2023 (Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/82), reg. 1(2), Sch. 15 para. 46(c)
Temporary measures in relation to Ceratocystis platani (J.M. Walter) Engelbr. & T.C. Harr.
2A
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Temporary measures in relation to Candidatus Phytoplasma ulmi
2B
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Temporary measures in relation to Agrilus planipennis Fairmaire
2C
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National measures in relation to Xylella fastidiosa (Wells et al.)
2D
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2E
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Exception for controlled material in transit
2F
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3A
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PART 3 — Official controls on consignments from third countries
5
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Application of this Part
6
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Notification and presentation of Schedule 1 consignments
7
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Consignments not correctly presented for official controls
8
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Official controls to be performed on Schedule 1 consignments
9
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Completion of official controls
10
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Removal of Schedule 1 consignments from border control posts of arrival
11
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Measures to be taken on non-compliant Schedule 1 consignments
12
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Measures to be taken on Schedule 1 consignments
13
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Notification of decisions to refuse the entry of a Schedule 1 consignment into England
14
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Notices under this Part
15
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PART 11A — Civil Sanctions
Civil sanctions
48A
Schedule 4A (which provides for civil sanctions) has effect.
SCHEDULE 4A — Civil sanctions
PART 1 — Power to impose civil sanctions
Compliance notice
1
- (1) This paragraph applies where the appropriate authority is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that a person has committed an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations.
- (2) The appropriate authority may by notice (a “compliance notice”) impose on that person a requirement to take such steps as the appropriate authority may specify, within such period as it may specify, to secure that the offence does not continue or recur.
- (3) A compliance notice may not be imposed on more than one occasion in relation to the same act or omission.
Restoration notice
2
- (1) This paragraph applies where the appropriate authority is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that a person has committed an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations.
- (2) The appropriate authority may by notice (a “restoration notice”) impose on that person a requirement to take such steps as the appropriate authority may specify, within such period as it may specify, to secure that the position is, so far as possible, restored to what it would have been if the offence had not been committed.
- (3) A restoration notice may not be imposed on more than one occasion in relation to the same act or omission.
Imposition of a fixed monetary penalty
3
- (1) This paragraph applies where the appropriate authority is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that a person has committed an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations.
- (2) The appropriate authority may by notice impose on that person a requirement to pay a monetary penalty to the appropriate authority of £250 where the person is an individual and £2000 where the person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association (a “fixed monetary penalty”).
- (3) A fixed monetary penalty may not be imposed on more than one occasion in relation to the same act or omission.
- (4) The appropriate authority may recover any fixed monetary penalty imposed under this paragraph as if payable under an order of the court.
- (5) A fixed monetary penalty paid to the appropriate authority under this paragraph must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.
Imposition of a variable monetary penalty
4
- (1) This paragraph applies where the appropriate authority is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that a person has committed an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations.
- (2) The appropriate authority may by notice impose on that person a requirement to pay a monetary penalty to the appropriate authority in such amount as it may determine (a “variable monetary penalty”).
- (3) A variable monetary penalty may not be imposed on more than one occasion in relation to the same act or omission.
- (4) The amount of a variable monetary penalty must not exceed £250,000.
- (5) Before serving a notice relating to a variable monetary penalty, the appropriate authority may require the person on whom it is to be served to provide such information as is reasonable to establish the amount of any financial benefit arising as a result of the offence.
- (6) The appropriate authority may recover any variable monetary penalty imposed under this paragraph as if payable under an order of the court.
- (7) A variable monetary penalty paid to the appropriate authority under this paragraph must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.
Notice of intent
5
- (1) If the appropriate authority proposes to serve on a person a compliance notice, a restoration notice or a notice imposing a fixed or variable monetary penalty under this Part, it must serve on that person a notice of what is proposed (a “notice of intent”).
- (2) The notice of intent must include—
- (a) the grounds for serving the proposed notice;
- (b) the requirements of the proposed notice and, in the case of a penalty, the amount to be paid and how payment may be made;
- (c) in the case of a fixed monetary penalty—
- (i) a statement that liability for the penalty can be discharged by paying 50% of the penalty within 28 days beginning with the day on which the notice was served; and
- (ii) information as to the effect of discharging the penalty;
- (d) information as to—
- (i) the right to make representations and objections within 28 days beginning with the day on which the notice of intent was served; and
- (ii) the circumstances in which the appropriate authority may not serve the proposed notice.
Combination of penalties
6
- (1) The appropriate authority may not serve a notice of intent relating to a fixed monetary penalty if, in relation to the same offence—
- (a) a compliance notice, restoration notice or stop notice has been served on that person (see paragraphs 1, 2 and 17);
- (b) a variable monetary penalty has been imposed on that person (see paragraph 4); or
- (c) a third party or enforcement undertaking has been accepted from that person (see paragraphs 9 and 23).
- (2) The appropriate authority may not serve a notice of intent relating to a compliance notice, a restoration notice or a variable monetary penalty, or serve a stop notice, on any person if, in relation to the same offence—
- (a) a fixed monetary penalty has been imposed on that person; or
- (b) that person has discharged liability for a fixed monetary penalty following service of a notice of intent to impose that penalty.
Discharge of liability – fixed monetary penalties
7
A fixed monetary penalty is discharged if a person on whom a notice of intent is served pays 50% of the amount of the penalty within 28 days beginning with the day on which the notice was served.
Making representations and objections
8
A person on whom a notice of intent is served may within 28 days beginning with the day on which the notice is served make written representations and objections to the appropriate authority in relation to the proposed service of a compliance notice, restoration notice or notice imposing a fixed or variable monetary penalty.
Third party undertakings
9
- (1) A person on whom a notice of intent relating to a compliance notice, a restoration notice or a variable monetary penalty is served may offer an undertaking as to action to be taken by that person (including the payment of a sum of money) to benefit any third party affected by the offence (a “third party undertaking”).
- (2) The appropriate authority may accept or reject a third party undertaking.
- (3) The appropriate authority must take into account any third party undertaking that it accepts in its decision as to whether or not to serve a final notice, and, if it serves a notice imposing a variable monetary penalty, the amount of the penalty.
Final notice
10
- (1) After the end of the period for making representations and objections, the appropriate authority must decide whether to impose the requirements described in the notice of intent, with or without modifications.
- (2) Where the appropriate authority decides to impose a requirement, the notice imposing it (the “final notice”) must comply with paragraph 11 (for compliance or restoration notices) or 12 (for fixed or variable monetary penalties).
- (3) The appropriate authority may not impose a final notice on a person where it is satisfied that the person would not, by reason of any defence, permit or licence, be liable to be convicted of the offence to which the notice relates.
- (4) Where the appropriate authority serves a final notice relating to a fixed monetary penalty in respect of any offence, the appropriate authority may not in relation to that offence serve—
- (a) a compliance notice;
- (b) a restoration notice;
- (c) a notice imposing a variable monetary penalty; or
- (d) a stop notice.
- (5) This paragraph does not apply to a person who has discharged a fixed monetary penalty in accordance with paragraph 7.
Contents of final notice: compliance and restoration notices
11
A final notice relating to a compliance notice or a restoration notice must include information as to—
- (a) the grounds for serving the notice;
- (b) what compliance or restoration is required and the period within which it must be completed;
- (c) rights of appeal; and
- (d) the consequences of failing to comply with the notice.
Contents of final notice: fixed and variable monetary penalties
12
A final notice relating to a fixed or variable monetary penalty must include information as to—
- (a) the grounds for imposing the penalty;
- (b) the amount to be paid;
- (c) how payment may be made;
- (d) the period within which payment must be made (the “payment period”), which must be not less than 56 days beginning with the day on which the notice is served;
- (e) in the case of a fixed monetary penalty, details of the early payment discount (see paragraph 13) and late payment penalties (see paragraph 15(2) and (3));
- (f) rights of appeal; and
- (g) the consequences of failing to comply with the notice.
Fixed monetary penalty: discount for early payment
13
If a person who was served with a notice of intent relating to a proposed fixed monetary penalty made representations or objections concerning that notice within the time limit specified in paragraph 8, that person may discharge the final notice by paying 50% of the final penalty within 28 days beginning with the day on which the final notice was served.
Appeals against a final notice
14
- (1) The person on whom a final notice is served may appeal against it.
- (2) The grounds for appeal are—
- (a) that the decision was based on an error of fact;
- (b) that the decision was wrong in law;
- (c) in the case of a variable monetary penalty, that the amount of the penalty is unreasonable;
- (d) in the case of a non-monetary requirement that the nature of the requirement is unreasonable;
- (e) that the decision was unreasonable for any other reason;
- (f) that the decision was wrong for any other reason.
Fixed monetary penalty: non-payment within the stated payment period
15
- (1) This paragraph applies to a final notice relating to a fixed monetary penalty.
- (2) If the final penalty is not paid within the stated payment period, the amount payable is increased by 50%.
- (3) In the case of an appeal which is unsuccessful, the penalty is payable within 28 days of the determination of the appeal, and if it is not paid within 28 days, the amount of the penalty is increased by 50%.
Criminal proceedings
16
- (1) If—
- (a) a compliance notice or restoration notice is served on any person,
- (b) a third party undertaking is accepted from any person,
- (c) a notice imposing a variable monetary penalty is served on any person, or
- (d) a fixed monetary penalty is served on any person,
that person may not at any time be convicted of an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations in respect of the act or omission giving rise to the compliance notice, restoration notice, third party undertaking, variable monetary penalty or fixed monetary penalty except in a case falling within paragraph (a) or (b) (and not also falling within paragraph (c)) where the person fails to comply with a compliance notice, restoration notice or third party undertaking (as the case may be).
- (2) Criminal proceedings for offences to which a notice or third party undertaking in sub-paragraph (1) relates may be instituted at any time up to 6 months from the date on which the appropriate authority notifies the person against whom the proceedings are to be taken that the person has failed to comply with that notice or undertaking.
PART 2
Stop notices
Stop notices
17
- (1) The appropriate authority may serve a notice (a “stop notice”) on any person prohibiting that person from carrying on an activity specified in the notice until the person has taken the steps specified in the notice.
- (2) A stop notice may only be served where—
- (a) the person is carrying on the activity or the appropriate authority reasonably believes that the person is likely to carry on the activity;
- (b) the appropriate authority reasonably believes that the activity is causing, or is likely to cause, economic or environmental harm, or adverse effects to plant health; and
- (c) the appropriate authority reasonably believes that the activity carried on, or likely to be carried on, by that person involves or is likely to involve, the commission of an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations.
- (3) The steps referred to in sub-paragraph (1) must be steps to eliminate the risk of the offence being committed.
Contents of a stop notice
18
A stop notice must include information as to—
- (a) the grounds for serving the stop notice;
- (b) the activity which is prohibited;
- (c) the steps the person must take to comply with the stop notice and the period within which they must be completed;
- (d) rights of appeal; and
- (e) the consequences of failing to comply with the notice.
Appeals
19
- (1) The person on whom a stop notice is served may appeal against the decision to serve it.
- (2) The grounds for appeal are—
- (a) that the decision was based on an error of fact;
- (b) that the decision was wrong in law;
- (c) that the decision was unreasonable;
- (d) that any step specified in the notice is unreasonable;
- (e) that the person has not committed the offence and would not have committed it had the stop notice not been served;
- (f) that the person would not, by reason of any defence, permit or licence have been liable to be convicted of the offence had the stop notice not been served.
- (g) that the decision was wrong for any other reason.
Completion certificates
20
- (1) The appropriate authority must issue a certificate (a “completion certificate”) if, after service of a stop notice, the appropriate authority is satisfied that the person on whom it was served has taken the steps specified in the notice.
- (2) A stop notice ceases to have effect on the issue of a completion certificate.
- (3) The appropriate authority may require the person on whom the stop notice was served to provide sufficient information to determine that the steps specified in the notice have been taken.
- (4) A person on whom a stop notice is served may at any time apply for a completion certificate.
- (5) The appropriate authority must decide whether to issue a completion certificate and give written notice of the decision to the applicant (including information as to the right of appeal) within 14 days of the application.
- (6) The applicant may appeal against a decision not to issue a completion certification on the grounds that the decision—
- (a) was based on an error of fact;
- (b) was wrong in law;
- (c) was unfair or unreasonable;
- (d) was wrong for any other reason.
Compensation
21
- (1) The appropriate authority must compensate a person for loss suffered as the result of the service of the stop notice or the refusal of a completion certificate if that person has suffered loss as a result of the notice or refusal and—
- (a) the stop notice is subsequently withdrawn or amended by the appropriate authority because the decision to serve it was unreasonable or any step specified in the notice was unreasonable;
- (b) the appropriate authority is in breach of its statutory obligations;
- (c) the person successfully appeals against the stop notice and the First-tier Tribunal finds that the service of the notice was unreasonable; or
- (d) the person successfully appeals the refusal of a completion certificate and the First-tier Tribunal finds that the refusal was unreasonable.
- (2) A person may appeal against a decision not to award compensation or the amount of compensation on the grounds that—
- (a) the appropriate authority’s decision was unreasonable;
- (b) the amount offered was based on incorrect facts; or
- (c) the decision was wrong for any other reason.
Offences
22
If a person on whom a stop notice is served does not comply with it within the time limit specified in the notice, the person is guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine.
PART 3
Enforcement undertakings
Enforcement undertakings
23
Where the appropriate authority has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has committed an offence under Part 11 of these Regulations, the appropriate authority may accept a written undertaking (an “enforcement undertaking”) given by that person to take such action as may be specified in the undertaking within such period as may be specified.
Contents of an enforcement undertaking
24
- (1) An enforcement undertaking must specify—
- (a) action to be taken by the person to secure that the offence does not continue or recur;
- (b) action to secure that the position is, so far as possible, restored to what it would have been if the offence had not been committed; or
- (c) action (including the payment of a sum of money) to be taken by the person to benefit any person affected by the offence.
- (2) It must specify the period within which the action must be completed.
- (3) It must include—
- (a) a statement that the undertaking is made in accordance with this Schedule;
- (b) the terms of the undertaking; and
- (c) information as to how and when the person is to be considered to have discharged the undertaking.
- (4) The enforcement undertaking may be varied, or the period within which the action must be completed may be extended, if both the appropriate authority and the person who gave the undertaking agree in writing.
Acceptance of an enforcement undertaking
25
- (1) If the appropriate authority has accepted an enforcement undertaking from a person—
- (a) that person may not at any time be convicted of the offence in respect of the act or omission to which the undertaking relates; and
- (b) the appropriate authority may not serve on that person a compliance notice, restoration notice or stop notice, or impose a fixed or variable monetary penalty on that person, in respect of that act or omission.
- (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply if a person who gave the undertaking has failed to comply with it or any part of it.
Discharge of an enforcement undertaking
26
- (1) If the appropriate authority is satisfied that an enforcement undertaking has been complied with, it must issue a certificate (a “discharge certificate”) to that effect.
- (2) An enforcement undertaking ceases to have effect on the issue of a discharge certificate.
- (3) The appropriate authority may require the person who has given the undertaking to provide sufficient information to determine that the undertaking has been complied with.
- (4) The person who gave the undertaking may at any time apply for a discharge certificate.
- (5) The appropriate authority must decide whether to issue a discharge certificate, and give written notice of the decision to the applicant (including information as to the right of appeal), within 14 days of such an application.
- (6) The applicant may appeal against a decision not to issue a discharge certificate on the grounds that the decision—
- (a) was based on an error of fact;
- (b) was wrong in law;
- (c) was unfair or unreasonable;
- (d) was wrong for any other reason.
Inaccurate, incomplete or misleading information
27
- (1) A person who has given inaccurate, incomplete or misleading information in relation to an enforcement undertaking is to be regarded as not having complied with it.
- (2) The appropriate authority may by notice in writing revoke a discharge certificate issued under paragraph 26 if it was issued on the basis of inaccurate, misleading or incomplete information.
Non-compliance with an enforcement undertaking
28
- (1) If a person does not comply with an enforcement undertaking, the appropriate authority may, in the case of an offence committed under Part 11 of these Regulations—
- (a) serve a compliance notice, restoration notice, variable monetary penalty, stop notice or non-compliance penalty; or
- (b) bring criminal proceedings.
- (2) If a person has complied partly but not fully with an undertaking, that partial compliance must be taken into account in the imposition of any criminal or other sanction on the person.
- (3) Criminal proceedings for offences to which an enforcement undertaking relates may be instituted at any time up to 6 months from the date on which the appropriate authority notifies the person that the person has failed to comply with the undertaking.
PART 4
Non-compliance penalties
Non-compliance penalties
29
- (1) The appropriate authority may serve a notice on a person imposing a monetary penalty (a “non-compliance penalty”) if that person fails to comply with—
- (a) a compliance notice, restoration notice or third party undertaking, irrespective of whether a variable monetary penalty was also imposed; or
- (b) an enforcement undertaking.
- (2) The amount of the non-compliance penalty must be determined by the appropriate authority, and must be a percentage of the costs of fulfilling the remaining requirements of the compliance notice, restoration notice, third party undertaking or enforcement undertaking.
- (3) The percentage must be determined by the appropriate authority having regard to all the circumstances of the case and may, if appropriate, be 100%.
- (4) The notice must include information as to—
- (a) the grounds for imposing the non-compliance penalty;
- (b) the amount to be paid;
- (c) how payment must be made;
- (d) the period in which payment must be made, which must not be less than 28 days beginning with the day on which the notice is served;
- (e) rights of appeal;
- (f) the consequences of failure to comply with the notice; and
- (g) any circumstances in which the appropriate authority may reduce the amount of the penalty.
- (5) If the requirements of the compliance notice, restoration notice, third party undertaking or enforcement undertaking are fulfilled before the time specified for payment of the non-compliance penalty, the penalty is not payable.
- (6) Following expiry of the specified payment period, the appropriate authority may recover the non-compliance penalty as if payable under an order of the court.
- (7) A non-compliance penalty paid to the appropriate authority under this paragraph must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.
Appeals
30
- (1) The person on whom the notice imposing the non-compliance penalty is served may appeal against it.
- (2) The grounds of appeal are—
- (a) that the decision to serve the notice was based on an error of fact;
- (b) that the decision was wrong in law;
- (c) that the decision was unfair or unreasonable for any reason;
- (d) that the amount of the penalty is unreasonable;
- (e) that the decision was wrong for another reason.
PART 5
Withdrawal and amendment of notices
Withdrawing or amending a notice
31
The appropriate authority may at any time in writing—
- (a) withdraw a compliance notice, restoration notice or stop notice, or amend the steps specified in such a notice in order to reduce the amount of work necessary to comply with it;
- (b) withdraw a notice imposing a fixed monetary penalty; or
- (c) withdraw a notice imposing a variable monetary penalty or a non-compliance penalty, or reduce the amount of the penalty specified in the notice.
PART 6
Cost recovery
Recovery of enforcement costs
32
- (1) The appropriate authority may serve a cost recovery notice if any of the conditions in sub-paragraph (3) are met.
- (2) A cost recovery notice is a notice requiring the person to pay the appropriate authority’s costs.
- (3) The conditions are that the appropriate authority has—
- (a) imposed on the person a compliance notice under paragraph 1;
- (b) imposed on the person a restoration notice under paragraph 2;
- (c) imposed on the person a variable monetary penalty under paragraph 4; or
- (d) served on the person a stop notice under paragraph 17.
- (4) In sub-paragraph (2), the reference to costs is a reference to any costs relating to preparing and serving the compliance notice, restoration notice, variable monetary penalty, or stop notice, as the case may be, and includes a reference to the costs of any related investigation or expert advice (including legal advice).
- (5) The cost recovery notice must include information as to—
- (a) the amount of the costs which must be paid;
- (b) the period in which payment must be paid, which must not be less than 28 days beginning with the day on which the notice is served;
- (c) how payment must be made;
- (d) the consequences of failing to make payment within the specified payment period; and
- (e) rights of appeal.
- (6) Following expiry of the specified payment period, the appropriate authority may recover the costs referred to in the cost recovery notice as if payable under an order of the court.
- (7) The person on whom the cost recovery notice is served may appeal against it.
- (8) The grounds of appeal are—
- (a) that the decision to serve the notice was based on an error of fact;
- (b) that the decision was wrong in law;
- (c) that the decision was unfair or unreasonable for any reason;
- (d) that the amount of the penalty was unreasonable;
- (e) that the decision was wrong for any other reason.
PART 7
Appeals
Appeals
33
- (1) Any appeal under this Schedule must be made to the First-tier Tribunal.
- (2) In any appeal the Tribunal must determine the standard of proof.
- (3) An appeal against a notice served under this Schedule (other than a stop notice) suspends the effect of the notice appealed against until the appeal is determined or withdrawn.
- (4) The Tribunal may, in relation to the imposition of a requirement or service of a notice—
- (a) withdraw the requirement or notice;
- (b) confirm the requirement or notice;
- (c) vary the requirement or notice;
- (d) take such steps as the appropriate authority could take in relation to the act or omission giving rise to the requirement or notice;
- (e) remit the decision whether to confirm the requirement or notice, or any other matter relating to that decision, to the appropriate authority.
PART 8
Guidance and publicity
Guidance as to the use of civil sanctions
34
- (1) The appropriate authority must publish guidance about its use of civil sanctions.
- (2) The appropriate authority must revise and update guidance where appropriate.
- (3) The appropriate authority must have regard to the guidance or revised and updated guidance in exercising its functions.
- (4) In the case of guidance about compliance notices, restoration notices, fixed monetary penalties, variable monetary penalties, stop notices and non-compliance penalties, the guidance must contain information as to—
- (a) the circumstances in which the civil sanction is likely to be imposed;
- (b) the circumstances in which it is not likely to be imposed;
- (c) where relevant, rights to make representations and objections;
- (d) rights of appeal; and
- (e) in the case of guidance about variable monetary penalties and non-compliance penalties, the matters likely to be taken into account by the appropriate authority in determining the amount of the penalty (including voluntary reporting by a person of their own non-compliance).
- (5) In the case of guidance about enforcement undertakings, the guidance must contain information as to—
- (a) the circumstances in which the appropriate authority is likely to accept an enforcement undertaking; and
- (b) the circumstances in which the appropriate authority is not likely to accept an enforcement undertaking.
Consultation on guidance
35
The appropriate authority must consult such persons as it considers appropriate before publishing—
- (a) any guidance; or
- (b) any significant revisions or updates to guidance which has already been published.
Publication of enforcement action
36
- (1) The appropriate authority must publish annually—
- (a) the cases in which civil sanctions have been imposed;
- (b) where the civil sanction is a compliance notice, a restoration notice or variable monetary penalty, the cases in which a third party undertaking has been accepted;
- (c) the cases in which an enforcement undertaking has been accepted.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1)(a), the reference to cases in which civil sanctions have been imposed does not include cases where a sanction has been imposed but overturned on appeal.
- (3) This paragraph does not apply in cases where the appropriate authority considers that publication would be inappropriate.
Temporary measures in relation to Candidatus Phytoplasma ulmi
Temporary measures in relation to Agrilus planipennis Fairmaire
National measures in relation to Xylella fastidiosa (Wells et al.)
Exception for controlled material in transit
Article 82 of the ... Plant Health Regulation: meaning of “close proximity”
Improper use of UK plant passports or certificates
Official testing
8A
Any official testing of samples for the purposes of this Part must be carried out in accordance with EPPO PM 7/40 and EPPO PM 7/119.
Official investigations and surveys
Official records of investigations and surveys
Notices in relation to infested fields and contaminated susceptible material
Prohibition on the planting of potatoes in infested fields
Suppression of Potato cyst nematodes
Controls on contaminated seed potatoes etc.
Controls on potatoes for industrial processing or grading
Controls on contaminated bulbs etc.
Further investigations for the presence of Potato cyst nematodes
Additional measures relating to Egyptian potatoes
| Provision of the ... Plant Health Regulation | Subject matter |
|---|---|
| Article 5(1) (as read with Article 8(1)) | Prohibits the introduction of a GB quarantine pest into Great Britain, the movement of a GB quarantine pest within Great Britain or the holding, multiplication or the release of a GB quarantine pest in Great Britain . |
| Article 9(3) (as read with Article 33(1)) | Requires professional operators immediately to notify competent authorities of any evidence they may have concerning an imminent danger of the entry of: a GB quarantine pest or a provisional GB quarantine pest into Great Britain or into a part of Great Britain where it is not yet present; ora PFA quarantine pest into the GB pest-free area established in respect of that pest. |
| Article 14(1) (as read with Articles 16 and 33(1)) | Requires a professional operator who suspects or becomes aware that:a GB quarantine pest or provisional GB quarantine pest is present in plants, plant products or other objects which are under the operator's control;a PFA quarantine pest is present in plants, plant products or other objects which are under the operator's control in the GB pest-free area established in respect of that pest,immediately to notify the competent authority and take precautionary measures to prevent the establishment and spread of the pest. |
| Article 14(3) | Requires a professional operator:to consult the competent authority where the professional operator has received an official confirmation concerning the presence of a GB quarantine pest in plants, plant products or other objects which are under the operator's control; andwhere applicable, proceed with the actions required under Article 14(4) to (7). |
| Article 15(1) (as read with Articles 15(2), 16 and 33(1)) | Requires a person who is not a professional operator immediately to notify the competent authority where the person becomes aware of, or has reason to suspect:the presence of a GB quarantine pest,the presence of a PFA quarantine pest in the GB pest-free area established in respect of that pest. |
| Article 32(2) | Prohibits the introduction of a PFA quarantine pest into the GB pest-free area established in respect of that pest, the movement of a PFA quarantine pest within the GB pest-free area established in respect of that pest or the holding, multiplication or the release of a PFA quarantine pest in the GB pest-free area established in respect of that pest . |
| Article 37(1) (as read with Article 39, and Article 17 of the Phytosanitary Conditions Regulation) | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain by a professional operator of a GB regulated non-quarantine pest on plants for planting through which it is transmitted, or the movement of a GB regulated non-quarantine pest within Great Britain by a professional operator on plants for planting through which it is transmitted . |
| Article 40(1) (as read with Articles 47 and 48(1)) | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain of certain plants, plant products or other objects if they originate from all or certain third countries or territories . |
| Article 41(1) (as read with Articles 47 and 48(1)) | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain of certain plants, plant products or other objects from third countries unless the special requirements in respect of those plants, plant products or other objects are fulfilled. |
| Article 41(1A) (as read with Article 48(1) | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain of certain plants, plant products or other objects from CD territories unless the special requirements in respect of those plants, plant products or other objects are fulfilled. |
| Article 41(1B) (as read with Article 48(1)) | Prohibits the movement within Great Britain of certain plants, plant products or other objects unless the special requirements in respect of those plants, plant products or other objects are fulfilled. |
| Article 42(2) (as read with Articles 47 and 48(1)) | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain of high-risk plants, plant products or other objects from third countries . |
| Article 43(1) | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain of wood packaging material, whether or not in use in the transport of objects of any kind, unless it fulfils the specified requirements or is subject to the exemptions provided for ISPM 15. |
| Article 45(1), third paragraph (as read with Article 55) | Requires postal services and professional operators involved in sales through distance contracts to make specified information available to their clients through the internet. |
| Article 53(1) (as read with Articles 57 and 58). | Prohibits:the introduction of certain plants, plant products or other objects originating from third countries into GB pest-free areas;the introduction of certain plants, plant products or other objects originating in Great Britain or a CD territory into GB pest-free areas. |
| Article 54(1) (as read with Articles 57 and 58) | Prohibits:the introduction of certain plants, plant products or other objects into GB pest-free areas unless the special requirements in respect of those GB pest-free areas are fulfilled;the movement of certain plants, plant products or other objects within GB pest-free areas unless the special requirements in respect of those GB pest-free areas are fulfilled . |
| Article 59 | Requires:vehicles, machinery or packaging material used for specified plants, plant products or other objects moving into or within Great Britain, or through Great Britain, to be free from GB quarantine pests or provisional GB quarantine pests;vehicles, machinery or packaging material used for specified plants, plant products or other objects moving into or within GB pest-free areas, or through GB pest-free areas, to be free from the PFA quarantine pests relating to those areas. |
| Article 62(1) | Requires a person responsible for a quarantine station or confinement facility to monitor the station or facility and its immediate vicinity for the unintended presence of GB quarantine pests and provisional GB quarantine pests. |
| Article 62(2) | Requires a person responsible for a quarantine station or confinement facility to take appropriate action based on the contingency plan referred to in point (e) of Article 61(1) and to comply with the obligations of professional operators in Article 14 where the unintended presence of a GB quarantine pest or a provisional GB quarantine pest is found or suspected. |
| Article 64(1) (as read with Article 64(2)) | Prohibits the release of plants, plant products and other objects from quarantine stations or confinement facilities unless authorised by the competent authorities. |
| Article 66(1) (as read with Article 65(3)) | Requires certain professional operators to submit an application for registration to the competent authorities. |
| Article 66(5) (as read with Article 65(3)) | Requires registered operators, where relevant:to submit an annual update concerning any changes in the data referred to in points (d) and (e) of Article 66(2) or in the statements referred to in points (b) and (c) of Article 66(2);to update the data referred to in point (a) of Article 66(2) no later than 30 days after the change in that data. |
| Article 69(1) (as read with Articles 65(3) and 69(3)) | Requires a professional operator to whom plants, plant products or other objects are supplied that are subject to the specified requirements or conditions to keep a record allowing the operator to identify the professional operator who supplied each trade unit. |
| Article 69(2) (as read with Article 69(3)) | Requires a professional operator who is supplying plants, plant products or other objects that are subject to the specified requirements or conditions to keep a record allowing the operator to identify the professional operator to whom each trade unit was supplied. |
| Article 69(4) | Requires professional operators to keep the records required pursuant to Article 69(1) to (3) for at least three years. |
| Article 70(1) | Requires professional operators who are supplied with, or supply, the plants, plant products or other objects referred to in Article 69(1) and (2) to have in place traceability systems or procedures to allow identification of the movements of those plants, plant products and other objects within and between their own premises. |
| Articles 72(1) and 73 ... | Prohibits the introduction into Great Britain of certain plants, plant products and other objects from third countries unless they are accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate . |
| Article 74(1) | Prohibits the introduction of certain plants, plant products and other objects from third countries into certain GB pest-free areas unless accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate . |
| Article 79(1) (as read with Articles 81, 82, 83 and 92a) | Prohibits the movement of certain plants, plant products and other objects within Great Britain or the introduction of certain plants, plant products and other objects into Great Britain from a CD territory without a UK plant passport. |
| Article 80(1) (as read with Articles 81, 82, 83 and 92a) | Prohibits the introduction of certain plants, plant products and other objects into GB pest-free areas, or the movement of certain plants, plant products and other objects within GB pest-free areas, without a UK plant passport . |
| Article 84(1) | Prohibits professional operators from issuing UK plant passports unless they are authorised and from issuing UK plant passports for plants, plant products or other objects for which they are not responsible. |
| Article 84(3) | Prohibits authorised professional operators from issuing UK plant passports except at specified premises, collective warehouses or dispatching centres. |
| Article 85 (as read with Article 87 ...) | Prohibits authorised professional operators from issuing UK plant passports for plants, plant products or other objects unless the specified requirements are fulfilled in respect of those plants, plant products or other objects. |
| Article 86(1) (as read with Articles 86(2) and 87) | Prohibits authorised professional operators from issuing UK plant passports for plants, plant products or other objects to be introduced into, or moved within, a GB pest-free area unless the specified requirements are fulfilled in respect of those plants, plant products or other objects. |
| Article 86a | Prohibits authorised professional operators from issuing UK plant passports for plants, plant products or other objects to be introduced into a CD territory unless the specified requirements are fulfilled in respect of those plants, plant products or other objects. |
| Article 88 | Requires professional operators to attach UK plant passports to the trade unit of the plants, plant products or other objects concerned, or where the plants, plant products or other objects are moved in a package, bundle or container, to that package, bundle or container. |
| Article 90(1) | Requires an authorised operator:to identify and monitor the points in its production process and certain other critical points as regards the movement of plants, plant products and other objects where the authorised operator intends to issue a UK plant passport in respect of those plants plant products and other objects; andto keep records concerning the identification and monitoring of those points for at least three years |
| Article 90(2) | Requires authorised operators to ensure that appropriate training is given to its personnel involved in the examinations referred to in Article 87. |
| Article 93(1) | Prohibits authorised operators from issuing replacement UK plant passports unless certain conditions are fulfilled. |
| Article 93(5) | Requires authorised operators to retain replacement UK plant passports or their contents for at least three years. |
| Article 96(1) | Prohibits the marking of wood packaging material, wood or other objects in Great Britain:by any professional operator who is not authorised in accordance with Article 98; orotherwise than in the manner required. |
| Article 97(1) | Prohibits the repairing of wood packaging material:by any professional operator who is not authorised in accordance with Article 98; orotherwise than in the manner required. |
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Improper use of ... plant passports , Northern Ireland plant health labels or certificates
SCHEDULE3A — Offences: relevant offences in the Windsor Framework (Plant Health) Regulations 2023
| Provision of the Windsor Framework (Plant Health) Regulations 2023 | Subject matter |
|---|---|
| Regulation 9(3) | Imposes requirements on authorised operators for the issuance of a Northern Ireland plant health label. |
| Regulation 11(1) and (2) | Requires authorised operators: |
| (a) to identify and monitor the points in their production process and the points concerning the movement of the relevant goods which are critical as regards compliance with regulation 12 and regulation 13 of the Windsor Framework (Plant Health) Regulations 2023, where they intend to issue a Northern Ireland plant health label; and | |
| (b) to keep records concerning the identification and monitoring of those points for at least three years. | |
| Regulation 11(3) | Requires authorised operators to ensure that appropriate training is provided to its personnel involved in examinations. |
| Regulation 12 | Prohibits issuance of a Northern Ireland plant health label unless specified conditions are fulfilled, but breach of regulation 12 is only an offence where that label is issued by an authorised operator. |
| Regulation 14(1) | Imposes requirements on authorised operators in relation to attaching a Northern Ireland plant health label. |
| Regulation 14(2) | Imposes requirements on professional operators in relation to attaching a Northern Ireland plant health label. |
| Regulation 18(1) to 18(4) | Imposes requirements on authorised operators and professional operators in relation to record keeping. |
| Regulation 18(5) | Imposes requirements on professional operators to communicate information to the competent authority, on request. |
| Regulation 19(4) | Imposes conditions in relation to issuance of a replacement Northern Ireland plant health label, but breach of regulation 19(4) is only an offence where that label is issued by an authorised operator. |
| Regulation 19(6) and (7) | Imposes requirements on authorised operators in relation to retention of a replaced Northern Ireland plant health label or its content. |
| Regulation 20(2), (3), (5) and (7) | Imposes requirements on professional operators in relation to invalidation and removal of a Northern Ireland plant health label. |
| Regulation 21 | Prohibits the despatch of consignments with a Northern Ireland plant health label to Northern Ireland by persons other than authorised operators and registered operators, and by authorised operators and registered operators unless specified conditions are fulfilled. |
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