The Democratic People’s Republic of Korea (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019
- (b) the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
- (2) Where, in the absence of this paragraph, a thing would be required to be done under or by virtue of a provision of Chapter 2 of Part 4 (Investment, financial services and financial markets), Part 7 (Aircraft), 8 (Ships), 10 (Information) or 12 (Maritime enforcement), that requirement does not apply if a responsible officer has determined that not doing the thing in question would be in the interests of—
- (a) national security, or
- (b) the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
- (3) In this regulation “responsible officer” means a person in the service of the Crown or holding office under the Crown, acting in the course of that person's duty.
- (4) Nothing in this regulation affects the application of a prohibition or requirement in a case where it would be incompatible with a UN obligation for the prohibition or requirement not to apply.
Treasury licences
88
- (1) The prohibitions in regulations 13 to 17 (asset-freeze etc.), regulation 70 (dealing with UN-designated ships subject to asset-freeze) and in the financial services provisions do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Treasury under this paragraph.
- (2) Paragraphs (3) and (4) apply to the issuing of a licence which authorises acts which would otherwise be prohibited by regulations 13 to 17.
- (3) The Treasury may issue a licence which authorises acts by a particular person in relation to a non-UN designated person only where the Treasury consider that it is appropriate to issue the licence for a purpose set out in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 3.
- (4) The Treasury may issue a licence which authorises acts in relation to a UN designated person only where the Treasury consider that it is appropriate to issue the licence for a purpose set out in Part 1 or 1A of Schedule 3.
- (5) The Treasury may issue a licence which authorises acts which would otherwise be prohibited by regulation 28 only where it considers it appropriate in the following circumstances—
- (a) for a transfer of funds of a value over £13,000, which relates to a transaction mentioned in regulation 83(2),
- (b) for a transfer of funds of a value over £4,000, which relates to a transaction regarding a personal remittance, or
- (c) to enable anything to be done in connection with the performance of—
- (i) any humanitarian assistance activity, or
- (ii) any activity whose purpose is consistent with the objectives of resolution 1718, 1874, 2087, 2094, 2270, 2321, 2356, 2371, 2375 or 2397.
- (6) In paragraph (1) “the financial services provisions” means regulations 18, 20 to 22 and 24 to 30, excluding regulation 26(7).
- (7) In paragraph (4) “UN designated person” means—
- (a) a person who is a designated person for the purposes of regulations 13 to 17 by reason of regulation 10 (designation of persons named by or under UN Security Council Resolutions), or
- (b) a person who is designated under regulation 5 (power to designate persons) for the purposes of regulations 13 to 17 and whose designation is (in the opinion of the Secretary of State) required by paragraph 32 of resolution 2270 or a provision mentioned in regulation 4(4).
- (8) The reference in paragraph (3) to a non-UN designated person is to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the non-UN designated person.
- (9) The reference in paragraph (4) to a UN designated person is to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the UN designated person.
Treasury directions
89
The requirements in regulations 19 (severance of existing financial relationships), 23 (closure of representative offices) and 26(7) (closure of joint venture or co-operative entity) have effect subject to any exceptions specified in a direction issued by the Treasury under this regulation.
Trade licences
90
The prohibitions in Chapters 1, 2 and 3 of Part 6 (Trade) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Secretary of State under this regulation.
Aircraft licences
91
The prohibition in regulation 65(1) does not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Secretary of State under this regulation.
Ship licences
92
- (1) The prohibitions in the regulations mentioned in paragraph (2) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Secretary of State under this regulation.
- (2) The regulations are—
- (a) regulation 69 (ownership etc. of DPRK ships),
- (b) regulation 74 (DPRK ships: transfers of goods), and
- (c) regulation 76 (registration etc. of ships in the DPRK).
Licences: general provisions
93
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to Treasury licences, director disqualification licences, trade licences and transport licences.
- (2) A licence must specify the acts authorised by it.
- (3) A licence may be general or may authorise acts by a particular person or persons of a particular description.
- (4) A licence may—
- (a) contain conditions;
- (b) be of indefinite duration or a defined duration.
- (5) A person who issues a licence may vary, revoke or suspend it at any time.
- (6) A person who , on the application of a person (“P”), issues a licence which authorises acts by a particular person , or varies, revokes or suspends that licence, must give written notice to P of the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
- (7) A person who issues, varies, revokes or suspends a general licence or a licence which authorises acts by persons of a particular description must take such steps as that person considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
Treasury directions: general provisions
94
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to Treasury directions.
- (2) A direction may be general or may except conduct by a particular person or persons of a particular description.
- (3) A direction may—
- (a) contain conditions;
- (b) be of indefinite duration or a defined duration.
- (4) The Treasury may vary, revoke or suspend a direction at any time.
- (5) On the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of a direction, the Treasury must—
- (a) in the case of a direction which excepts conduct by a particular person, give written notice to that person of the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the direction;
- (b) in the case of a general direction or a direction which excepts conduct by persons of a particular description, take such steps as the Treasury consider appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the direction.
Finance: licensing offences
95
- (1) A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
- (a) provides information that is false in a material respect, or
- (b) provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a Treasury licence or Treasury direction (whether for P or anyone else).
- (2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a Treasury licence, or who is excepted from a requirement by a Treasury direction, but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence or direction commits an offence.
Trade: licensing offences
96
- (1) A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
- (a) provides information that is false in a material respect, or
- (b) provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a trade licence (whether for P or anyone else).
- (2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a trade licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
- (3) A licence in respect of which an offence under paragraph (1) has been committed is to be treated as void from the time at which it was issued.
Ships and aircraft: licensing offences
97
- (1) A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
- (a) provides information that is false in a material respect, or
- (b) provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a transport licence (whether for P or anyone else).
- (2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a transport licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
- (3) A licence in respect of which an offence under paragraph (1) has been committed is to be treated as void from the time at which it was issued.
Section 8B(1) to (3) of Immigration Act 1971: directions
98
- (1) The Secretary of State may direct that, in relation to any person within regulation 34 whose name is specified, or who is of a specified description, section 8B(1) and (2) of the Immigration Act 1971, or section 8B(3) of that Act, have effect subject to specified exceptions.
- (2) A direction under this regulation—
- (a) may contain conditions;
- (b) must be of a defined duration (and that duration may be expressed in any way, including, for example, being expressed in a way such that the direction ceases to have effect on, or within a specified period after, the occurrence of a specified event).
- (3) The Secretary of State may vary, revoke or suspend a direction under this regulation at any time.
- (4) On the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of a direction under this regulation, the Secretary of State may take such steps as the Secretary of State considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the direction.
- (5) In this regulation “specified” means specified in a direction under this regulation.
PART 10 — Information and records
Finance: reporting obligations
99
- (1) A relevant firm must inform the Treasury as soon as practicable if—
- (a) it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person—
- (i) is a designated person, or
- (ii) has breached a prohibition or failed to comply with an obligation under any provision of Part 4 (Finance), regulation 70 (dealing with UN-designated ships subject to asset-freeze) or 95 (finance: licensing offences), and
- (b) the information or other matter on which the knowledge or cause for suspicion is based came to it in the course of carrying on its business.
- (2) Where a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1), it must state—
- (a) the information or other matter on which the knowledge or suspicion is based, and
- (b) any information it holds about the person by which the person can be identified.
- (3) Paragraph (4) applies if—
- (a) a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1) that it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person is a designated person, and
- (b) that person is a customer of the relevant firm.
- (4) The relevant firm must also state the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources held by it for the customer at the time when it first had the knowledge or suspicion.
- (4A) Where a person (“P”) knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P holds funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person, P must by no later than 30th November in each calendar year provide a report to the Treasury as to the nature and amount or quantity of those funds or economic resources held by P as of 30th September in that calendar year.
- (4B) Where a report has been provided further to paragraph (4A) but as of 30th September in the following calendar year P no longer holds funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by the designated person, P must by no later than 30th November in that calendar year report this to the Treasury.
- (4C) For the purposes of paragraphs (4A) and (4B), funds or economic resources are to be treated as owned, held or controlled by a designated person if they are owned, held or controlled by a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
- (5) A relevant institution must inform the Treasury without delay if that institution—
- (a) credits a frozen account in accordance with regulation 81(4) (asset-freeze etc.: exceptions from prohibitions), or
- (b) transfers funds from a frozen account in accordance with regulation 81(6).
- (6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (1), (2) or (4) commits an offence.
- (6A) A person commits an offence if that person, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (4A) or (4B).
- (7) In this regulation—
- “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 4;
- “frozen account” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 81;
- “relevant firm” is to be read in accordance with regulation 100;
- “relevant institution” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 81.
“Relevant firm”
100
- (1) The following are relevant firms for the purposes of regulations 99 and 101—
- (a) a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (permission to carry on regulated activity);
- (b) an undertaking that by way of business—
- (i) operates a currency exchange office,
- (ii) transmits money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means, or
- (iii) cashes cheques that are made payable to customers;
- (c) a firm or sole practitioner that is—
- (i) a statutory auditor within the meaning of Part 42 of the Companies Act 2006 (statutory auditors), or
- (ii) a local auditor within the meaning of section 4(1) of the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (general requirements for audit) ;
- (d) a firm or sole practitioner that provides to other persons, by way of business—
- (i) accountancy services,
- (ii) legal or notarial services,
- (iii) advice about tax affairs, or
- (iv) trust or company services within the meaning of paragraph (2);
- (e) a firm or sole practitioner that carries out, or whose employees carry out, estate agency work;
- (f) the holder of a casino operating licence within the meaning given by section 65(2)(a) of the Gambling Act 2005 (nature of a licence) ;
- (g) a person engaged in the business of making, supplying, selling (including selling by auction) or exchanging—
- (i) articles made from gold, silver, platinum or palladium, or
- (ii) precious stones or pearls.
- (h) a cryptoasset exchange provider;
- (i) a custodian wallet provider;
- (j) a high value dealer;
- (k) an art market participant;
- (l) an insolvency practitioner;
- (m) a firm or sole practitioner (“P”) that carries out, or whose employees carry out, letting agency work.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “trust or company services” means any of the following services—
- (a) forming companies or other legal persons;
- (b) acting, or arranging for another person to act—
- (i) as a director or secretary of a company,
- (ii) as a partner of a partnership, or
- (iii) in a similar capacity in relation to other legal persons;
- (c) providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a company, partnership or any other legal person or arrangement;
- (d) acting, or arranging for another person to act, as—
- (i) a trustee of an express trust or similar legal arrangement, or
- (ii) a nominee shareholder for a person.
- (3) In paragraph (1)—
- “estate agency work” is to be read in accordance with section 1 of the Estate Agents Act 1979 , but as if references in that section to disposing of or acquiring an interest in land included (despite anything in section 2 of that Act) references to disposing of or acquiring an estate or interest in land outside the United Kingdom where that estate or interest is capable of being owned or held as a separate interest;
- “firm” means any entity that, whether or not a legal person, is not an individual, and includes a body corporate and a partnership or other unincorporated body.
- (3A) In paragraph (1), a “cryptoasset exchange provider” means a firm or sole practitioner that by way of business provides one or more of the following services, including where the firm or sole practitioner does so as creator or issuer of any of the cryptoassets involved—
- (a) exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets,
- (b) exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, one cryptoasset for another, or
- (c) operating a machine which utilises automated processes to exchange cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets.
- (3B) In paragraph (1), a “custodian wallet provider” means a firm or sole practitioner that by way of business provides services to safeguard, or to safeguard and administer—
- (a) cryptoassets on behalf of its customers, or
- (b) private cryptographic keys on behalf of its customers in order to hold, store and transfer cryptoassets.
- (3C) For the purposes of this regulation—
- (a) “cryptoasset” means a cryptographically secured digital representation of value or contractual rights that uses a form of distributed ledger technology and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically;
- (b) “money” means—
- (i) money in sterling,
- (ii) money in any other currency, or
- (iii) money in any other medium of exchange,
but does not include a cryptoasset; and
- (c) in sub-paragraphs (a) to (c) of paragraph (3A), “cryptoasset” includes a right to, or interest in, the cryptoasset.
- (3D) In paragraph (1), a “high value dealer” means a firm or sole trader that by way of business trades in goods (including an auctioneer dealing in goods), when the firm or sole trader makes or receives, in respect of any transaction, a payment or payments in cash of at least 10,000 euros in total, whether the transaction is executed in a single operation or in several operations which appear to be linked.
- (3E) In paragraph (1), an “art market participant” means, subject to paragraph (3F), a firm or sole practitioner that is registered or required to register with the Commissioners as an art market participant under regulation 56(5) and (6) of the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017.
- (3F) A firm or sole practitioner is not an art market participant for the purposes of paragraph (3E) in relation to the sale or storage of a work of art which is created by, or is attributable to, a member of the firm or the sole practitioner.
- (3G) For the purposes of this regulation, “work of art” means anything which, in accordance with section 21(6) to (6B) of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 (value of imported goods), is a work of art for the purposes of section 21(5)(a) of that Act.
- (3H) In paragraph (1), an “insolvency practitioner” means a firm or individual who acts as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986 or Article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989.
- (3I) In paragraph (1), “letting agency work” means work—
- (a) consisting of things done in response to instructions received from—
- (i) a person (a “prospective landlord”) seeking to find another person to whom to let land for a term of a month or more, or
- (ii) a person (a “prospective tenant”) seeking to find land to rent for a term of a month or more, and
- (b) done—
- (i) in relation to a prospective landlord, from the point that the prospective landlord instructs P, or
- (ii) otherwise in the course of concluding an agreement for the letting of land for a term of a month or more.
- (3J) For the purposes of paragraph (3I)—
- “land” includes part of a building and part of any other structure;
- “letting agency work” does not include the things listed in paragraph (3K) when done by, or by employees of, a firm or sole practitioner if neither the firm or sole practitioner, nor any of their employees, does anything else within paragraph (3I).
- (3K) Those things are—
- (a) publishing advertisements or disseminating information;
- (b) providing a means by which a prospective landlord or a prospective tenant can, in response to an advertisement or dissemination of information, make direct contact with a prospective tenant or a prospective landlord;
- (c) providing a means by which a prospective landlord and a prospective tenant can communicate directly with each other;
- (d) the provision of legal or notarial services by a barrister, advocate, solicitor or other legal representative communications with whom may be the subject of a claim to professional privilege or, in Scotland, protected from disclosure in legal proceedings on grounds of confidentiality of communications.
- (4) Paragraph (1)(a) and (b) is to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, any relevant order under that section and Schedule 2 to that Act.
- (5) For the purposes of regulation 99(1), information or another matter comes to a relevant firm “in the course of carrying on its business” if the information or other matter comes to the firm—
- (a) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(a), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the permission mentioned in that provision is required;
- (b) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(i), in the course of carrying out statutory audit work within the meaning of section 1210 of the Companies Act 2006 (meaning of “statutory auditor”) ;
- (c) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(ii), in the course of carrying out an audit required by the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014;
- (d) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(f), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the licence mentioned in that provision is required;
- (da) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(k)—
- (i) in the course of trading, or acting as an intermediary in the sale or purchase of, works of art when the value of the transaction, or a series of linked transactions, amounts to 10,000 euros or more, or
- (ii) in the course of storing works of art where the value of the works of art so stored for a person amounts to 10,000 euros or more;
- (e) in the case of a relevant firm within any other provision of paragraph (1), in the course of carrying on an activity mentioned in that provision.
Proliferation financing
101
- (1) A relevant firm must inform the National Crime Agency without delay if-—
- (a) it knows or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person is providing proliferation financing, and
- (b) the information or other matter on which the knowledge or cause for suspicion is based came to it in the course of carrying on its business with a person falling within regulation 18(2).
- (2) Where paragraph (1) applies, the relevant firm must not carry out any activity related to the proliferation financing or suspected proliferation financing (including, in particular, any transfer of funds or clearing of funds) until it has complied with the requirement in paragraph (1) and instructions provided by the Treasury or the Commissioners.
- (3) A reference in this regulation to information or any other matter which comes to a person in the course of carrying on its business is to be read in accordance with regulation 100(5).
- (4) A person who fails to comply with the requirement in paragraph (1) or who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (2) commits an offence.
- (5) In this regulation—
- “proliferation financing” means making available funds that could contribute to any of the DPRK's banned programmes;
- “relevant firm” is to be read in accordance with regulation 100.
Finance: powers to request information
102
- (1) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide information about—
- (a) funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on behalf of the designated person, or
- (b) any disposal of such funds or economic resources.
- (2) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide such information as the Treasury may reasonably require about expenditure—
- (a) by the designated person, or
- (b) for the benefit of the designated person.
- (3) For the purposes of paragraph (2), expenditure for the benefit of a designated person includes expenditure on the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
- (4) The power in paragraph (1) or (2) is exercisable only where the Treasury believe that it is necessary for the purpose of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of any provision of Part 4 (Finance).
- (5) The Treasury may request—
- (a) a person acting under a Treasury licence to provide information about—
- (i) funds or economic resources dealt with under the licence,
- (ii) funds, economic resources or financial services made available under the licence, or
- (iii) any matter to which a licence relates, where that licence authorises an act that would otherwise be prohibited under Chapter 2 of Part 4, including but not limited to a transfer of funds made or received under the licence, or a transaction entered into or participated in under the licence;
- (b) a person excepted from a requirement by a Treasury direction to provide information about—
- (i) the person's conduct in relation to the matters to which the direction relates, or
- (ii) bank accounts, correspondent banking relationships, joint ventures or co-operative entities or representative offices to which that direction relates.
- (6) The Treasury may request a person to provide information within paragraph (7) if the Treasury believe that the person may be able to provide the information.
- (7) Information within this paragraph is such information as the Treasury may reasonably require for the purpose of—
- (a) establishing for the purposes of any provision of Chapter 1 of Part 4—
- (i) the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on behalf of a designated person,
- (ii) the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources or financial services made available directly or indirectly to, or for the benefit of, a designated person, or
- (iii) the nature of any financial transactions entered into by a designated person;
- (b) establishing for the purposes of regulation 101 whether any proliferation financing has taken place and the nature and amount or quantity of any proliferation financing;
- (c) monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of—
- (i) any provision of Part 4,
- (ii) regulation 70 (dealing with UN-designated ships subject to asset-freeze),
- (iii) regulation 99 (finance: reporting obligations),
- (iv) regulation 101 (proliferation financing), or
- (v) any condition of a Treasury licence or Treasury direction; or
- (d) detecting or obtaining evidence of the commission of an offence under Part 4, regulation 70(3), regulation 95 (finance: licensing offences) or 99(6).
- (8) The Treasury may specify the way in which, and the period within which, information is to be provided.
- (9) If no such period is specified, the information which has been requested must be provided within a reasonable time.
- (10) A request may include a continuing obligation to keep the Treasury informed as circumstances change, or on such regular basis as the Treasury may specify.
- (11) Information requested under this regulation may relate to any period of time during which a person is, or was, a designated person.
- (12) Information requested by virtue of paragraph (1)(b), (2) or (7)(a)(iii) may relate to any period before a person became a designated person (as well as, or instead of, any subsequent period).
- (13) Expressions used in this regulation have the same meaning as they have in Part 4.
- (14) In this regulation, “proliferation financing” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 101.
Finance: production of documents
103
- (1) A request under regulation 102 may include a request to produce specified documents or documents of a specified description.
- (2) Where the Treasury request that documents be produced, the Treasury may—
- (a) take copies of or extracts from any document so produced,
- (b) request any person producing a document to give an explanation of it, and
- (c) where that person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated body other than a partnership, request any person who is—
- (i) in the case of a partnership, a present or past partner or employee of the partnership, or
- (ii) in any other case, a present or past officer or employee of the body concerned,
to give such an explanation.
- (3) Where a designated person, a person acting under a Treasury licence or a person excepted from a requirement by a Treasury direction is requested to produce documents, that person must—
- (a) take reasonable steps to obtain the documents (if they are not already in the person's possession or control);
- (b) keep the documents under the person's possession or control (except for the purpose of providing them to the Treasury or as the Treasury may otherwise permit).
- (4) In this regulation “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 4 (Finance).
Finance: information offences
104
- (1) A person commits an offence if that person—
- (a) without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails within the time and in the manner specified (or, if no time has been specified, within a reasonable time) to comply with any request under regulation 102 (finance: powers to request information);
- (b) knowingly or recklessly gives any information, or produces any document, which is false in a material particular in response to such a request;
- (c) with intent to evade any provision of regulation 102 or 103 (finance: production of documents), destroys, mutilates, defaces, conceals or removes any document;
- (d) otherwise intentionally obstructs the Treasury in the exercise of their powers under regulation 102 or 103.
- (2) Where a person is convicted of an offence under this regulation, the court may make an order requiring that person, within such period as may be specified in the order, to comply with the request.
Trade: application of information powers in CEMA
105
- (1) Section 77A of CEMA applies in relation to a person carrying on a relevant activity as it applies in relation to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods but as if—
- (a) in subsection (1), the reference to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods for which for that purpose an entry is required by regulation 5 of the Customs Controls on Importation of Goods Regulations 1991 or an entry or specification is required by or under CEMA were to a person carrying on a relevant activity;
- (b) any other reference to importation or exportation were to a relevant activity;
- (c) any reference to goods were to the goods, technology, services or funds to which the relevant activity relates.
- (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a “relevant activity” means an activity—
- (a) which would, unless done under the authority of a trade licence, constitute a contravention of any prohibition in Chapter 1, 2 or 3 of Part 6 (Trade) except any prohibition on imports or exports, or
- (b) which would constitute a contravention of a prohibition in regulation 62 (circumventing etc. prohibitions).
General trade licences: records
106
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a person (“P”) who does any act authorised by a general licence issued under regulation 90 (trade licences) (“the licence”).
- (2) P must keep a register or record containing such details as may be necessary to allow the following information to be identified in relation to each act done under the authority of the licence—
- (a) a description of the act;
- (b) a description of any goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (c) the date of the act or the dates between which the act took place;
- (d) the quantity of any goods or funds to which the act relates;
- (e) P's name and address;
- (f) the name and address of any consignee of goods to which the act relates or any recipient of technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (g) in so far as it is known to P, the name and address of the end-user of the goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (h) if different from P, the name and address of the supplier of any goods to which the act relates;
- (i) any further information required by the licence.
- (3) The register or record relating to an act must be kept until the end of the calendar year in which the register or record is created and for a further period of 4 years from the end of that calendar year.
- (4) P must notify the Secretary of State in writing of P's name and the address at which the register or record may be inspected, and must make a further such notification if those details change.
- (5) A notification under paragraph (4) must be given no later than 30 days after—
- (a) P first does any act authorised by the licence, or
- (b) there is any change to the details previously notified.
- (6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (2), (3) or (4) commits an offence.
General trade licences: inspection of records
107
- (1) A person authorised by the Secretary of State or the Commissioners (an “official”) may at any reasonable hour enter premises notified under regulation 106(4) for the purposes of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of regulation 106(2) or (3).
- (2) An official may require any person on the premises to produce any register or record required to be kept under regulation 106, or any document included in such a register or record, that is in the person's possession or control.
- (3) An official may inspect and copy any such register, record or document.
- (4) An official must, if requested to do so, produce documentary evidence that he or she is authorised to exercise a power conferred by this regulation.
- (5) A person commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person—
- (a) intentionally obstructs an official in the performance of any of the official's functions under this regulation, or
- (b) fails to produce a register, record or document when reasonably required to do so by an official under this regulation.
Disclosure of information
108
- (1) The Secretary of State, the Treasury, the National Crime Agency or the Commissioners may, in accordance with this regulation, disclose—
- (a) any information obtained under or by virtue of Part 9 (Exceptions and licences), this Part or Part 12 (Maritime enforcement), or
- (b) any information held in connection with—
- (i) anything done under or by virtue of Part 2 (Designation of persons), 3 (Specification of ships), 4 (Finance), 4A (Director disqualification sanctions), 6 (Trade), 7 (Aircraft) or 8 (Ships), or
- (ii) any exception, licence or direction under Part 9 or anything done in accordance with such an exception or under the authority of such a licence or direction.
- (2) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed for, or in connection with, any of the following purposes—
- (a) any purpose stated in regulation 4;
- (b) the exercise of functions under these Regulations;
- (c) facilitating, monitoring or ensuring compliance with these Regulations;
- (d) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in the United Kingdom—
- (i) for an offence under any provision of these Regulations,
- (ii) for an offence under CEMA in connection with any prohibition in Chapter 1 or 2 of Part 6 on imports or exports, or
- (iii) in relation to a monetary penalty under section 146 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (breach of financial sanctions legislation);
- (e) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory for an offence—
- (i) under a provision in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a provision of these Regulations, or
- (ii) in connection with a prohibition in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a prohibition referred to in sub-paragraph (d)(ii);
- (f) compliance with an international obligation ;
- (g) facilitating the exercise by an authority outside the United Kingdom or by an international organisation of functions which correspond to functions under these Regulations.
- (3) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to the following persons—
- (a) a police officer;
- (b) any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of—
- (i) the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
- (ii) the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
- (iii) the States of Jersey, Guernsey or Alderney or the Chief Pleas of Sark,
- (iv) the Government of the Isle of Man, or
- (v) the Government of any British overseas territory;
- (c) any law officer of the Crown for Jersey, Guernsey or the Isle of Man;
- (d) the Scottish Legal Aid Board;
- (e) the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England, the Jersey Financial Services Commission, the Guernsey Financial Services Commission or the Isle of Man Financial Services Authority;
- (f) any other regulatory body (whether or not in the United Kingdom);
- (g) any organ of the United Nations;
- (h) the Council of the European Union, the European Commission or the European External Action Service;
- (i) the Government of any country;
- (j) any other person, where the Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners (as the case may be) considers that it is appropriate to disclose the information.
- (4) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to any person with the consent of a person who, in their own right, is entitled to the information.
- (5) In paragraph (4) “in their own right” means not merely in the capacity as a servant or agent of another person.
- (6) In paragraph (1)(b)—
- (a) the reference to information includes information obtained at a time when any provision of these Regulations is not in force, and
- (b) references to a licence or direction under Part 9 include—
- (i) a licence or authorisation which has effect or is treated as if it were a licence or direction which had been issued under that Part, and
- (ii) a licence which is deemed to have been issued under that Part.
Part 10: supplementary
109
- (1) A disclosure of information under regulation 108 or 108A does not breach any restriction on such disclosure imposed by statute or otherwise.
- (2) But nothing in those regulations authorises a disclosure that—
- (a) contravenes the data protection legislation, or
- (b) is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 .
- (3) Nothing in this Part is to be read as requiring a person who has acted or is acting as counsel or solicitor for any person to disclose any privileged information in their possession in that capacity.
- (4) Regulations 108 and 108A do not limit the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from those regulations.
- (5) Nothing in this Part limits any conditions which may be contained in a licence or direction under Part 9.
- (6) In this regulation—
- “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act);
- “privileged information” means information with respect to which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings.
PART 11 — Enforcement
Penalties for offences
110
- (1) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 4 (Finance), regulation 67(1) to (4) (aircraft: offences), regulations 69 to 71, 72(4), 73(7), 74, 76 or 78 (ships: offences) or regulation 95 (finance: licensing offences) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or a fine (or both).
- (2) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 6 (Trade) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or a fine (or both).
- (3) A person who commits an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), 95A (director disqualification: licensing offences), 96 (trade: licensing offences), 97 (ships and aircraft: licensing offences), 106(6) or 107(5) (information offences in connection with general trade licences) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both).
- (4) A person who commits an offence under regulation 67(5), 72(6) or 73(9) (confidentiality), 99(6) (finance: reporting obligations), 101 (proliferation financing) or 104 (information offences in connection with Part 4) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
- (5) In relation to an offence committed before 2nd May 2022, the reference in each of paragraphs (1)(a), (2)(a) and (3)(a) to the general limit in a magistrates’ court is to be read as a reference to 6 months.
Liability of officers of bodies corporate etc.
111
- (1) Where an offence under these Regulations committed by a body corporate—
- (a) is committed with the consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, or any person who was purporting to act in any such capacity, or
- (b) is attributable to any neglect on the part of any such person,
that person as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
- (3) Paragraph (1) also applies in relation to a body that is not a body corporate, with the substitution for the reference to a director of the body of a reference—
- (a) in the case of a partnership, to a partner;
- (b) in the case of an unincorporated body other than a partnership—
- (i) where the body's affairs are managed by its members, to a member of the body;
- (ii) in any other case, to a member of the governing body.
- (4) Section 171(4) of CEMA (which is a provision similar to this regulation) does not apply to any offence under these Regulations to which that provision would, in the absence of this paragraph, apply.
Jurisdiction to try offences
112
- (1) Where an offence under Part 4 (Finance), Part 7 (Aircraft), Part 8 (Ships), regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), 95 (finance: licensing offences), 97 (ships and aircraft: licensing offences), 99(6) (finance: reporting obligations), 101 (proliferation financing) or 104 (information offences in connection with Part 4) is committed in the United Kingdom—
- (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
- (2) Where an offence under these Regulations is committed outside the United Kingdom—
- (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
- (3) In the application of paragraph (2) to Scotland, any such proceedings against a person may be taken—
- (a) in any sheriff court district in which the person is apprehended or is in custody, or
- (b) in such sheriff court district as the Lord Advocate may determine.
- (4) In paragraph (3) “sheriff court district” is to be read in accordance with the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (see section 307(1) of that Act) .
Procedure for offences by unincorporated bodies
113
- (1) Paragraphs (2) and (3) apply if it is alleged that an offence under these Regulations has been committed by an unincorporated body (as opposed to by a member of the body).
- (2) Proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland for such an offence must be brought against the body in its own name.
- (3) For the purposes of proceedings for such an offence brought against an unincorporated body—
- (a) rules of court relating to the service of documents have effect as if the body were a body corporate;
- (b) the following provisions apply as they apply in relation to a body corporate—
- (i) section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 ;
- (ii) section 18 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 and Article 166 of, and Schedule 4 to, the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 .
- (4) A fine imposed on an unincorporated body on its conviction of an offence under these Regulations is to be paid out of the funds of the body.
Time limit for proceedings for summary offences
114
- (1) Proceedings for an offence under these Regulations which is triable only summarily may be brought within the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the prosecutor's knowledge.
- (2) But such proceedings may not be brought by virtue of paragraph (1) more than 3 years after the commission of the offence.
- (3) A certificate signed by the prosecutor as to the date on which the evidence in question came to the prosecutor's knowledge is conclusive evidence of the date on which it did so; and a certificate to that effect and purporting to be so signed is to be treated as being so signed unless the contrary is proved.
- (4) In relation to proceedings in Scotland—
- (a) section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (date of commencement of summary proceedings) applies for the purposes of this regulation as it applies for the purposes of that section, and
- (b) references in this regulation to the prosecutor are to be treated as references to the Lord Advocate.
Trade enforcement: application of CEMA
115
- (1) Where the Commissioners investigate or propose to investigate any matter with a view to determining—
- (a) whether there are grounds for believing that a relevant offence has been committed, or
- (b) whether a person should be prosecuted for such an offence,
the matter is to be treated as an assigned matter.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “assigned matter” has the meaning given by section 1(1) of CEMA .
- (3) In this regulation a “relevant offence” means an offence under—
- (a) Part 6 (Trade),
- (b) regulation 96 (trade: licensing offences),
- (c) regulation 106(6) (general trade licences: records), or
- (d) regulation 107(5) (general trade licences: inspection of records).
- (3A) The Commissioners may not investigate the suspected commission of a relevant offence listed in paragraph (3B), (3C) or (3D), unless the suspected offence has been the subject of—
- (a) a referral to the Commissioners by the Secretary of State, or
- (b) a decision by the Commissioners to treat the suspected offence as if it had been referred to them under sub-paragraph (a).
- (3B) Paragraph (3A) applies to the suspected commission of an offence under any of the following provisions—
- (a) regulation 43(4) (goods and technology for armed forces of the DPRK) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK;
- (b) regulation 44(6) (armed forces goods and technology) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK;
- (c) regulation 46(4) (supply and delivery of certain goods to the DPRK);
- (d) regulation 47(4) (sale etc. of certain goods) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (e) regulation 49(4) (supply and delivery of certain goods from the DPRK);
- (f) regulation 50(5) and 50(6) (purchase etc. of certain goods and rights) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (g) regulation 51(4) (bank notes and coinage) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (h) regulation 52(5) (gold, precious metals or diamonds) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (i) regulation 53(3) (technical assistance relating to gold, precious metals or diamonds) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (j) regulation 54(5) (financial services and funds relating to gold, precious metals or diamonds) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (k) regulation 55(4) and 55(5) (brokering services: non-UK activity relating to gold, precious metals or diamonds) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (l) regulation 56(3) (mining, manufacturing and computer services);
- (m) regulation 57(4) (financial support for trade) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods;
- (n) regulation 58(3) (leasing or chartering of ships and aircraft);
- (o) regulation 59(4) (crew services for ships and aircraft);
- (p) regulation 60(3) (ship classification services);
- (q) regulation 61(3) (bunkering or ship supply services).
- (3C) Paragraph (3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under any of regulations 96(1), 96(2), 106(6) and 107(5) insofar as—
- (a) the suspected offence relates to a licence issued under regulation 90 (trade licences), and
- (b) the prohibited activity authorised by that licence would, if no licence had been issued, amount to an offence specified in paragraph (3B).
- (3D) Paragraph (3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under regulation 62(2) (circumventing etc. prohibitions), insofar as the prohibited activity to which the suspected offence relates is the circumvention of, or enabling or facilitation of a contravention of, a prohibition in relation to an offence specified in paragraph (3B).
- (4) Section 138 of CEMA (arrest of persons) applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence as it applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, an offence for which the person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts, but as if—
- (a) any reference to an offence under, or for which a person is liable to be arrested under, the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
- (b) in subsection (2), the reference to any person so liable were to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence.
- (5) The provisions of CEMA mentioned in paragraph (6) apply in relation to proceedings for a relevant offence as they apply in relation to proceedings for an offence under the customs and excise Acts, but as if—
- (a) any reference to the customs and excise Acts were to any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d);
- (b) in section 145(6), the reference to an offence for which a person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
- (c) in section 151, the reference to any penalty imposed under the customs and excise Acts were to any penalty imposed under these Regulations in relation to a relevant offence;
- (d) in section 154(2)—
- (i) the reference to proceedings relating to customs or excise were to proceedings under any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d), and
- (ii) the reference to the place from which any goods have been brought included a reference to the place to which goods have been exported, supplied or delivered or the place to or from which technology has been transferred.
- (6) The provisions of CEMA are sections 145, 146, 147, 148(1), 150, 151, 152, 154 and 155 (legal proceedings).
- (7) Any term in this regulation that is defined in regulation 64 (interpretation of Part 6) bears the same meaning as in that regulation.
Trade offences in CEMA: modification of penalty
116
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 50(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 36, 44(2) or (3), 48 or 52(2) (imports).
- (2) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 50(4)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
- (3) Paragraph (4) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 68(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 35, 43(1), 44(1), 45, 51(1) or 52(1) (exports).
- (4) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
- (5) Paragraph (6) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 170(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 35, 36, 43(1), 44(1), (2) or (3), 45, 48, 51(1), or 52(1) or (2) (exports and imports).
- (6) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
Application of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005
117
Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (investigatory powers) applies to an offence under—
- (a) Part 4 (Finance),
- (b) regulation 70 (dealing with UN-designated ships subject to asset-freeze), or
- (c) regulation 95 (finance: licensing offences).
Monetary penalties
118
Each prohibition in Part 6 (Trade) which contains a prohibition imposed for a purpose mentioned in section 3(1) or (2) of the Act is to be regarded as not being financial sanctions legislation for the purposes of Part 8 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (monetary penalties).
PART 12 — Maritime enforcement
Exercise of maritime enforcement powers
119
- (1) A maritime enforcement officer may, for a purpose mentioned in paragraph (2) or (3), exercise any of the maritime enforcement powers in relation to—
- (a) a British ship in foreign waters or international waters,
- (b) a ship without nationality in international waters, or
- (c) a foreign ship in international waters,
and a ship within sub-paragraph (a), (b) or (c) is referred to in this Part as “a relevant ship”.
- (2) The maritime enforcement powers may be exercised for the purpose of enforcing any of the following—
- (a) a prohibition in any of regulations 35 to 39 (trade sanctions relating to restricted goods and restricted technology) ...;
- (b) a prohibition in any of regulations 43 to 52 (trade sanctions relating to goods and technology other than restricted goods and technology) , except for the prohibitions in regulation 50(3) (acquisition or transfer of fishing rights);
- (c) a prohibition imposed by a condition of a trade licence in relation to a prohibition mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) or (b).
- (3) The maritime enforcement powers may also be exercised in relation to a relevant ship for the purpose of—
- (a) investigating the suspected carriage of relevant goods on the ship, or
- (b) preventing the continued carriage on the ship of goods suspected to be relevant goods.
- (4) In this Part, “the maritime enforcement powers” are the powers conferred by regulations 121 and 122.
- (5) This regulation is subject to regulation 123 (restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers).
Maritime enforcement officers
120
- (1) The following persons are “maritime enforcement officers” for the purposes of this Part—
- (a) a commissioned officer of any of Her Majesty's ships;
- (b) a member of the Ministry of Defence Police (within the meaning of section 1 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 );
- (c) a constable—
- (i) who is a member of a police force in England and Wales,
- (ii) within the meaning of section 99 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 , or
- (iii) who is a member of the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve;
- (d) a special constable—
- (i) appointed under section 27 of the Police Act 1996 ,
- (ii) appointed under section 9 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012, or
- (iii) in Northern Ireland, appointed by virtue of provision incorporating section 79 of the Harbours, Docks, and Piers Clauses Act 1847 ;
- (e) a constable who is a member of the British Transport Police Force;
- (f) a port constable, within the meaning of section 7 of the Marine Navigation Act 2013 , or a person appointed to act as a constable under provision made by virtue of section 16 of the Harbours Act 1964 ;
- (g) a designated customs official within the meaning of Part 1 of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (see section 14(6) of that Act) ;
- (h) a designated NCA officer who is authorised by the Director General of the National Crime Agency (whether generally or specifically) to exercise the powers of a maritime enforcement officer under this Part.
- (2) In this regulation, “a designated NCA officer” means a National Crime Agency officer who is either or both of the following—
- (a) an officer designated under section 10 of the Crime and Courts Act 2013 as having the powers and privileges of a constable;
- (b) an officer designated under that section as having the powers of a general customs official.
Power to stop, board, search etc.
121
- (1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a relevant ship is carrying prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (2) The officer may—
- (a) stop the ship;
- (b) board the ship;
- (c) for the purpose of exercising a power conferred by paragraph (3) or regulation 122, require the ship to be taken to, and remain in, a port or anchorage in the United Kingdom or any other country willing to receive it.
- (3) Where the officer boards a ship by virtue of this regulation, the officer may—
- (a) stop any person found on the ship and search that person for—
- (i) prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
- (ii) any thing that might be used to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship;
- (b) search the ship, or any thing found on the ship (including cargo) for prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (4) The officer may—
- (a) require a person found on a ship boarded by virtue of this regulation to provide information or produce documents;
- (b) inspect and copy such information or documents.
- (5) The officer may exercise a power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(i) or (b) only to the extent reasonably required for the purpose of discovering prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (6) The officer may exercise the power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(ii) in relation to a person only where the officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the person might use a thing to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship.
- (7) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
Seizure power
122
- (1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer is lawfully on a relevant ship (whether in exercise of the powers conferred by regulation 121 (power to stop, board, search etc.) or otherwise).
- (2) The officer may seize any of the following which are found on the ship, in any thing found on the ship, or on any person found on the ship—
- (a) goods which the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect are prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
- (b) things within regulation 121(3)(a)(ii).
- (3) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
Restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers
123
- (1) The authority of the Secretary of State is required before any maritime enforcement power is exercised in reliance on regulation 119 in relation to—
- (a) a British ship in foreign waters, or
- (b) a foreign ship in international waters.
- (2) In relation to a British ship in foreign waters other than the sea and other waters within the seaward limits of the territorial sea adjacent to any relevant British possession, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1)(a) only if the State in whose waters the power would be exercised consents to the exercise of the power.
- (3) The Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1)(b) only if—
- (a) the home state has requested the assistance of the United Kingdom for a purpose mentioned in regulation 119(2) or (3),
- (b) the home state has authorised the United Kingdom to act for such a purpose, or
- (c) the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982 or a UN Security Council Resolution otherwise permits the exercise of the power in relation to the ship.
Interpretation of Part 12
124
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), any expression used in this Part and in section 19 or 20 of the Act has the same meaning in this Part as it has in section 19 or (as the case may be) section 20 of the Act.
- (2) For the purpose of interpreting any reference to “prohibited goods” or “relevant goods” in this Part, any reference in section 19 or 20 of the Act to a “relevant prohibition or requirement” is to be read as a reference to any prohibition specified in regulation 119(2)(a) to (c).
PART 13 — Supplementary and final provision
Directions under Parts 7 and 8
125
- (1) Paragraphs (4) to (6) apply in relation to a direction given under Part 7 (Aircraft) or Part 8 (Ships).
- (2) A direction under regulation 65(7) or (9) may be given to any airport operator or to airport operators generally.
- (3) A direction under regulation 72(3) may be given to any harbour authority or to harbour authorities generally.
- (4) A person to whom a direction is given has a duty to comply with it.
- (5) A direction may be of indefinite duration or a defined duration.
- (6) A person who gives a direction may vary, revoke or suspend it at any time.
Notices
126
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a notice required by regulation 93 (licences: general provisions) or regulation 94 (Treasury directions: general provisions) to be given to a person.
- (2) The notice may be given to an individual—
- (a) by delivering it to the individual,
- (b) by sending it to the individual by post addressed to the individual at his or her usual or last-known place of residence or business, or
- (c) by leaving it for the individual at that place.
- (3) The notice may be given to a person other than an individual—
- (a) by sending it by post to the proper officer of the body at its principal office, or
- (b) by addressing it to the proper officer of the body and leaving it at that office.
- (4) The notice may be given to the person by other means, including by electronic means, with the person's consent.
- (5) In this regulation, the reference in paragraph (3) to a “principal office”—
- (a) in relation to a registered company, is to be read as a reference to the company's registered office;
- (b) in relation to a body incorporated or constituted under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom, includes a reference to the body's principal office in the United Kingdom (if any).
- (6) In this regulation—
- “proper officer”—in relation to a body other than a partnership, means the secretary or other executive officer charged with the conduct of the body's general affairs, andin relation to a partnership, means a partner or a person who has the control or management of the partnership business;
- “registered company” means a company registered under the enactments relating to companies for the time being in force in the United Kingdom.
Article 20 of the Export Control Order 2008
127
Article 20 of the Export Control Order 2008 (embargoed destinations) is not to be taken to prohibit anything prohibited by Part 6 (Trade).
Trade: overlapping offences
128
A person is not to be taken to commit an offence under the Export Control Order 2008 if the person would, in the absence of this regulation, commit an offence under both—
- (a) article 34, 35, 37 or 38 of that Order , and
- (b) any provision of Part 6 (Trade) or regulation 96 (trade: licensing offences), 106(6) or 107(5) (information offences in connection with general trade licences).
Amendment of the United Nations and European Union Financial Sanctions (Linking) Regulations 2017
129
In the Schedule to the United Nations and European Union Financial Sanctions (Linking) Regulations 2017 , omit the following row from the table—
| United Nations Security Council Resolution 1718 (2006) | Council Regulation (EU) 2017/1509 of 30th August 2017 concerning restrictive measures against the Democratic People's Republic of Korea and repealing Regulation (EC) No 329/2007 |
|---|---|
Revocations
130
- (1) Council Regulation (EU) No 2017/1509 of 30 August 2017 concerning restrictive measures against the Democratic People's Republic of Korea and repealing Regulation (EC) No 329/2007 is revoked.
- (2) The North Korea (United Nations Sanctions) Order 2009 is revoked.
- (3) The Democratic People's Republic of Korea (European Union Financial Sanctions) Regulations 2017 are revoked.
- (4) The Export Control (North Korea Sanctions) Order 2018 is revoked.
Transitional provision: Treasury licences
131
- (1) Paragraphs (2) to (5) apply to a licence or authorisation which—
- (a) was granted, or deemed to be granted, by the Treasury under regulation 19 or 23 of the 2017 Regulations,
- (b) was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
- (c) authorises conduct which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (2) to (5)) be prohibited by Part 4 (Finance),
and such a licence or authorisation is referred to in this regulation as “an existing financial sanctions licence”.
- (2) An existing financial sanctions licence which authorises an act which would otherwise be prohibited has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been a licence issued by the Treasury under regulation 88(1) (Treasury licences).
- (3) An existing financial sanctions licence which excepts a person from a requirement which would otherwise apply has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been a direction issued by the Treasury under regulation 89 (Treasury directions).
- (4) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to the 2017 Regulations or the EU DPRK Regulation is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to these Regulations.
- (5) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to a prohibition or requirement in—
- (a) the 2017 Regulations,
- (b) the EU DPRK Regulation, or
- (c) Council Regulation (EC) No 329/2007 of 27 March 2007 ,
is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition or requirement in Part 4.
- (6) Paragraph (7) or (8) applies where—
- (a) an application for a licence or authorisation, or for the variation of a licence or authorisation, under the 2017 Regulations was made before the relevant date,
- (b) the application is for authorisation of conduct which would (on and after the relevant date) be prohibited by Part 4, and
- (c) a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before the relevant date.
- (7) If the application is for, or for the variation of, a licence or authorisation to authorise an act which would otherwise be prohibited, the application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence (as the case may be), under regulation 88(1).
- (8) If the application is for, or for the variation of, a licence to except a person from a requirement which would otherwise apply, the application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a direction, or for the variation of a direction (as the case may be), under regulation 89.
- (9) In this regulation—
Reading this document does not replace reading the official text published on legislation.gov.uk. Contains public sector information licensed under the Open Government Licence v3.0. We assume no responsibility for any inaccuracies arising from the conversion of the original CLML XML to this format.
This text is published under legislation.gov.uk's own terms of reuse, not a Legalize or public-domain licence.
legislation.gov.uk
Open Government Licence v3.0 (attribution required)
© Crown and database right. Derived from content available under the Open Government Licence v3.0 from legislation.gov.uk.