The Central African Republic (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2020
Made: 18th June 2020
Laid before Parliament: 22nd June 2020
Coming into force in accordance with regulation 1(2)
The Secretary of State , in exercise of the powers conferred by sections 1(1)(a) and (c), and (3), 3(1)(a), (b)(ii), (d)(i) and (ii), 4, 5, 9(2), 10(2)(a) and (c), (3) and (4), 11, 13, 15(2)(a) and (b), (3), (4)(b), (5) and (6), 16, 17, 19, 20, 21(1), 54(1) and (2), 56(1) and 62(4) to (6) of, and paragraphs 2(b), 4(b), 5(a)(ii) and (b), 6(a)(ii) and (b), 10(b), 11(a)(ii), 13(b), (h), (k) to (n) and (w), 14(a), (f) and (k), 17(a), 20, 21 and 27 of Schedule 1 to, the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 , and having decided, upon consideration of the matters set out in section 2(2) and 56(1) of that Act that it is appropriate to do so, makes the following Regulations:
PART 1 — General
Citation and commencement
1
- (1) These Regulations may be cited as the Central African Republic (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2020.
- (2) These Regulations come into force in accordance with regulations made by the Secretary of State under section 56 of the Act.
Interpretation
2
In these Regulations—
- “the Act” means the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018;
- “arrangement” includes any agreement, understanding, scheme, transaction or series of transactions, whether or not legally enforceable (but see paragraph 12 of Schedule 1 for the meaning of that term in that Schedule);
- “CEMA” means the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 ;
- “the Commissioners” means the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs;
- “the Committee” means the Committee of the Security Council established in accordance with paragraph 57 of resolution 2127;
- “conduct” includes acts and omissions;
- “director disqualification licence” means a licence under regulation 33A;
- “document” includes information recorded in any form and, in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include producing a copy of the information in legible form;
- “humanitarian assistance activity” includes the work of international and non-governmental organisations carrying out relief activities in the Central African Republic for the benefit of the civilian population there;
- “the EU Central African Republic Regulation” means Council Regulation (EU) No 224/2014 of 10 March 2014 concerning restrictive measures in view of the situation in the Central African Republic , as it has effect in EU law;
- “resolution 2127” means resolution 2127 (2013) adopted by the Security Council on 5 December 2013;
- “resolution 2134” means resolution 2134 (2014) adopted by the Security Council on 28 January 2014;
- “resolution 2196” means resolution 2196 (2015) adopted by the Security Council on 22 January 2015;
- “resolution 2262” means resolution 2262 (2016) adopted by the Security Council on 27 January 2016;
- “resolution 2339” means resolution 2339 (2017) adopted by the Security Council on 27 January 2017;
- “resolution 2399” means resolution 2399 (2018) adopted by the Security Council on 30 January 2018;
- “resolution 2454” means resolution 2454 (2019) adopted by the Security Council on 31 January 2019;
- “resolution 2488” means resolution 2488 (2019) adopted by the Security Council on 12 September 2019;
- “resolution 2507” means resolution 2507 (2020) adopted by the Security Council on 31 January 2020;
- “resolution 2536” means resolution 2536 (2020) adopted by the Security Council on 28 July 2020;
- “resolution 2588” means resolution 2588 (2021) adopted by the Security Council on 29 July 2021;
- “resolution 2648” means resolution 2648 (2022) adopted by the Security Council on 29 July 2022;
- “resolution 2693” means resolution 2693 (2023) adopted by the Security Council on 27 July 2023;
- “resolution 2745” means resolution 2745 (2024) adopted by the Security Council on 30 July 2024;
- “resolution 2789” means resolution 2789 (2025) adopted by the Security Council on 29 July 2025;
- “serious human rights violation or abuse” means a serious violation or abuse of any of the human rights specified in regulation 4(2)(f);
- “trade licence” means a licence under regulation 34;
- “Treasury licence” means a licence under regulation 33(1);
- “United Kingdom person” has the same meaning as in section 21 of the Act.
Application of prohibitions and requirements outside the United Kingdom
3
- (1) A United Kingdom person may contravene a relevant prohibition by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
- (2) Any person may contravene a relevant prohibition by conduct in the territorial sea.
- (3) In this regulation a “relevant prohibition” means any prohibition imposed by—
- (a) regulation 9(2) (confidential information),
- (b) Part 3 (Finance),
- (c) Part 5 (Trade), or
- (d) a condition of a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
- (4) A United Kingdom person may comply, or fail to comply, with a relevant requirement by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
- (5) Any person may comply, or fail to comply, with a relevant requirement by conduct in the territorial sea.
- (6) In this regulation, a “relevant requirement” means any requirement imposed—
- (a) by or under Part 7 (Information and records), or by reason of a request made under a power conferred by that Part, or
- (b) by a condition of a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
- (7) Nothing in this regulation is to be taken to prevent a relevant prohibition or a relevant requirement from applying to conduct (by any person) in the United Kingdom.
Purposes
4
- (1) The regulations contained in this instrument that are made under section 1 of the Act have the following purposes—
- (a) compliance with the relevant UN obligations, and
- (b) the additional purposes mentioned in paragraph (2).
- (2) Those additional purposes are—
- (a) promoting the peace, stability and security of the Central African Republic,
- (b) encouraging the resolution of the armed conflicts and encouraging the stabilisation and reconciliation process including compliance with, and implementation of the Political Agreement for Peace and Reconciliation in the Central African Republic ,
- (c) promoting the effective delivery of the mandates of the regional or international monitoring and peace-support missions and mechanisms in the Central African Republic, including—
- (i) the United Nations Multidimensional Integrated Stabilization Mission in the Central African Republic (MINUSCA) ,
- (ii) the European Union Training Mission ,
- (iii) the European Union Advisory Mission ,
- (d) promoting respect for humanitarian assistance activity in the Central African Republic,
- (e) promoting compliance with the rules of international humanitarian law applicable to the armed conflicts in the Central African Republic, and
- (f) promoting respect for human rights in the Central African Republic, including, in particular, respect for—
- (i) the right to life of persons in the Central African Republic;
- (ii) the rights of persons in the Central African Republic not to be held in slavery or required to perform forced or compulsory labour;
- (iii) the right of persons not to be subjected to torture or cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment in the Central African Republic;
- (iv) the right to liberty and security of persons in the Central African Republic, including freedom from arbitrary arrest, detention or enforced disappearance;
- (v) the right to a fair trial of persons charged with criminal offences in the Central African Republic;
- (vi) the rights of journalists, human right defenders, civil society activists and other persons in the Central African Republic to freedom of expression and peaceful assembly;
- (vii) the enjoyment of rights and freedoms in the Central African Republic without discrimination, including on the basis of a person's sex, race, colour, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, association with a national minority, property, birth or other status,
otherwise than by compliance with the relevant UN obligations.
- (3) In this regulation, “the relevant UN obligations” means—
- (a) the obligations that the United Kingdom has by virtue of paragraph 32 of resolution 2134 (asset-freeze etc.) to take the measures required by that provision in respect of persons for the time being named for the purposes of that provision by the Security Council or the Committee;
- (b) the obligations that the United Kingdom has by virtue of paragraph 32 of resolution 2134 (asset-freeze etc.) in respect of persons—
- (i) acting on behalf of or at the direction of, or
- (ii) owned or controlled by,
the persons for the time being named by the Security Council or the Committee for the purposes of paragraph 32 of resolution 2134;
- (c) the obligations that the United Kingdom has by virtue of paragraph 2 of resolution 2745 (arms embargo) .
- (4) Any reference to the obligations that the United Kingdom has by virtue of paragraph 32 of resolution 2134 (asset-freeze etc.) is to that provision read with—
- (a) paragraphs 36 and 37 of resolution 2134;
- (b) paragraphs 11 and 12 of resolution 2196;
- (c) paragraphs 12 and 13 of resolution 2262;
- (d) paragraphs 16 and 17 of resolution 2339;
- (e) paragraphs 20 and 21 of resolution 2399;
- (f) paragraph 2 of resolution 2454; ...
- (g) paragraph 5 of resolution 2507;
- (h) paragraph 5 of resolution 2536;
- (i) paragraph 5 of resolution 2588;
- (j) paragraph 5 of resolution 2648;
- (k) paragraph 5 of resolution 2693;
- (l) paragraph 5 of resolution 2745; and
- (m) paragraph 1 of resolution 2789.
- (5) Any reference to the obligations that the United Kingdom has by virtue of paragraph 2 of resolution 2745 (arms embargo) is to that provision read with paragraph 1 of resolution 2789.
PART 2 — Designation of persons
Power to designate persons
5
- (1) The Secretary of State may designate persons by name in accordance with regulation 5A (conditions for the designation of persons by name) for the purposes of any of the following—
- (a) regulations 12 to 16 (asset-freeze etc.); and
- (aa) regulation 17A (director disqualification sanctions);
- (b) regulation 18 (immigration).
- (2) The Secretary of State may designate different persons for the purpose of different provisions mentioned in paragraph (1).
Criteria for designating a person
6
- (1) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (2) For the purposes of regulation 5A (conditions for the designation of persons by name) an “involved person” means a person who—
- (a) is or has been involved in a relevant activity,
- (b) is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by a person who is or has been so involved,
- (c) is acting on behalf of or at the direction of a person who is or has been so involved, or
- (d) is a member of, or associated with, a person who is or has been so involved.
- (3) In this regulation a “relevant activity” means—
- (a) the commission of a serious human rights violation or abuse, or a violation of international humanitarian law, in the Central African Republic including, in particular, in relation to—
- (i) rape and other forms of sexual and gender-based violence;
- (ii) violence against persons on the basis of their ethnicity or religious beliefs;
- (iii) recruitment or use of children in armed conflict;
- (iv) deliberate targeting of civilians, schools and hospitals;
- (v) enforced or involuntary disappearances;
- (vi) the forced displacement of civilians;
- (vii) any of the rights referred to in regulation 4(2)(f);
- (b) an attack against, or obstruction of the activities of—
- (i) diplomatic personnel,
- (ii) regional or international monitoring and peace-support missions and mechanisms, including those mentioned in paragraphs (i) to (iii) of regulation 4(2)(c) and French armed forces supporting MINUSCA under paragraph 65 of resolution 2387 (2017) , or
- (iii) personnel undertaking humanitarian assistance activity,
in the Central African Republic;
- (c) obstruction of the delivery or distribution of, or access to, humanitarian assistance in the Central African Republic;
- (d) the provision of support for armed groups or criminal networks in the Central African Republic, including through the illicit exploitation of any natural resources, wildlife or wildlife products;
- (e) any other action, policy or activity which undermines or threatens the peace, stability and security of the Central African Republic, including acts that—
- (i) undermine efforts to resolve the armed conflicts,
- (ii) threaten or impede the stabilisation and reconciliation process,
- (iii) obstruct or undermine respect for democracy, the rule of law and good governance, or
- (iv) incite violence,
in the Central African Republic.
- (4) Any reference in this regulation to being involved in a relevant activity includes being so involved in whatever way, and wherever, any actions constituting the involvement take place, and in particular includes—
- (a) being responsible for, engaging in, providing support for, or promoting, any such activity;
- (b) providing financial services, or making available funds or economic resources, that could contribute to any such activity;
- (c) being involved in the supply to the Central African Republic of military goods or military technology or of material related to such goods or technology, or in providing financial services relating to such supply;
- (d) being involved in the supply to the Central African Republic of goods or technology which could contribute to any such activity, or in providing financial services relating to such supply;
- (e) being involved in assisting the contravention or circumvention of any relevant provision.
- (5) In this regulation “relevant provision” means—
- (a) any provision of Part 3 (Finance) or Part 5 (Trade);
- (b) any provision of the law of a country other than the United Kingdom made for purposes corresponding to a purpose of any provision of Part 3 or Part 5;
- (c) any provision of resolutions 2127, 2134, 2196, 2262, 2339, 2399, 2454, 2488 , 2507, 2536, 2588, 2648, 2693, 2745 and 2789.
- (6) Nothing in any sub-paragraph of paragraph (3) or (4) is to be taken to limit the meaning of any of the other sub-paragraphs of those paragraphs.
- (7) In this regulation, “military goods” and “military technology” have the meanings given by Part 5.
Meaning of “owned or controlled directly or indirectly”
7
- (1) A person who is not an individual (“C”) is “owned or controlled directly or indirectly” by another person (“P”) if either of the following two conditions is met (or both are met).
- (2) The first condition is that P—
- (a) holds directly or indirectly more than 50% of the shares in C,
- (b) holds directly or indirectly more than 50% of the voting rights in C, or
- (c) holds the right directly or indirectly to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of C.
- (3) Schedule 1 contains provision applying for the purpose of interpreting paragraph (2).
- (4) The second condition is that it is reasonable, having regard to all the circumstances, to expect that P would (if P chose to) be able, in most cases or in significant respects, by whatever means and whether directly or indirectly, to achieve the result that affairs of C are conducted in accordance with P's wishes.
Notification and publicity where designation power used
8
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies where the Secretary of State—
- (a) has made a designation under regulation 5, or
- (b) has by virtue of section 22 of the Act varied or revoked a designation made under that regulation.
- (2) The Secretary of State—
- (a) must without delay take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the designated person of the designation, variation or revocation, and
- (b) must take steps to publicise the designation, variation or revocation.
- (3) The information given under paragraph (2)(a)—
- (a) where the Secretary of State designates a person under the standard procedure, must include a statement of reasons;
- (b) where the Secretary of State designates a person under the urgent procedure, must include a statement—
- (i) that the designation is made under the urgent procedure,
- (ii) identifying the relevant provision by reference to which the Secretary of State considers that condition B is met in relation to the person, and
- (iii) setting out why the Secretary of State considers that condition C is met.
- (3A) Where the Secretary of State designates a person under the urgent procedure, the Secretary of State must, after the end of the period mentioned in paragraph (7) of regulation 5A (conditions for the designation of persons by name) or, if the Secretary of State has made a certification under paragraph (7)(b) of that regulation, the period mentioned in paragraph (8) of that regulation, but otherwise without delay—
- (a) in a case where the person ceases to be a designated person, take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the person that they have ceased to be a designated person, or
- (b) in any other case, take such steps as are reasonably practicable to give the person a statement of reasons.
- (4) In this regulation, a “statement of reasons” means a brief statement of the matters that the Secretary of State knows, or has reasonable grounds to suspect, in relation to the person—
- (a) in the case of a designation under the standard procedure, which have led the Secretary of State to make the designation, and
- (b) in the case of a designation under the urgent procedure, as a result of which the person does not cease to be a designated person at the end of the period mentioned in regulation 5A(7) or (8) (as the case may be).
- (5) Matters that would otherwise be required by paragraph (4) to be included in a statement of reasons may be excluded from it where the Secretary of State considers that they should be excluded—
- (a) in the interests of national security or international relations,
- (b) for reasons connected with the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or
- (c) in the interests of justice.
- (6) The steps taken under paragraph (2)(b) must—
- (a) unless one or more of the restricted publicity conditions is met, be steps to publicise generally—
- (i) the designation, variation or revocation, and
- (ii) in the case of a designation, the statement of reasons;
- (b) if one or more of those conditions is met, be steps to inform only such persons as the Secretary of State considers appropriate of the designation, variation or revocation and (in the case of a designation) of the contents of the statement of reasons.
- (7) The “restricted publicity conditions” are as follows—
- (a) the designation is of a person believed by the Secretary of State to be an individual under the age of 18;
- (b) the Secretary of State considers that disclosure of the designation, variation or revocation should be restricted—
- (i) in the interests of national security or international relations,
- (ii) for reasons connected with the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or
- (iii) in the interests of justice.
- (8) Paragraph (9) applies if—
- (a) when a designation is made, one or more of the restricted publicity conditions is met, but
- (b) at any time when the designation has effect, it becomes the case that none of the restricted publicity conditions is met.
- (9) The Secretary of State must—
- (a) take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the designated person that none of the restricted publicity conditions is now met, and
- (b) take steps to publicise generally the designation and the statement of reasons relating to it.
Confidential information in certain cases where designation power used
9
- (1) Where the Secretary of State in accordance with regulation 8(6)(b) informs only certain persons of a designation, variation or revocation and (in the case of a designation) of the contents of the statement of reasons, the Secretary of State may specify that any of that information is to be treated as confidential.
- (2) A person (“P”) who—
- (a) is provided with information that is to be treated as confidential in accordance with paragraph (1) or
- (b) otherwise obtains such information,
must not, subject to paragraph (3), disclose it if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that the information is to be treated as confidential.
- (3) The prohibition in paragraph (2) does not apply to any disclosure made by P with lawful authority.
- (4) For this purpose information is disclosed with lawful authority only if and to the extent that—
- (a) the disclosure is by, or is authorised by, the Secretary of State,
- (b) the disclosure is by or with the consent of the person who is or was the subject of the designation,
- (c) the disclosure is necessary to give effect to a requirement imposed under or by virtue of these Regulations or any other enactment, or
- (d) the disclosure is required, under rules of court, tribunal rules or a court or tribunal order, for the purposes of legal proceedings of any description.
- (5) This regulation does not prevent the disclosure of information that is already, or has previously been, available to the public from other sources.
- (6) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (2) commits an offence.
- (7) The High Court (in Scotland, the Court of Session) may, on the application of—
- (a) the person who is the subject of the information, or
- (b) the Secretary of State,
grant an injunction (in Scotland, an interdict) to prevent a breach of the prohibition in paragraph (2).
- (8) In paragraph (4)(c), “enactment” has the meaning given by section 54(6) of the Act.
Designation of persons named by or under UN Security Council Resolutions
10
- (1) Each person for the time being named for the purposes of paragraph 32 of resolution 2134 by the Security Council or the Committee is a designated person for the purposes of regulations 12 to 16 (asset-freeze etc.) (whose purposes include compliance with the UN obligations mentioned in regulation 4(3)(a) ).
- (2) Nothing in this regulation affects the power under regulation 5 to designate persons (in addition to those designated by this regulation) for the purposes of regulations 12 to 16.
PART 3 — Finance
Meaning of “designated person” in Part 3
11
In this Part a “designated person” means—
- (a) a person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of regulations 12 to 16 (asset-freeze etc.), or
- (b) a person who is a designated person for the purposes of those regulations by reason of regulation 10.
Asset-freeze in relation to designated persons
12
- (1) A person (“P”) must not deal with funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is dealing with such funds or economic resources.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
- (4) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a person “deals with” funds if the person—
- (a) uses, alters, moves, transfers or allows access to the funds,
- (b) deals with the funds in any other way that would result in any change in volume, amount, location, ownership, possession, character or destination, or
- (c) makes any other change, including portfolio management, that would enable use of the funds.
- (5) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a person “deals with” economic resources if the person—
- (a) exchanges the economic resources for funds, goods or services, or
- (b) uses the economic resources in exchange for funds, goods or services (whether by pledging them as security or otherwise).
- (6) The reference in paragraph (1) to funds or economic resources that are “owned, held or controlled” by a person includes, in particular, a reference to—
- (a) funds or economic resources in which the person has any legal or equitable interest, regardless of whether the interest is held jointly with any other person and regardless of whether any other person holds an interest in the funds or economic resources;
- (b) any tangible property (other than real property), or bearer security, that is comprised in funds or economic resources and is in the possession of the person.
- (7) For the purposes of paragraph (1), funds or economic resources are to be treated as owned, held or controlled by a designated person if they are owned, held or controlled by a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
- (8) For the avoidance of doubt, the reference in paragraph (1) to a designated person includes P if P is a designated person.
Making funds available to designated persons
13
- (1) A person (“P”) must not make funds available directly or indirectly to a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the funds so available.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
- (4) The reference in paragraph (1) to making funds available indirectly to a designated person includes, in particular, a reference to making them available to a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
Making funds available for benefit of designated persons
14
- (1) A person (“P”) must not make funds available to any person for the benefit of a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the funds so available.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
- (3A) The reference in paragraph (1) to making funds available to any person for the benefit of a designated person includes making funds available for the benefit of a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (and references to designated person in paragraph (4) are to be read accordingly).
- (4) For the purposes of this regulation—
- (a) funds are made available for the benefit of a designated person only if that person thereby obtains, or is able to obtain, a significant financial benefit, and
- (b) “financial benefit” includes the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
Making economic resources available to designated persons
15
- (1) A person (“P”) must not make economic resources available directly or indirectly to a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect—
- (a) that P is making the economic resources so available, and
- (b) that the designated person would be likely to exchange the economic resources for, or use them in exchange for, funds, goods or services.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
- (4) The reference in paragraph (1) to making economic resources available indirectly to a designated person includes, in particular, a reference to making them available to a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
Making economic resources available for benefit of designated persons
16
- (1) A person (“P”) must not make economic resources available to any person for the benefit of a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the economic resources so available.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
- (3A) The reference in paragraph (1) to making economic resources available to any person for the benefit of a designated person includes making economic resources available for the benefit of a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (and references to designated person in paragraph (4) are to be read accordingly).
- (4) For the purposes of paragraph (1)—
- (a) economic resources are made available for the benefit of a designated person only if that person thereby obtains, or is able to obtain, a significant financial benefit, and
- (b) “financial benefit” includes the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
Circumventing etc. prohibitions
17
- (1) A person must not intentionally participate in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is, whether directly or indirectly—
- (a) to circumvent any of the prohibitions in regulations 12 to 16 (asset-freeze etc.), or
- (b) to enable or facilitate the contravention of any such prohibition.
- (2) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
PART 4 — Immigration
Immigration
18
A person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of this regulation is an excluded person for the purposes of section 8B of the Immigration Act 1971 .
PART 5 — Trade
CHAPTER 1 — Interpretation
Definition of “military goods” and “military technology”
19
In this Part—
- “military goods” means—any thing for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to the Export Control Order 2008 , other than any thing which is military technology, andany tangible storage medium on which military technology is recorded or from which it can be derived;
- “military technology” means any thing for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to the Export Control Order 2008 which is described as software or technology.
Interpretation of other expressions used in this Part
20
- (1) Paragraphs 32 and 36 of Schedule 1 to the Act (trade sanctions) apply for the purpose of interpreting expressions in this Part.
- (2) In this Part, any reference to the United Kingdom includes a reference to the territorial sea.
- (3) In this Part—
- “brokering service” means any service to secure, or otherwise in relation to, an arrangement, including (but not limited to)—the selection or introduction of persons as parties or potential parties to the arrangement,the negotiation of the arrangement,the facilitation of anything that enables the arrangement to be entered into, andthe provision of any assistance that in any way promotes or facilitates the arrangement;
- “technical assistance”, in relation to goods or technology, means—technical support relating to the repair, development, production, assembly, testing, use or maintenance of the goods or technology, orany other technical service relating to the goods or technology;
- “transfer” has the meaning given by paragraph 37 of Schedule 1 to the Act.
- (4) For the purposes of this Part, a group is to be regarded as an “armed group operating in the Central African Republic” if the group is—
- (a) party to an armed conflict in the Central African Republic, and
- (b) not acting on the instructions of, or under the direction or control of, the Government of the Central African Republic.
- (5) For the purposes of this Part, an “associated individual” includes an individual who—
- (a) is a member of an armed group operating in the Central African Republic; or
- (b) takes part in any activities that the individual knows or reasonably suspects are activities of the armed group or will help the armed group carry out its activities.
CHAPTER 2 — Military goods and military technology
Export of military goods
21
- (1) The export of military goods to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual is prohibited.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
Supply and delivery of military goods
22
- (1) A person must not directly or indirectly supply or deliver military goods from a third country to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the goods were destined (or ultimately destined) for an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual.
- (4) In this regulation, “third country” means a country that is not the United Kingdom, the Isle of Man or the Central African Republic.
Making military goods and military technology available
23
- (1) A person must not directly or indirectly make military goods or military technology available to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person (“P”) who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for P to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the armed group was operating in the Central African Republic or that the individual was an associated individual.
Transfer of military technology
24
- (1) A person must not transfer military technology to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person (“P”) who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for P to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the transfer was to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, or that the individual was an associated individual.
Technical assistance relating to military goods and military technology
25
- (1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual.
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person (“P”) who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for P to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the armed group was operating in the Central African Republic or that the individual was an associated individual.
Financial services and funds relating to military goods and military technology
26
- (1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide, to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, financial services in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement whose object or effect is—
- (a) the export of military goods,
- (b) the direct or indirect supply or delivery of military goods,
- (c) directly or indirectly making military goods or military technology available to a person,
- (d) the transfer of military technology, or
- (e) the direct or indirect provision of technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology.
- (2) A person must not directly or indirectly make funds available to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement mentioned in paragraph (1).
- (3) A person must not directly or indirectly provide financial services or funds in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement whose object or effect is—
- (a) the export of military goods to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (b) the direct or indirect supply or delivery of military goods to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (c) directly or indirectly making military goods or military technology available to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (d) the transfer of military technology to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, or
- (e) the direct or indirect provision of technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual.
- (4) Paragraphs (1) to (3) are subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (5) A person who contravenes a prohibition in any of paragraphs (1) to (3) commits an offence, but—
- (a) it is a defence for a person charged with an offence of contravening paragraph (1) or (2) (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the armed group was operating in the Central African Republic or that the individual was an associated individual.
- (b) it is a defence for a person charged with an offence of contravening a prohibition in paragraph (3) to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the financial services or funds (as the case may be) were provided in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement mentioned in that paragraph.
Brokering services: non-UK activity relating to military goods and military technology
27
- (1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide brokering services in relation to an arrangement (“arrangement A”) whose object or effect is—
- (a) the direct or indirect supply or delivery of military goods from a third country to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (b) directly or indirectly making military goods available in a third country for direct or indirect supply or delivery to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (c) directly or indirectly making military technology available in a third country for transfer to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (d) the transfer of military technology from a place in a third country to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (e) the direct or indirect provision, in a non-UK country, of technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual,
- (f) the direct or indirect provision, in a non-UK country, of financial services—
- (i) to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 26(1), or
- (ii) where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 26(3),
- (g) directly or indirectly making funds available, in a non-UK country, to an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 26(1), or
- (h) the direct or indirect provision of funds from a non-UK country, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 26(3).
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the brokering services were provided in relation to an arrangement mentioned in that paragraph.
- (4) In this regulation—
- “non-UK country” means a country that is not the United Kingdom;
- “third country” means—for the purposes of paragraph (1)(a) and (b), a country that is not the United Kingdom, the Isle of Man or the Central African Republic, andfor the purposes of any other provision of paragraph (1), a country that is not the United Kingdom or the Central African Republic.
CHAPTER 3 — Enabling or facilitating the conduct of armed hostilities
Enabling or facilitating the conduct of armed hostilities
28
- (1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide anything falling within paragraph (1A) to or for the benefit of an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, or to any person acting on behalf or under the direction of such an armed group or associated individual, where such provision—
- (a) relates to the operations of the recipient in the Central African Republic, or
- (b) otherwise enables or facilitates the conduct of armed hostilities in the Central African Republic.
- (1A) The following fall within this paragraph—
- (a) technical assistance,
- (b) armed personnel,
- (c) financial services or funds, or
- (d) brokering services provided in relation to an arrangement whose object or effect is to provide, in a non-UK country, anything mentioned in sub-paragraphs (a) to (c).
- (2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
- (3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that—
- (a) the provision as mentioned in paragraph (1)—
- (i) was to or for the benefit of an armed group operating in the Central African Republic or an associated individual, or to any person acting on behalf or under the direction of such a group or individual;
- (ii) related to the operations of the recipient in the Central African Republic or would otherwise enable or facilitate the conduct of armed hostilities in the Central African Republic; or
- (b) the individual to whom the provision as mentioned in paragraph (1) was made was an associated individual.
- (4) In this regulation—
- “non-UK country” means a country that is not the United Kingdom;
- “technical assistance” means the provision of technical support or any other technical service.
- (5) Nothing in this regulation is to be taken to limit the meaning of any of the prohibitions contained in Chapter 2.
CHAPTER 4 — Further provision
Circumventing etc. prohibitions
29
- (1) A person must not intentionally participate in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is, whether directly or indirectly—
- (a) to circumvent any of the prohibitions in Chapter 2 or 3 of this Part, or
- (b) to enable or facilitate the contravention of any such prohibition.
- (2) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
Defences
30
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies where a person relies on a defence under Chapter 2 or 3 of this Part.
- (2) If evidence is adduced which is sufficient to raise an issue with respect to the defence, the court must assume that the defence is satisfied unless the prosecution proves beyond reasonable doubt that it is not.
PART 6 — Exceptions and licences
Finance: exceptions from prohibitions
31
- (1) The prohibition in regulation 12 (asset-freeze in relation to designated persons) is not contravened by an independent person (“P”) transferring to another person a legal or equitable interest in funds or economic resources where, immediately before the transfer, the interest—
- (a) is held by P, and
- (b) is not held jointly with the designated person.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “independent person” means a person who—
- (a) is not the designated person, and
- (b) is not owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
- (3) The prohibitions in regulations 12 to 14 (asset-freeze in relation to, and making funds available to, or for the benefit of, designated persons) are not contravened by a relevant institution crediting a frozen account with interest or other earnings due on the account.
- (4) The prohibitions in regulations 13 and 14 (making funds available to, or for the benefit of, designated persons) are not contravened by a relevant institution crediting a frozen account where it receives funds transferred to that institution for crediting to that account.
- (5) The prohibitions in regulations 13 and 14 are not contravened by the transfer of funds to a relevant institution for crediting to an account held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by a designated person, where those funds are transferred in discharge (or partial discharge) of an obligation which arose before the date on which the person became a designated person.
- (6) The prohibitions in regulations 12 to 14 are not contravened in relation to a designated person (“P”) by a transfer of funds from account A to account B, where—
- (a) account A is with a relevant institution which carries on an excluded activity within the meaning of section 142D of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 ,
- (b) account B is with a ring-fenced body within the meaning of section 142A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 , and
- (c) accounts A and B are held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by P.
- (7) In this regulation—
- “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
- “frozen account” means an account with a relevant institution which is held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by a designated person;
- “relevant institution” means a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (permission to carry on regulated activity).
- (8) The definition of “relevant institution” in paragraph (7) is to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 , any relevant order under that section and Schedule 2 to that Act .
- (9) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(b), (5) and (6) and the definition of “frozen account” in paragraph (7), references to a designated person are to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
- (10) When determining for the purposes of paragraph (5) when a person (“C”) who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (“D”) became a designated person, C is to be treated as having become a designated person at the same time as D.
Exception for acts done for purposes of national security or prevention of serious crime
32
- (1) Where an act would, in the absence of this paragraph, be prohibited by regulation 9(2) (confidentiality) or any prohibition in Part 3 (Finance) or 5 (Trade), that prohibition does not apply to the act if the act is one which a responsible officer has determined would be in the interests of—
- (a) national security, or
- (b) the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
- (2) Where, in the absence of this paragraph, a thing would be required to be done under or by virtue of a provision of Part 7 (Information and records) or Part 9 (Maritime enforcement), that requirement does not apply if a responsible officer has determined that not doing the thing in question would be in the interests of—
- (a) national security, or
- (b) the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
- (3) In this regulation “responsible officer” means a person in the service of the Crown or holding office under the Crown, acting in the course of that person's duty.
- (4) Nothing in this regulation affects the application of a prohibition or requirement in a case where it would be incompatible with a UN obligation for the prohibition or requirement not to apply.
Treasury licences
33
- (1) The prohibitions in regulations 12 to 16 (asset-freeze etc.) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Treasury under this paragraph.
- (2) The Treasury may issue a licence which authorises acts by a particular person in relation to a non-UN designated person only where the Treasury consider that it is appropriate to issue the licence for a purpose set out in Part 2 or 3 of Schedule 2.
- (3) The Treasury may issue a licence which authorises acts in relation to a UN designated person only where the Treasury consider that it is appropriate to issue the licence for a purpose set out in Part 2 or 2A of Schedule 2.
- (4) In this regulation “UN designated person” means—
- (a) a person who is a designated person for the purposes of regulations 12 to 16 by reason of regulation 10 (designation of persons named by or under UN Security Council resolutions), or
- (b) a person who is designated under regulation 5 (power to designate persons) for the purposes of regulations 12 to 16 and whose designation is (in the opinion of the Secretary of State) required by a provision mentioned in regulation 4(3).
- (5) The reference in paragraph (2) to a non-UN designated person is to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the non-UN designated person.
- (6) The reference in paragraph (3) to a UN designated person is to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the UN designated person.
Trade licences
34
The prohibitions in Chapters 2 and 3 of Part 5 (Trade) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Secretary of State under this regulation.
Licences: general provisions
35
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to Treasury licences , director disqualification licences and trade licences.
- (2) A licence must specify the acts authorised by it.
- (3) A licence may be general or may authorise acts by a particular person or persons of a particular description.
- (4) A licence may —
- (a) contain conditions;
- (b) be of indefinite duration or a defined duration.
- (5) A person who issues a licence may vary, revoke or suspend it at any time.
- (6) A person who , on the application of a person (“P”), issues a licence which authorises acts by a particular person , or varies, revokes or suspends that licence, must give written notice to P of the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
- (7) A person who issues, varies, revokes or suspends a general licence or a licence which authorises acts by persons of a particular description must take such steps as that person considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
Finance: licensing offences
36
- (1) A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
- (a) provides information that is false in a material respect, or
- (b) provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a Treasury licence (whether for P or anyone else).
- (2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a Treasury licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
Trade: licensing offences
37
- (1) A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
- (a) provides information that is false in a material respect, or
- (b) provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a trade licence (whether for P or anyone else).
- (2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a trade licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
- (3) A licence in respect of which an offence under paragraph (1) has been committed is to be treated as void from the time at which it was issued.
Section 8B(1) to (3) of the Immigration Act 1971: directions
38
- (1) The Secretary of State may direct that, in relation to any person within regulation 18 whose name is specified, or who is of a specified description, section 8B(1) and (2) of the Immigration Act 1971, or section 8B(3) of that Act, have effect subject to specified exceptions.
- (2) A direction under this regulation—
- (a) may contain conditions;
- (b) must be of a defined duration (and that duration may be expressed in any way, including, for example, being expressed in a way such that the direction ceases to have effect on, or within a specified period after, the occurrence of a specified event).
- (3) The Secretary of State may vary, revoke or suspend a direction under this regulation at any time.
- (4) On the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of a direction under this regulation, the Secretary of State may take such steps as the Secretary of State considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the direction.
- (5) In this regulation “specified” means specified in a direction under this regulation.
PART 7 — Information and records
Finance: reporting obligations
39
- (1) A relevant firm must inform the Treasury as soon as practicable if—
- (a) it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person—
- (i) is a designated person, or
- (ii) has breached a prohibition or failed to comply with an obligation under any provision of Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 36 (finance: licensing offences), and
- (b) the information or other matter on which the knowledge or cause for suspicion is based came to it in the course of carrying on its business.
- (2) Where a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1), it must state—
- (a) the information or other matter on which the knowledge or suspicion is based, and
- (b) any information it holds about the person by which the person can be identified.
- (3) Paragraph (4) applies if—
- (a) a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1) that it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person is a designated person, and
- (b) that person is a customer of the relevant firm.
- (4) The relevant firm must also state the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources held by it for the customer at the time when it first had the knowledge or suspicion.
- (4A) Where a person (“P”) knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P holds funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person, P must by no later than 30th November in each calendar year provide a report to the Treasury as to the nature and amount or quantity of those funds or economic resources held by P as of 30th September in that calendar year.
- (4B) Where a report has been provided further to paragraph (4A) but as of 30th September in the following calendar year P no longer holds funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by the designated person, P must by no later than 30th November in that calendar year report this to the Treasury.
- (4C) For the purposes of paragraphs (4A) and (4B), funds or economic resources are to be treated as owned, held or controlled by a designated person if they are owned, held or controlled by a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
- (5) A relevant institution must inform the Treasury without delay if that institution—
- (a) credits a frozen account in accordance with regulation 31(4) (finance: exceptions from prohibitions), or
- (b) transfers funds from a frozen account in accordance with regulation 31(6).
- (6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (1), (2) or (4) commits an offence.
- (6A) A person commits an offence if that person, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (4A) or (4B).
- (7) In this regulation—
- “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3;
- “frozen account” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 31;
- “relevant firm” is to be read in accordance with regulation 40;
- “relevant institution” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 31.
“Relevant firm”
40
- (1) The following are relevant firms for the purposes of regulation 39 (finance: reporting obligations)—
- (a) a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (permission to carry on regulated activities);
- (b) an undertaking that by way of business—
- (i) operates a currency exchange office,
- (ii) transmits money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means, or
- (iii) cashes cheques that are made payable to customers;
- (c) a firm or sole practitioner that is—
- (i) a statutory auditor within the meaning of Part 42 of the Companies Act 2006 (Statutory auditors) , or
- (ii) a local auditor within the meaning of section 4(1) of the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (general requirements for audit) ;
- (d) a firm or sole practitioner that provides to other persons, by way of business—
- (i) accountancy services,
- (ii) legal or notarial services,
- (iii) advice about tax affairs, or
- (iv) trust or company services within the meaning of paragraph (2);
- (e) a firm or sole practitioner that carries out, or whose employees carry out, estate agency work;
- (f) the holder of a casino operating licence within the meaning given by section 65(2)(a) of the Gambling Act 2005 (nature of a licence) ;
- (g) a person engaged in the business of making, supplying, selling (including selling by auction) or exchanging—
- (i) articles made from gold, silver, platinum or palladium, or
- (ii) precious stones or pearls;
- (h) a cryptoasset exchange provider;
- (i) a custodian wallet provider;
- (j) a high value dealer;
- (k) an art market participant;
- (l) an insolvency practitioner;
- (m) a firm or sole practitioner (“P”) that carries out, or whose employees carry out, letting agency work.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “trust or company services” means any of the following services—
- (a) forming companies or other legal persons;
- (b) acting, or arranging for another person to act—
- (i) as a director or secretary of a company,
- (ii) as a partner of a partnership, or
- (iii) in a similar capacity in relation to other legal persons;
- (c) providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a company, partnership or any other legal person or arrangement;
- (d) acting, or arranging for another person to act, as—
- (i) a trustee of an express trust or similar legal arrangement, or
- (ii) a nominee shareholder for a person.
- (3) In paragraph (1)—
- “estate agency work” is to be read in accordance with section 1 of the Estate Agents Act 1979 , but as if references in that section to disposing of or acquiring an interest in land included (despite anything in section 2 of that Act) references to disposing of or acquiring an estate or interest in land outside the United Kingdom where that estate or interest is capable of being owned or held as a separate interest;
- “firm” means any entity that, whether or not a legal person, is not an individual, and includes a body corporate and a partnership or other unincorporated body.
- (3A) In paragraph (1), a “cryptoasset exchange provider” means a firm or sole practitioner that by way of business provides one or more of the following services, including where the firm or sole practitioner does so as creator or issuer of any of the cryptoassets involved—
- (a) exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets,
- (b) exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, one cryptoasset for another, or
- (c) operating a machine which utilises automated processes to exchange cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets.
- (3B) In paragraph (1), a “custodian wallet provider” means a firm or sole practitioner that by way of business provides services to safeguard, or to safeguard and administer—
- (a) cryptoassets on behalf of its customers, or
- (b) private cryptographic keys on behalf of its customers in order to hold, store and transfer cryptoassets.
- (3C) For the purposes of this regulation—
- (a) “cryptoasset” means a cryptographically secured digital representation of value or contractual rights that uses a form of distributed ledger technology and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically;
- (b) “money” means—
- (i) money in sterling,
- (ii) money in any other currency, or
- (iii) money in any other medium of exchange,
but does not include a cryptoasset; and
- (c) in sub-paragraphs (a) to (c) of paragraph (3A), “cryptoasset” includes a right to, or interest in, the cryptoasset.
- (3D) In paragraph (1), a “high value dealer” means a firm or sole trader that by way of business trades in goods (including an auctioneer dealing in goods), when the firm or sole trader makes or receives, in respect of any transaction, a payment or payments in cash of at least 10,000 euros in total, whether the transaction is executed in a single operation or in several operations which appear to be linked.
- (3E) In paragraph (1), an “art market participant” means, subject to paragraph (3F), a firm or sole practitioner that is registered or required to register with the Commissioners as an art market participant under regulation 56(5) and (6) of the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017.
- (3F) A firm or sole practitioner is not an art market participant for the purposes of paragraph (3E) in relation to the sale or storage of a work of art which is created by, or is attributable to, a member of the firm or the sole practitioner.
- (3G) For the purposes of this regulation, “work of art” means anything which, in accordance with section 21(6) to (6B) of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 (value of imported goods), is a work of art for the purposes of section 21(5)(a) of that Act.
- (3H) In paragraph (1), an “insolvency practitioner” means a firm or individual who acts as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986 or Article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989.
- (3I) In paragraph (1), “letting agency work” means work—
- (a) consisting of things done in response to instructions received from—
- (i) a person (a “prospective landlord”) seeking to find another person to whom to let land for a term of a month or more, or
- (ii) a person (a “prospective tenant”) seeking to find land to rent for a term of a month or more, and
- (b) done—
- (i) in relation to a prospective landlord, from the point that the prospective landlord instructs P, or
- (ii) otherwise in the course of concluding an agreement for the letting of land for a term of a month or more.
- (3J) For the purposes of paragraph (3I)—
- “land” includes part of a building and part of any other structure;
- “letting agency work” does not include the things listed in paragraph (3K) when done by, or by employees of, a firm or sole practitioner if neither the firm or sole practitioner, nor any of their employees, does anything else within paragraph (3I).
- (3K) Those things are—
- (a) publishing advertisements or disseminating information;
- (b) providing a means by which a prospective landlord or a prospective tenant can, in response to an advertisement or dissemination of information, make direct contact with a prospective tenant or a prospective landlord;
- (c) providing a means by which a prospective landlord and a prospective tenant can communicate directly with each other;
- (d) the provision of legal or notarial services by a barrister, advocate, solicitor or other legal representative communications with whom may be the subject of a claim to professional privilege or, in Scotland, protected from disclosure in legal proceedings on grounds of confidentiality of communications.
- (4) Subparagraphs (a) and (b) of paragraph (1) are to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, any relevant order under that section and Schedule 2 to that Act.
- (5) For the purposes of regulation 39(1), information or another matter comes to a relevant firm “in the course of carrying on its business” if the information or other matter comes to the firm—
- (a) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(a), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the permission mentioned in that provision is required;
- (b) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(i), in the course of carrying out statutory audit work within the meaning of section 1210 of the Companies Act 2006 (meaning of statutory auditor) ;
- (c) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(ii), in the course of carrying out an audit required by the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014;
- (d) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(f), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the licence mentioned in that provision is required;
- (da) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(k)—
- (i) in the course of trading, or acting as an intermediary in the sale or purchase of, works of art when the value of the transaction, or a series of linked transactions, amounts to 10,000 euros or more, or
- (ii) in the course of storing works of art where the value of the works of art so stored for a person amounts to 10,000 euros or more;
- (e) in the case of a relevant firm within any other provision of paragraph (1), in the course of carrying on an activity mentioned in that provision.
Finance: powers to request information
41
- (1) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide information about—
- (a) funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on behalf of the designated person, or
- (b) any disposal of such funds or economic resources.
- (2) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide such information as the Treasury may reasonably require about expenditure—
- (a) by the designated person, or
- (b) for the benefit of the designated person.
- (3) For the purposes of paragraph (2), expenditure for the benefit of a designated person includes expenditure on the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
- (4) The power in paragraph (1) or (2) is exercisable only where the Treasury believe that it is necessary for the purpose of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of any provision of Part 3 (Finance).
- (5) The Treasury may request a person acting under a Treasury licence to provide information about—
- (a) funds or economic resources dealt with under the licence, or
- (b) funds or economic resources made available under the licence.
- (6) The Treasury may request a person to provide information within paragraph (7) if the Treasury believe that the person may be able to provide the information.
- (7) Information within this paragraph is such information as the Treasury may reasonably require for the purpose of—
- (a) establishing for the purposes of any provision of Part 3—
- (i) the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on behalf of a designated person,
- (ii) the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources made available directly or indirectly to, or for the benefit of, a designated person, or
- (iii) the nature of any financial transactions entered into by a designated person;
- (b) monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of—
- (i) any provision of Part 3,
- (ii) regulation 39 (finance: reporting obligations), or
- (iii) any condition of a Treasury licence;
- (c) detecting or obtaining evidence of the commission of an offence under Part 3 or regulation 36 (finance: licensing offences) or 39.
- (8) The Treasury may specify the way in which, and the period within which, information is to be provided.
- (9) If no such period is specified, the information which has been requested must be provided within a reasonable time.
- (10) A request may include a continuing obligation to keep the Treasury informed as circumstances change, or on such regular basis as the Treasury may specify.
- (11) Information requested under this regulation may relate to any period of time during which a person is, or was, a designated person.
- (12) Information requested by virtue of paragraph (1)(b), (2) or (7)(a)(iii) may relate to any period before a person became a designated person (as well as, or instead of, any subsequent period).
- (13) Expressions used in this regulation have the same meaning as they have in Part 3.
Finance: production of documents
42
- (1) A request under regulation 41 (finance: powers to request information) may include a request to produce specified documents or documents of a specified description.
- (2) Where the Treasury request that documents be produced, the Treasury may—
- (a) take copies of or extracts from any document so produced,
- (b) request any person producing a document to give an explanation of it, and
- (c) where that person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated body other than a partnership, request any person who is—
- (i) in the case of a partnership, a present or past partner or employee of the partnership, or
- (ii) in any other case, a present or past officer or employee of the body concerned,
to give such an explanation.
- (3) Where the Treasury request a designated person or a person acting under a Treasury licence to produce documents, that person must—
- (a) take reasonable steps to obtain the documents (if they are not already in the person's possession or control);
- (b) keep the documents under the person's possession or control (except for the purpose of providing them to the Treasury or as the Treasury may otherwise permit).
- (4) In this regulation “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance).
Finance: information offences
43
- (1) A person commits an offence if that person—
- (a) without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails within the time and in the manner specified (or, if no time has been specified, within a reasonable time) to comply with any request under regulation 41 (finance: powers to request information);
- (b) knowingly or recklessly gives any information, or produces any document, which is false in a material particular in response to such a request;
- (c) with intent to evade any provision of regulation 41 or 42 (finance: production of documents), destroys, mutilates, defaces, conceals or removes any document;
- (d) otherwise intentionally obstructs the Treasury in the exercise of their powers under regulation 41 or 42.
- (2) Where a person is convicted of an offence under this regulation, the court may make an order requiring that person, within such period as may be specified in the order, to comply with the request.
Trade: application of information powers in CEMA
44
- (1) Section 77A of CEMA applies in relation to a person carrying on a relevant activity as it applies in relation to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods but as if—
- (a) in subsection (1), the reference to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods for which for that purpose an entry is required by regulation 5 of the Customs Controls on Importation of Goods Regulations 1991 or an entry or specification is required by or under CEMA were to a person carrying on a relevant activity;
- (b) any other reference to importation or exportation were to a relevant activity;
- (c) any other reference to goods were to the goods, technology, services or funds to which the relevant activity relates.
- (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a “relevant activity” means an activity which would, unless done under the authority of a trade licence, constitute a contravention of—
- (a) any prohibition in Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 5 (Trade) except the prohibition in regulation 21(1) (export of military goods), or
- (b) the prohibition in regulation 29 (circumventing etc. prohibitions).
General trade licences: records
45
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a person (“P”) who does any act authorised by a general licence issued under regulation 34 (trade licences) (“the licence”).
- (2) P must keep a register or record containing such details as may be necessary to allow the following information to be identified in relation to each act done under the authority of the licence—
- (a) a description of the act;
- (b) a description of any goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (c) the date of the act or the dates between which the act took place;
- (d) the quantity of any goods or funds to which the act relates;
- (e) P's name and address;
- (f) the name and address of any consignee of goods to which the act relates or any recipient of technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (g) in so far as it is known to P, the name and address of the end-user of the goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (h) if different from P, the name and address of the supplier of any goods to which the act relates;
- (i) any further information required by the licence.
- (3) The register or record relating to an act must be kept until the end of the calendar year in which the register or record is created and for a further period of 4 years from the end of that calendar year.
- (4) P must notify the Secretary of State in writing of P's name and the address at which the register or record may be inspected, and must make a further such notification if those details change.
- (5) A notification under paragraph (4) must be given no later than 30 days after—
- (a) P first does any act authorised by the licence, or
- (b) there is any change to the details previously notified.
- (6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (2), (3) or (4) commits an offence.
General trade licences: inspection of records
46
- (1) A person authorised by the Secretary of State or the Commissioners (an “official”) may at any reasonable hour enter premises notified under regulation 45(4) (general trade licences: records) for the purposes of monitoring compliance with, or detecting evasion of, regulation 45(2) or (3).
- (2) An official may require any person on the premises to produce any register or record required to be kept under regulation 45, or any document included in such a register or record, that is in the person's possession or control.
- (3) An official may inspect and copy any such register, record or document.
- (4) An official must, if requested to do so, produce documentary evidence that he or she is authorised to exercise a power conferred by this regulation.
- (5) A person commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person—
- (a) intentionally obstructs an official in the performance of any of the official's functions under this regulation, or
- (b) fails to produce a register, record or document when reasonably required to do so by an official under this regulation.
Disclosure of information
47
- (1) The Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners may, in accordance with this regulation, disclose—
- (a) any information obtained under or by virtue of Part 6 (Exceptions and licences), this Part or Part 9 (Maritime enforcement), or
- (b) any information held in connection with—
- (i) anything done under or by virtue of Part 2 (Designation of persons), Part 3 (Finance), Part 3A (Director disqualification sanctions), Part 5 (Trade), or
- (ii) any exception or licence under Part 6 or anything done in accordance with such an exception or under the authority of such a licence.
- (2) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed for, or in connection with, any of the following purposes—
- (a) any purpose stated in regulation 4 (purposes);
- (b) the exercise of functions under these Regulations;
- (c) facilitating, monitoring or ensuring compliance with these Regulations;
- (d) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in the United Kingdom—
- (i) for an offence under any provision of these Regulations,
- (ii) for an offence under CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 21(1) (export of military goods), or
- (iii) in relation to a monetary penalty under section 146 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (breach of financial sanctions legislation) ;
- (e) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory for an offence—
- (i) under a provision in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a provision of these Regulations, or
- (ii) in connection with a prohibition in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a prohibition referred to in sub-paragraph (d)(ii);
- (f) compliance with an international obligation ;
- (g) facilitating the exercise by an authority outside the United Kingdom or by an international organisation of functions which correspond to functions under these Regulations.
- (3) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to the following persons—
- (a) a police officer;
- (b) any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of—
- (i) the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
- (ii) the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
- (iii) the States of Jersey, Guernsey or Alderney or the Chief Pleas of Sark,
- (iv) the Government of the Isle of Man, or
- (v) the Government of any British overseas territory;
- (c) any law officer of the Crown for Jersey, Guernsey or the Isle of Man;
- (d) the Scottish Legal Aid Board;
- (e) the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England, the Jersey Financial Services Commission, the Guernsey Financial Services Commission or the Isle of Man Financial Services Authority;
- (f) any other regulatory body (whether or not in the United Kingdom);
- (g) any organ of the United Nations;
- (h) the Council of the European Union, the European Commission or the European External Action Service;
- (i) the Government of any country;
- (j) any other person where the Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners (as the case may be) consider that it is appropriate to disclose the information.
- (4) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to any person with the consent of a person who, in their own right, is entitled to the information.
- (5) In paragraph (4) “in their own right” means not merely in the capacity as a servant or agent of another person.
- (6) In paragraph (1)(b)—
- (a) the reference to information includes information obtained at a time when any provision of these Regulations is not in force, and
- (b) the reference to a licence under Part 6 includes—
- (i) a licence or authorisation which has effect or is treated as if it were a licence which had been issued under that Part, and
- (ii) a licence which is deemed to have been issued under that Part.
Part 7: supplementary
48
- (1) A disclosure of information under regulation 47 (disclosure of information) or 47A (finance: disclosure to the Treasury) does not breach any restriction on such disclosure imposed by statute or otherwise.
- (2) But nothing in those regulations authorises a disclosure that—
- (a) contravenes the data protection legislation, or
- (b) is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 .
- (3) Nothing in this Part is to be read as requiring a person who has acted or is acting as counsel or solicitor for any person to disclose any privileged information in their possession in that capacity.
- (4) Regulations 47 and 47A do not limit the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from those regulations.
- (5) Nothing in this Part limits any conditions which may be contained in a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
- (6) In this regulation—
- “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act) ;
- “privileged information” means information with respect to which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings.
PART 8 — Enforcement
Penalties for offences
49
- (1) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 36 (finance: licensing offences), is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or a fine (or both).
- (2) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 5 (Trade) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or a fine (or both).
- (3) A person who commits an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), 36A (director disqualification: licensing offences), 37, 45(6) or 46(5) (offences in connection with trade licences) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both).
- (4) A person who commits an offence under regulation 39(6) or 43 (information offences in connection with Part 3) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
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