The Myanmar (Sanctions) Regulations 2021
- (d) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(f), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the licence mentioned in that provision is required;
- (da) in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(k)—
- (i) in the course of trading, or acting as an intermediary in the sale or purchase of, works of art when the value of the transaction, or a series of linked transactions, amounts to 10,000 euros or more, or
- (ii) in the course of storing works of art where the value of the works of art so stored for a person amounts to 10,000 euros or more;
- (e) in the case of a relevant firm within any other provision of paragraph (1), in the course of carrying on an activity mentioned in that provision.
Finance: powers to request information
52
- (1) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide information about—
- (a) funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on behalf of the designated person, or
- (b) any disposal of such funds or economic resources.
- (2) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide such information as the Treasury may reasonably require about expenditure—
- (a) by the designated person, or
- (b) for the benefit of the designated person.
- (3) For the purposes of paragraph (2)(b), expenditure for the benefit of a designated person includes expenditure on the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
- (4) The power in paragraph (1) or (2) is exercisable only where the Treasury believe that it is necessary for the purpose of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of any provision of Part 3 (Finance).
- (5) The Treasury may request a person acting under a Treasury licence to provide information about—
- (a) funds or economic resources dealt with under the licence, or
- (b) funds or economic resources made available under the licence.
- (6) The Treasury may request a person to provide information within paragraph (7) if the Treasury believe that the person may be able to provide the information.
- (7) Information within this paragraph is such information as the Treasury may reasonably require for the purpose of—
- (a) establishing for the purposes of any provision of Part 3—
- (i) the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on behalf of a designated person,
- (ii) the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources made available directly or indirectly to, or for the benefit of, a designated person, or
- (iii) the nature of any financial transactions entered into by a designated person;
- (b) monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of—
- (i) any provision of Part 3,
- (ii) regulation 50 (finance: reporting obligations), or
- (iii) any condition of a Treasury licence;
- (c) detecting or obtaining evidence of the commission of an offence under Part 3 or regulation 47 (finance: licensing offences) or regulation 50.
- (8) The Treasury may specify the way in which, and the period within which, information is to be provided.
- (9) If no such period is specified, the information which has been requested must be provided within a reasonable time.
- (10) A request may include a continuing obligation to keep the Treasury informed as circumstances change, or on such regular basis as the Treasury may specify.
- (11) Information requested under this regulation may relate to any period of time during which a person is, or was, a designated person.
- (12) Information requested by virtue of paragraph (1)(b), (2) or (7)(a)(iii) may relate to any period before a person became a designated person (as well as, or instead of, any subsequent period).
- (13) Expressions used in this regulation have the same meaning as they have in Part 3.
Finance: production of documents
53
- (1) A request under regulation 52 (finance: powers to request information) may include a request to produce specified documents or documents of a specified description.
- (2) Where the Treasury request that documents be produced, the Treasury may—
- (a) take copies of or extracts from any document so produced,
- (b) request any person producing a document to give an explanation of it, and
- (c) where that person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated body other than a partnership, request any person who is—
- (i) in the case of a partnership, a present or past partner or employee of the partnership, or
- (ii) in any other case, a present or past officer or employee of the body concerned,
to give such an explanation.
- (3) Where the Treasury request a designated person or a person acting under a Treasury licence to produce documents, that person must—
- (a) take reasonable steps to obtain the documents (if they are not already in the person's possession or control);
- (b) keep the documents under the person's possession or control (except for the purpose of providing them to the Treasury or as the Treasury may otherwise permit).
- (4) In this regulation, “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance).
Finance: information offences
54
- (1) A person commits an offence if that person—
- (a) without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails within the time and in the manner specified (or, if no time has been specified, within a reasonable time) to comply with any request under regulation 52 (finance: powers to request information);
- (b) knowingly or recklessly gives any information, or produces any document, which is false in a material particular in response to such a request;
- (c) with intent to evade any provision of regulation 52 or 53 (finance: production of documents), destroys, mutilates, defaces, conceals or removes any document;
- (d) otherwise intentionally obstructs the Treasury in the exercise of their powers under regulation 52 or 53.
- (2) Where a person is convicted of an offence under this regulation, the court may make an order requiring that person, within such period as may be specified in the order, to comply with the request.
Trade: application of information powers in CEMA
55
- (1) Section 77A of CEMA applies in relation to a person carrying on a relevant activity as it applies in relation to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods but as if—
- (a) in subsection (1), the reference to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods for which for that purpose an entry or specification is required by or under CEMA were to a person carrying on a relevant activity;
- (b) any other reference to importation or exportation were to a relevant activity;
- (c) any other reference to goods were to the goods, technology, services or funds to which the relevant activity relates.
- (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a “relevant activity” means an activity—
- (a) which would, unless done under the authority of a trade licence, constitute a contravention of any prohibition in Chapters 2 to 5 of Part 5 (Trade), except the prohibitions in regulation 22(1) or regulation 30(1) to (3) (export of goods), or
- (b) which would constitute a contravention of a prohibition in regulation 39 (circumventing etc. prohibitions).
General trade licences: records
56
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a person (“P”) who does any act authorised by a general licence issued under regulation 45 (trade licences) (“the licence”).
- (2) P must keep a register or record containing such details as may be necessary to allow the following information to be identified in relation to each act done under the authority of the licence—
- (a) a description of the act;
- (b) a description of any goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (c) the date of the act or the dates between which the act took place;
- (d) the quantity of any goods or funds to which the act relates;
- (e) P's name and address;
- (f) the name and address of any consignee of goods to which the act relates or any recipient of technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (g) in so far as it is known to P, the name and address of the end-user of the goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (h) if different from P, the name and address of the supplier of any goods to which the act relates;
- (i) any further information required by the licence.
- (3) The register or record relating to an act must be kept until the end of the calendar year in which the register or record is created and for a further period of 4 years from the end of that calendar year.
- (4) P must notify the Secretary of State in writing of P's name and the address at which the register or record may be inspected, and must make a further such notification if those details change.
- (5) A notification under paragraph (4) must be given no later than 30 days after—
- (a) P first does any act authorised by the licence, or
- (b) there is any change to the details previously notified.
- (6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (2), (3) or (4) commits an offence.
General trade licences: inspection of records
57
- (1) A person authorised by the Secretary of State or the Commissioners (an “official”) may at any reasonable hour enter premises notified under regulation 56(4) (general trade licences: records) for the purposes of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of regulation 56(2) or (3).
- (2) An official may require any person on the premises to produce any register or record required to be kept under regulation 56, or any document included in such a register or record, that is in the person's possession or control.
- (3) An official may inspect and copy any such register, record or document.
- (4) An official must, if requested to do so, produce documentary evidence that he or she is authorised to exercise a power conferred by this regulation.
- (5) A person commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person—
- (a) intentionally obstructs an official in the performance of any of the official's functions under this regulation, or
- (b) fails to produce a register, record or document when reasonably required to do so by an official under this regulation.
Disclosure of information
58
- (1) The Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners may, in accordance with this regulation, disclose—
- (a) any information obtained under or by virtue of Part 6 (Exceptions and licences), this Part or Part 9 (Maritime enforcement), or
- (b) any information held in connection with—
- (i) anything done under or by virtue of Part 2 (Designation of persons), Part 3 (Finance) , Part 3A (Director disqualification sanctions) or Part 5 (Trade), or
- (ii) any exception or licence under Part 6 or anything done in accordance with such an exception or under the authority of such a licence.
- (2) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed for, or in connection with, any of the following purposes—
- (a) any purpose stated in regulation 4 (purposes);
- (b) the exercise of functions under these Regulations;
- (c) facilitating, monitoring or ensuring compliance with these Regulations;
- (d) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in the United Kingdom—
- (i) for an offence under any provision of these Regulations,
- (ii) for an offence under CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 22(1) or regulation 30(1) to (3) (export of goods), or
- (iii) in relation to a monetary penalty under section 146 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (breach of financial sanctions legislation) ;
- (e) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory for an offence—
- (i) under a provision in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a provision of these Regulations, or
- (ii) in connection with a prohibition in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a prohibition referred to in sub-paragraph (d)(ii);
- (f) compliance with an international obligation ;
- (g) facilitating the exercise by an authority outside the United Kingdom or by an international organisation of functions which correspond to functions under these Regulations.
- (3) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to the following persons—
- (a) a police officer;
- (b) any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of—
- (i) the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
- (ii) the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
- (iii) the States of Jersey, Guernsey or Alderney or the Chief Pleas of Sark,
- (iv) the Government of the Isle of Man, or
- (v) the Government of any British overseas territory;
- (c) any law officer of the Crown for Jersey, Guernsey or the Isle of Man;
- (d) the Scottish Legal Aid Board;
- (e) the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England, the Jersey Financial Services Commission, the Guernsey Financial Services Commission or the Isle of Man Financial Services Authority;
- (f) any other regulatory body (whether or not in the United Kingdom);
- (g) any organ of the United Nations;
- (h) the Council of the European Union, the European Commission or the European External Action Service;
- (i) the Government of any country;
- (j) any other person, where the Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners (as the case may be) consider that it is appropriate to disclose the information.
- (4) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to any person with the consent of a person who, in their own right, is entitled to the information.
- (5) In paragraph (4), “in their own right” means not merely in the capacity as a servant or agent of another person.
- (6) In paragraph (1)(b)—
- (a) the reference to information includes information obtained at a time when any provision of these Regulations is not in force, and
- (b) the reference to a licence under Part 6 includes—
- (i) a licence or authorisation which is treated as if it were a licence which had been issued under that Part, and
- (ii) a licence which is deemed to have been issued under that Part.
Part 7: supplementary
59
- (1) A disclosure of information under regulation 58 (disclosure of information) or 58A (finance: disclosure to the Treasury) does not breach any restriction on such disclosure imposed by statute or otherwise.
- (2) But nothing in those regulations authorises a disclosure that—
- (a) contravenes the data protection legislation, or
- (b) is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 .
- (3) Nothing in this Part is to be read as requiring a person who has acted or is acting as counsel or solicitor for any person to disclose any privileged information in their possession in that capacity.
- (4) Regulations 58 and 58A do not limit the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from those regulations.
- (5) Nothing in this Part limits any conditions which may be contained in a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
- (6) In this regulation—
- “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act) ;
- “privileged information” means information with respect to which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings.
PART 8 — Enforcement
Penalties for offences
60
- (1) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 47 (finance: licensing offences), is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or a fine (or both).
- (2) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 5 (Trade) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or a fine (or both).
- (3) A person who commits an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), 47A (director disqualification: licensing offences), 48, 56(6) or 57(5) (offences in connection with trade licences) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both).
- (4) A person who commits an offence under regulation 50(6) or 54 (information offences in connection with Part 3) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
- (5) In relation to an offence committed before 2nd May 2022, the reference in each of paragraphs (1)(a), (2)(a) and (3)(a) to the general limit in a magistrates’ court is to be read as a reference to 6 months.
Liability of officers of bodies corporate etc.
61
- (1) Where an offence under these Regulations, committed by a body corporate—
- (a) is committed with the consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, or any person who was purporting to act in any such capacity, or
- (b) is attributable to any neglect on the part of any such person,
that person as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
- (2) In paragraph (1), “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
- (3) Paragraph (1) also applies in relation to a body that is not a body corporate, with the substitution for the reference to a director of the body of a reference—
- (a) in the case of a partnership, to a partner;
- (b) in the case of an unincorporated body other than a partnership—
- (i) where the body's affairs are managed by its members, to a member of the body;
- (ii) in any other case, to a member of the governing body.
- (4) Section 171(4) of CEMA (which is a provision similar to this regulation) does not apply to any offence under these Regulations to which that provision would, in the absence of this paragraph, apply.
Jurisdiction to try offences
62
- (1) Where an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), Part 3 (Finance), regulation 47 (finance: licensing offences) or regulation 50(6) or 54 (information offences in connection with Part 3) is committed in the United Kingdom—
- (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
- (2) Where an offence under these Regulations is committed outside the United Kingdom—
- (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
- (3) In the application of paragraph (2) to Scotland, any such proceedings against a person may be taken—
- (a) in any sheriff court district in which the person is apprehended or is in custody, or
- (b) in such sheriff court district as the Lord Advocate may determine.
- (4) In paragraph (3), “sheriff court district” is to be read in accordance with the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (see section 307(1) of that Act) .
Procedure for offences by unincorporated bodies
63
- (1) Paragraphs (2) and (3) apply if it is alleged that an offence under these Regulations has been committed by an unincorporated body (as opposed to by a member of the body).
- (2) Proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland for such an offence must be brought against the body in its own name.
- (3) For the purposes of proceedings for such an offence brought against an unincorporated body—
- (a) rules of court relating to the service of documents have effect as if the body were a body corporate;
- (b) the following provisions apply as they apply in relation to a body corporate—
- (i) section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 ;
- (ii) section 18 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 and Article 166 of, and Schedule 4 to, the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 .
- (4) A fine imposed on an unincorporated body on its conviction of an offence under these Regulations is to be paid out of the funds of the body.
Time limit for proceedings for summary offences
64
- (1) Proceedings for an offence under these Regulations which is triable only summarily may be brought within the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the prosecutor's knowledge.
- (2) But such proceedings may not be brought by virtue of paragraph (1) more than 3 years after the commission of the offence.
- (3) A certificate signed by the prosecutor as to the date on which the evidence in question came to the prosecutor's knowledge is conclusive evidence of the date on which it did so; and a certificate to that effect and purporting to be so signed is to be treated as being so signed unless the contrary is proved.
- (4) In relation to proceedings in Scotland—
- (a) section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (date of commencement of summary proceedings) applies for the purposes of this regulation as it applies for the purposes of that section, and
- (b) references in this regulation to the prosecutor are to be treated as references to the Lord Advocate.
Trade enforcement: application of CEMA
65
- (1) Where the Commissioners investigate or propose to investigate any matter with a view to determining—
- (a) whether there are grounds for believing that a relevant offence has been committed, or
- (b) whether a person should be prosecuted for such an offence,
the matter is to be treated as an assigned matter.
- (2) In paragraph (1), “assigned matter” has the meaning given by section 1(1) of CEMA .
- (3) In this regulation, a “relevant offence” means an offence under—
- (a) Part 5 (Trade),
- (b) regulation 48 (trade: licensing offences),
- (c) regulation 56(6) (general trade licences: records), or
- (d) regulation 57(5) (general trade licences: inspection of records).
- (3A) The Commissioners may not investigate the suspected commission of a relevant offence listed in paragraph (3B), (3C) or (3D), unless the suspected offence has been the subject of—
- (a) a referral to the Commissioners by the Secretary of State, or
- (b) a decision by the Commissioners to treat the suspected offence as if it had been referred to them under sub-paragraph (a).
- (3B) Paragraph (3A) applies to the suspected commission of an offence under any of the following provisions—
- (a) regulation 37(3) (provision of interception and monitoring services);
- (b) regulation 38(4) (military activities or otherwise enabling or facilitating the conduct of armed hostilities).
- (3C) Paragraph (3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under any of regulations 48(1) and (2), 56(6) and 57(5) insofar as—
- (a) the suspected offence relates to a licence issued under regulation 45 (trade licences), and
- (b) the activity authorised by that licence would, if no licence had been issued, amount to an offence specified in paragraph (3B).
- (3D) Paragraph (3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under regulation 39(2) (circumventing etc. prohibitions) insofar as the prohibited activity to which the suspected offence relates is the circumvention of, or enabling or facilitation of a contravention of, a prohibition in relation to an offence specified in paragraph (3B).
- (4) Section 138 of CEMA (arrest of persons) applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence as it applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, an offence for which the person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts , but as if—
- (a) any reference to an offence under, or for which a person is liable to be arrested under, the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
- (b) in subsection (2), the reference to any person so liable were to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence.
- (5) The provisions of CEMA mentioned in paragraph (6) apply in relation to proceedings for a relevant offence as they apply in relation to proceedings for an offence under the customs and excise Acts, but as if—
- (a) any reference to the customs and excise Acts were to any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d);
- (b) in section 145(6), the reference to an offence for which a person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
- (c) in section 151, the reference to any penalty imposed under the customs and excise Acts were to any penalty imposed under these Regulations in relation to a relevant offence;
- (d) in section 154(2)—
- (i) the reference to proceedings relating to customs or excise were to proceedings under any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d), and
- (ii) the reference to the place from which any goods have been brought included a reference to the place to which goods have been exported, supplied or delivered or the place to or from which technology has been transferred.
- (6) The provisions of CEMA are sections 145, 146, 147, 148(1), 150, 151, 152, 154 and 155 (legal proceedings).
Trade offences in CEMA: modification of penalty
66
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 68(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 22(1) or regulation 30(1) to (3) (export of goods).
- (2) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
- (3) Paragraph (4) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 170(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 22(1) or regulation 30(1) to (3).
- (4) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
Application of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005
67
Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (investigatory powers) applies to any offence under Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 47 (finance: licensing offences).
Monetary penalties
68
Each provision in Part 5 (Trade) which contains a prohibition imposed for a purpose mentioned in section 3(1) or (2) of the Act is to be regarded as not being financial sanctions legislation for the purposes of Part 8 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 .
PART 9 — Maritime enforcement
Exercise of maritime enforcement powers
69
- (1) A maritime enforcement officer may, for a purpose mentioned in paragraph (2) or (3), exercise any of the maritime enforcement powers in relation to—
- (a) a British ship in foreign waters or international waters,
- (b) a ship without nationality in international waters, or
- (c) a foreign ship in international waters,
and a ship within sub-paragraph (a), (b) or (c) is referred to in this Part as “a relevant ship”.
- (2) The maritime enforcement powers may be exercised for the purpose of enforcing any of the following—
- (a) a prohibition in any of regulations 22 to 25 (trade prohibitions relating to restricted goods and restricted technology);
- (b) a prohibition in any of regulations 30 to 33 (trade prohibitions relating to dual-use goods and dual-use technology);
- (c) a prohibition imposed by a condition of a trade licence in relation to a prohibition mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) or (b).
- (3) The maritime enforcement powers may also be exercised in relation to a relevant ship for the purpose of—
- (a) investigating the suspected carriage of relevant goods on the ship, or
- (b) preventing the continued carriage on the ship of goods suspected to be relevant goods.
- (4) In this Part, “the maritime enforcement powers” are the powers conferred by regulation 71 (power to stop, search, board etc.) and regulation 72 (seizure power).
- (5) This regulation is subject to regulation 73 (restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers).
Maritime enforcement officers
70
- (1) The following persons are “maritime enforcement officers” for the purposes of this Part—
- (a) a commissioned officer of any of Her Majesty's ships;
- (b) a member of the Ministry of Defence Police (within the meaning of section 1 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 );
- (c) a constable—
- (i) who is a member of a police force in England and Wales,
- (ii) within the meaning of section 99 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 , or
- (iii) who is a member of the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve;
- (d) a special constable—
- (i) appointed under section 27 of the Police Act 1996 ,
- (ii) appointed under section 9 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012, or
- (iii) in Northern Ireland, appointed by virtue of provision incorporating section 79 of the Harbours, Docks, and Piers Clauses Act 1847 ;
- (e) a constable who is a member of the British Transport Police Force;
- (f) a port constable, within the meaning of section 7 of the Marine Navigation Act 2013 , or a person appointed to act as a constable under provision made by virtue of section 16 of the Harbours Act 1964 ;
- (g) a designated customs official within the meaning of Part 1 of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (see section 14(6) of that Act) ;
- (h) a designated NCA officer who is authorised by the Director General of the National Crime Agency (whether generally or specifically) to exercise the powers of a maritime enforcement officer under this Part.
- (2) In this regulation, “a designated NCA officer” means a National Crime Agency officer who is either or both of the following—
- (a) an officer designated under section 10 of the Crime and Courts Act 2013 as having the powers and privileges of a constable;
- (b) an officer designated under that section as having the powers of a general customs official.
Power to stop, board, search etc.
71
- (1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a relevant ship is carrying prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (2) The officer may—
- (a) stop the ship;
- (b) board the ship;
- (c) for the purpose of exercising a power conferred by paragraph (3) or regulation 72 (seizure power), require the ship to be taken to, and remain in, a port or anchorage in the United Kingdom or any other country willing to receive it.
- (3) Where the officer boards a ship by virtue of this regulation, the officer may—
- (a) stop any person found on the ship and search that person for—
- (i) prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
- (ii) any thing that might be used to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship;
- (b) search the ship, or any thing found on the ship (including cargo) for prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (4) The officer may—
- (a) require a person found on a ship boarded by virtue of this regulation to provide information or produce documents;
- (b) inspect and copy such information or documents.
- (5) The officer may exercise a power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(i) or (b) only to the extent reasonably required for the purpose of discovering prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (6) The officer may exercise the power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(ii) in relation to a person only where the officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the person might use a thing to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship.
- (7) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
Seizure power
72
- (1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer is lawfully on a relevant ship (whether in exercise of the powers conferred by regulation 71 (power to stop, board, search etc.) or otherwise).
- (2) The officer may seize any of the following which are found on the ship, in any thing found on the ship, or on any person found on the ship—
- (a) goods which the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect are prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
- (b) things within regulation 71(3)(a)(ii).
- (3) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
Restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers
73
- (1) The authority of the Secretary of State is required before any maritime enforcement power is exercised in reliance on regulation 69 (exercise of maritime enforcement powers) in relation to—
- (a) a British ship in foreign waters, or
- (b) a foreign ship in international waters.
- (2) In relation to a British ship in foreign waters other than the sea and other waters within the seaward limits of the territorial sea adjacent to any relevant British possession, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if the State in whose waters the power would be exercised consents to the exercise of the power.
- (3) In relation to a foreign ship in international waters, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if—
- (a) the home state has requested the assistance of the United Kingdom for a purpose mentioned in regulation 69(2) or (3),
- (b) the home state has authorised the United Kingdom to act for such a purpose, or
- (c) the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982 or a UN Security Council Resolution otherwise permits the exercise of the power in relation to the ship.
Interpretation of Part 9
74
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), any expression used in this Part and in section 19 or 20 of the Act has the same meaning in this Part as it has in section 19 or (as the case may be) section 20 of the Act.
- (2) For the purpose of interpreting any reference to “prohibited goods” or “relevant goods” in this Part, any reference in section 19 or 20 of the Act to a “relevant prohibition or requirement” is to be read as a reference to any prohibition specified in regulation 69(2)(a) to (c) (exercise of maritime enforcement powers).
PART 10 — Supplementary and final provision
Notices
75
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a notice required by regulation 46 (licences: general provisions) to be given to a person.
- (2) The notice may be given to an individual—
- (a) by delivering it to the individual,
- (b) by sending it to the individual by post addressed to the individual at his or her usual or last-known place of residence or business, or
- (c) by leaving it for the individual at that place.
- (3) The notice may be given to a person other than an individual—
- (a) by sending it by post to the proper officer of the body at its principal office, or
- (b) by addressing it to the proper officer of the body and leaving it at that office.
- (4) The notice may be given to the person by other means, including by electronic means, with the person's consent.
- (5) In this regulation, the reference in paragraph (3) to a “principal office”—
- (a) in relation to a registered company, is to be read as a reference to the company's registered office;
- (b) in relation to a body incorporated or constituted under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom, includes a reference to the body's principal office in the United Kingdom (if any).
- (6) In this regulation—
- “proper officer”—in relation to a body other than a partnership, means the secretary or other executive officer charged with the conduct of the body's general affairs, andin relation to a partnership, means a partner or a person who has the control or management of the partnership business;
- “registered company” means a company registered under the enactments relating to companies for the time being in force in the United Kingdom.
Article 20 of the Export Control Order 2008
76
Article 20 of the Export Control Order 2008 (embargoed destinations) is not to be taken to prohibit anything prohibited by Part 5 (Trade).
Trade: overlapping offences
77
A person is not to be taken to commit an offence under the Export Control Order 2008 if the person would, in the absence of this regulation, commit an offence under both—
- (a) article 34, 35, 37 or 38 of that Order , and
- (b) any provision of Part 5 (Trade) or regulation 48 (trade: licensing offences), regulation 56(6) or regulation 57(5) (information offences in connection with general trade licences).
Revocation of the Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019
78
The Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 are revoked.
Transitional provision: prior obligations etc.
79
- (1) — This regulation applies to a person (“P”) who, immediately before the relevant date, was designated by the Secretary of State under regulation 5 (power to designate persons) of the 2019 Regulations for the purposes of—
- (a) regulations 11 to 15 (asset-freeze etc.) of those Regulations, or
- (b) regulation 17 (immigration) of those Regulations.
- (2) Subject to paragraph (3), any reference in a provision mentioned in paragraph (4) to the date on which P became a designated person is a reference to the date on which P was designated by the Secretary of State under regulation 5 of the 2019 Regulations.
- (3) Where P was named in Annex I of the EU Burma Regulation immediately before IP completion day , any reference in a provision mentioned in paragraph (4) to the date on which P became a designated person is a reference to the date on which P was named in that Annex.
- (4) The provisions referred to in paragraphs (2) and (3) are—
- (a) regulation 41(5) (finance: exceptions from prohibitions), and
- (b) paragraph 9(a) of Schedule 4 (Treasury licences: purposes).
- (5) In this regulation—
- “the 2019 Regulations” means the Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019;
- “the EU Burma Regulation” means Council Regulation (EU) No 401/2013 of 2 May 2013 concerning restrictive measures in respect of Myanmar/Burma and repealing Regulation (EC) No 194/2008 , as it has effect in EU law;
- “the relevant date” means the date on which Part 3 (Finance) and Part 4 (Immigration) come into force.
Transitional provision: Treasury licences
80
- (1) Paragraphs (2) to (4) apply to a licence which—
- (a) was issued by the Treasury under regulation 35(1) of the 2019 Regulations,
- (b) was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
- (c) authorises conduct which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (2) to (4)) be prohibited under Part 3 (Finance),
and such a licence is referred to in this regulation as “an existing financial sanctions licence”.
- (2) An existing financial sanctions licence which authorises an act which would otherwise be prohibited has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been issued by the Treasury under regulation 44(1) (Treasury licences).
- (3) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to the 2019 Regulations is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to these Regulations.
- (4) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to a prohibition in the 2019 Regulations is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition in Part 3.
- (5) Paragraph (6) applies where—
- (a) an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence, under the 2019 Regulations was made before the relevant date,
- (b) the application is for the authorisation of conduct which would (on and after the relevant date) be prohibited under Part 3, and
- (c) a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before that date.
- (6) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence (as the case may be), under regulation 44(1).
- (7) In this regulation—
- “the 2019 Regulations” means the Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019;
- “the relevant date” means the date on which Part 3 comes into force.
Transitional provision: trade licences
81
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies to a licence or authorisation which—
- (a) was—
- (i) issued by the Secretary of State under regulation 36 of the 2019 Regulations,
- (ii) deemed to have been issued by the Secretary of State under regulation 36 of the 2019 Regulations , or
- (iii) treated as if it had been issued by the Secretary of State under regulation 36 of the 2019 Regulations ,
- (b) was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
- (c) authorises an act which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraph (2)) be prohibited by Part 5 (Trade),
and such a licence or authorisation is referred to in this regulation as an “existing trade sanctions licence”.
- (2) An existing trade sanctions licence which authorises an act which would otherwise be prohibited has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been issued by the Secretary of State under regulation 45 (trade licences).
- (3) Any reference in an existing trade sanctions licence to—
- (a) a provision of the 2019 Regulations, or
- (b) a provision in any other enactment which was treated as a reference to the corresponding provision of the 2019 Regulations,
is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding provision of these Regulations.
- (4) Paragraph (5) applies where—
- (a) an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence, under the 2019 Regulations was made before the relevant date,
- (b) the application is for the authorisation of conduct which would (on and after the relevant date) be prohibited under Part 5, and
- (c) a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before that date.
- (5) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence (as the case may be), under regulation 45.
- (6) For the purposes of paragraph (4), the reference to an application for a licence under the 2019 Regulations includes an application that is treated as such an application by virtue of regulation 73 (transitional provision: pending applications for trade licences) of the 2019 Regulations.
- (7) In this regulation—
- “the 2019 Regulations” means the Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019;
- “the relevant date” means the date on which Part 5 comes into force.
SCHEDULE 1 — Rules for interpretation of regulation 7(2)
Application of Schedule
1
- (1) The rules set out in the following paragraphs of this Schedule apply for the purpose of interpreting regulation 7(2).
- (2) They also apply for the purpose of interpreting this Schedule.
Joint interests
2
If two or more persons each hold a share or right jointly, each of them is treated as holding that share or right.
Joint arrangements
3
- (1) If shares or rights held by a person and shares or rights held by another person are the subject of a joint arrangement between those persons, each of them is treated as holding the combined shares or rights of both of them.
- (2) A “joint arrangement” is an arrangement between the holders of shares or rights that they will exercise all or substantially all the rights conferred by their respective shares or rights jointly in a way that is pre-determined by the arrangement.
- (3) “Arrangement” has the meaning given by paragraph 12.
Calculating shareholdings
4
- (1) In relation to a person who has a share capital, a reference to holding “more than 50% of the shares” in that person is to holding shares comprised in the issued share capital of that person of a nominal value exceeding (in aggregate) 50% of that share capital.
- (2) In relation to a person who does not have a share capital—
- (a) a reference to holding shares in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person;
- (b) a reference to holding “more than 50% of the shares” in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in more than 50% of the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person.
Voting rights
5
- (1) A reference to the voting rights in a person is to the rights conferred on shareholders in respect of their shares (or, in the case of a person not having a share capital, on members) to vote at general meetings of the person on all or substantially all matters.
- (2) In relation to a person that does not have general meetings at which matters are decided by the exercise of voting rights—
- (a) a reference to holding voting rights in the person is to be read as a reference to holding rights in relation to the person that are equivalent to those of a person entitled to exercise voting rights in a company;
- (b) a reference to holding “more than 50% of the voting rights” in the person is to be read as a reference to holding the right under the constitution of the person to block changes to the overall policy of the person or to the terms of its constitution.
6
In applying regulation 7(2) and this Schedule, the voting rights in a person are to be reduced by any rights held by the person itself.
Rights to appoint or remove members of the board
7
A reference to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of a person is to the right to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of the voting rights at meetings of the board on all or substantially all matters.
8
A reference to a board of directors, in the case of a person who does not have such a board, is to be read as a reference to the equivalent management body of that person.
Shares or rights held “indirectly”
9
- (1) A person holds a share “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person—
- (a) holds the share in question, or
- (b) is part of a chain of persons—
- (i) each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
- (ii) the last of whom holds the share.
- (2) A person holds a right “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person—
- (a) holds that right, or
- (b) is part of a chain of persons—
- (i) each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
- (ii) the last of whom holds that right.
- (3) For these purposes, a person (“A”) has a “majority stake” in another person (“B”) if—
- (a) A holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
- (b) A is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of B,
- (c) A is a member of B and controls alone, pursuant to an agreement with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights in B, or
- (d) A has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence or control over B.
- (4) In the application of this paragraph to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors, a person (“A”) is to be treated as having the right to appoint a director if—
- (a) any person's appointment as director follows necessarily from that person's appointment as director of A, or
- (b) the directorship is held by A itself.
Shares held by nominees
10
A share held by a person as nominee for another is to be treated as held by the other (and not by the nominee).
Rights treated as held by person who controls their exercise
11
- (1) Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated as held by that person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that person also controls it).
- (2) A person “controls” a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that person and others, the right is exercisable only—
- (a) by that person,
- (b) in accordance with that person's directions or instructions, or
- (c) with that person's consent or concurrence.
12
“Arrangement” includes—
- (a) any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally enforceable, and
- (b) any convention, custom or practice of any kind.
Rights exercisable only in certain circumstances etc.
13
- (1) Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken into account only—
- (a) when the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they continue to obtain, or
- (b) when the circumstances are within the control of the person having the rights.
- (2) But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a person is subject to relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account while the person is subject to those proceedings.
- (3) “Relevant insolvency proceedings” means—
- (a) administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986 ,
- (b) administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 , or
- (c) proceedings under the insolvency law of another country during which a person's assets and affairs are subject to the control or supervision of a third party or creditor.
- (4) Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise are to continue to be taken into account.
Rights attached to shares held by way of security
14
Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person are to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person—
- (a) where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in accordance with that person's instructions, and
- (b) where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person's interests.
SCHEDULE 2 — Internal repression goods and internal repression technology
Firearms and related goods
1
Firearms, ammunition and related accessories, as follows—
- (a) firearms;
- (b) ammunition specially designed for firearms;
- (c) weapon-sights.
2
Simulators for training persons to use firearms.
3
Bombs and grenades.
Vehicles
4
- (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), the following types of vehicles—
- (a) vehicles equipped with a water cannon, specially designed or modified for the purpose of riot control;
- (b) vehicles specially designed or modified to be electrified to repel boarders;
- (c) vehicles specially designed or modified to remove barricades, including construction equipment with ballistic protection;
- (d) vehicles specially designed for the transport or transfer of prisoners or detainees;
- (e) vehicles specially designed to deploy mobile barriers.
- (2) Components for the vehicles specified in sub-paragraph (1)(a) to (e) that have been designed for the purposes of riot control.
- (3) Vehicles that might otherwise fall within sub-paragraph (1)(a) to (e) are not internal repression goods if they are specially designed for the purposes of fire-fighting.
- (4) For the purposes of this paragraph, “vehicle” includes a trailer.
Explosive substances and related goods
5
- (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), equipment and devices specially designed to initiate explosions by electrical or non-electrical means, including—
- (a) firing sets;
- (b) detonators;
- (c) igniters;
- (d) boosters;
- (e) detonating cord.
- (2) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), components that have been specially designed for any thing mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
- (3) Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to any thing that has been specially designed for a specific commercial use.
- (4) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (3), a “specific commercial use” means the actuation or operation by explosive means of other equipment or devices the function of which is not the creation of explosions, including—
- (a) car air-bag inflaters;
- (b) electric-surge arresters;
- (c) fire sprinkler actuators.
6
Linear cutting explosive charges.
7
The following explosives and related substances—
- (a) amatol;
- (b) nitrocellulose (containing more than 12.5 % nitrogen);
- (c) nitroglycol;
- (d) pentaerythritol tetranitrate (PETN);
- (e) picryl chloride;
- (f) 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (TNT).
Other goods
8
- (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), the following equipment designed for the protection of a person—
- (a) body armour providing ballistic or stabbing protection or both;
- (b) helmets providing ballistic or fragmentation protection, or both, including anti-riot helmets;
- (c) anti-riot shields and ballistic shields.
- (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply to—
- (a) any thing specially designed to protect persons for the following purposes—
- (i) participation in competitive sport;
- (ii) ensuring safety at work;
- (b) any thing mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(a) or (b) when accompanying a person for that person's own protection.
9
Night vision equipment.
10
Thermal imaging equipment.
11
Image intensifier tubes.
12
Razor barbed wire.
13
The following types of knives—
- (a) knives that are designed for use by military personnel (military knives);
- (b) knives that are designed for use as a weapon for inflicting injury (combat knives);
- (c) bayonets with blade lengths in excess of 10 cm.
Production equipment
14
Any equipment which is specially designed or modified for the development or for one or more of the production phases of any item mentioned in this Schedule.
Software and technology
15
Any software which is specially designed for the simulators mentioned in paragraph 2.
16
Any technology which is specially designed for the development, production or use of any item mentioned in this Schedule.
Interpretation
17
- (1) In this Schedule, “firearm” means any portable barrelled weapon that expels, is designed to expel or may be converted to expel, a shot, bullet or projectile by the action of a combustible propellant.
- (2) For the purposes of this Schedule, the following terms have the meaning given to them in the Dual-Use Regulation—
- “development”;
- “production”;
- “software”;
- “technology”;
- “use”.
SCHEDULE 3 — Interception and monitoring goods and interception and monitoring technology
Interception and monitoring equipment
1
Any goods which can perform any of the following functions (whether individually or as part of a system)—
- (a) deep packet inspection;
- (b) network interception, including associated systems management and data retention functions;
- (c) radio frequency monitoring, including associated processing or examination;
- (d) network and satellite jamming;
- (e) remote infection;
- (f) speaker recognition, including associated processing functions;
- (g) IMSI, MSISDN, IMEI and TMSI interception and monitoring;
- (h) tactical SMS, GSM, GPS, GPRS, UMTS, CDMA, and PSTN interception and monitoring;
- (i) DHCP, SMTP and GTP information interception and monitoring;
- (j) pattern recognition and pattern profiling;
- (k) remote forensics;
- (l) semantic processing;
- (m) WEP and WPA code breaking;
- (n) interception of VoIP (including proprietary and standard protocols).
2
Any software which can perform any of the functions described in paragraph 1(a) to (n) (whether individually or as part of a system).
Other software and other technology
3
Any software or other technology which is specially designed for the development, production or use of any goods or software described in paragraph 1 or 2.
Interpretation
4
For the purposes of this Schedule, the following terms have the meaning given to them in the Dual-Use Regulation—
- “development”;
- “production”;
- “software”;
- “technology”;
- “use”.
Acronyms and abbreviations used in this Schedule
5
The acronyms and abbreviations used in this Schedule have the following meaning—
SCHEDULE 4 — Treasury licences: purposes
Interpretation
1
- (1) In this Schedule—
- “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
- “frozen account” has the meaning given in regulation 41(7);
- “frozen funds or economic resources” means funds or economic resources frozen by virtue of regulation 11, and any reference to a person's frozen funds or economic resources is to funds or economic resources frozen as a consequence of the designation of that person for the purpose of that regulation.
- (2) For the purposes of this Schedule, references to a designated person are to be read as including a person (“C”) who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (“P”).
- (3) When determining for the purposes of paragraph 9 when C became a designated person, C is to be treated as having become a designated person at the same time as P.
Basic needs
2
- (1) To enable the basic needs of a designated person, or (in the case of an individual) any dependent family member of such a person, to be met.
- (2) In the case of an individual, in sub-paragraph (1), “basic needs” includes—
- (a) medical needs;
- (b) needs for—
- (i) food;
- (ii) payment of insurance premiums;
- (iii) payment of tax;
- (iv) rent or mortgage payments;
- (v) utility payments.
- (3) In the case of a person other than an individual, in sub-paragraph (1), “basic needs” includes needs for—
- (a) payment of insurance premiums;
- (b) payment of reasonable fees for the provision of property management services;
- (c) payment of remuneration, allowances or pensions of employees;
- (d) payment of tax;
- (e) rent or mortgage payments;
- (f) utility payments.
- (4) In sub-paragraph (1)—
- “dependent” means financially dependent;
- “family member” includes—the wife or husband of the designated person;the civil partner of the designated person;any parent or other ascendant of the designated person;any child or other descendant of the designated person;any person who is a brother or sister of the designated person, or a child or other descendant of such a person.
Legal services
3
To enable the payment of—
- (a) reasonable professional fees for the provision of legal services, or
- (b) reasonable expenses associated with the provision of legal services.
Maintenance of frozen funds and economic resources
4
To enable the payment of—
- (a) reasonable fees, or
- (b) reasonable service charges,
arising from the routine holding or maintenance of frozen funds or economic resources.
Extraordinary expenses
5
To enable an extraordinary expense of a designated person to be met.
Pre-existing judicial decisions etc.
6
To enable the implementation or satisfaction (in whole or in part) of a judicial, administrative or arbitral decision or lien which is enforceable in the United Kingdom (the “judicial decision”), provided that—
- (a) where funds or economic resources are made available to a designated person, they are credited to a frozen account or otherwise frozen by virtue of regulation 11;
- (b) where funds or economic resources are made available by a person (including a designated person) to a designated person to enable the implementation or satisfaction of the judicial decision, no other designated person benefits, directly or indirectly.
Diplomatic missions etc.
7
- (1) To enable anything to be done in order that the functions of a diplomatic mission or consular post in Myanmar or of an international organisation enjoying immunities in accordance with international law may be carried out.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1)—
- “consular post” has the same meaning as in the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations done at Vienna on 24 April 1963 , and any reference to the functions of a consular post is to be read in accordance with that Convention;
- “diplomatic mission” and any reference to the functions of a diplomatic mission are to be read in accordance with the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations done at Vienna on 18 April 1961 .
Extraordinary situation
8
To enable anything to be done to deal with an extraordinary situation.
Prior obligations
9
To enable, by the use of a designated person's frozen funds or economic resources, the satisfaction of an obligation of that person (whether arising under a contract, other agreement or otherwise), provided that—
- (a) the obligation arose before the date on which the person became a designated person, and
- (b) no payments are made to another designated person, whether directly or indirectly.
Humanitarian assistance activities etc.
10
To enable anything to be done in connection with the performance of any humanitarian assistance activity.
Signed
Ahmad — Minister of State — 2021-04-26
Explanatory note
(This note is not part of the Regulations)
Footnotes
[^f00001]: The power to make regulations under Part 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13) is conferred on an “appropriate Minister”. Section 1(9)(a) of that Act defines an “appropriate Minister” as including the Secretary of State.
[^f00002]: 2018 c. 13. Section 17(5)(b)(i) (enforcement) is amended by the Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), Schedule 24, paragraph 443(1).
[^f00003]: 1979 c. 2. Amendments have been made to this Act and are cited, where relevant, in respect of the applicable regulations.
[^f00004]: “Person” is defined by section 9(5) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 to include (in addition to an individual and a body of persons corporate or unincorporate) any organisation and any association or combination of persons.
[^f00005]: 1971 c. 77. Section 8B was inserted by the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33), section 8; and amended by the Immigration Act 2016 (c. 19), section 76; and the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018, section 59 and Schedule 3, Part 1.
[^f00006]: S.I. 2008/3231. Schedule 2 was substituted by S.I. 2017/85 and subsequently amended by S.I. 2017/697; S.I. 2018/165; S.I. 2018/939; S.I. 2019/137; and S.I. 2019/989. There are other instruments which amend other parts of the Order.
[^f00007]: 2006 c.36.
[^f00008]: 2000 c. 8. Section 142D was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c. 33), section 4(1).
[^f00009]: Section 142A was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013, section 4(1).
[^f00010]: Part 4A was inserted by the Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), section 11(2); and most recently amended by S.I. 2019/632.
[^f00011]: Section 22 was amended by the Financial Guidance and Claims Act 2018 (c. 10), section 27(4); the Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), section 7(1); and S.I. 2018/135.
[^f00012]: S.I. 2001/544, as most recently amended by S S.I. 2018/1149; S.I. 2018/1403; S.I. 2019/632; S.I. 2019/660; S.I. 2019/679; S.I. 2019/710; S.I. 2019/1361; S.I. 2020/117; and S.I. 2020/480.
[^f00013]: Schedule 2 was amended by the Regulation of Financial Services (Land Transactions) Act 2005 (c. 24), section 1; the Dormant Bank and Building Society Accounts Act 2008 (c. 31), section 15 and Schedule 2, paragraph 1; the Financial Services Act 2012, sections 7(2) to (5) and 8; the Financial Guidance and Claims Act 2018, section 27(13); S.I. 2013/1881; S.I. 2018/135; and S.I. 2019/632.
[^f00014]: 2006 c. 46.
[^f00015]: 2014 c. 2.
[^f00016]: 2005 c. 19.
[^f00017]: 1979 c. 38. Section 1 was amended by the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1985 (c. 73), Schedule 1, paragraph 40; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) Act 1990 (c. 11), Schedule 2, paragraph 42; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1997 (c. 11), Schedule 2, paragraph 28; the Planning Act (Northern Ireland) 2011 (c. 25), Schedule 6, paragraph 21; the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c. 24), section 70; S.I. 1991/1220; S.I. 1991/2684; S.S.I. 2000/121 and S.I. 2001/1283.
[^f00018]: Section 1210 was amended by S.I. 2008/565; S.I. 2008/1950; S.I. 2011/99; S.I. 2012/1809; S.I. 2013/3115; S.I. 2017/516; S.I. 2017/1164; and S.I. 2019/177.
[^f00019]: Section 77A was inserted by the Finance Act 1987 (c.16), section 10; and amended by S.I. 1992/3095.
[^f00020]: 2017 c. 3.
[^f00021]: Section 1(8) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 defines an “international obligation” as an obligation of the United Kingdom created or arising by or under any international agreement.
[^f00022]: 2016 c. 25. Amendments have been made by the Policing and Crime Act 2017, Schedule 9, paragraph 74; the Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), Schedule 19, paragraphs 198-203; the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), Schedule 4, paragraph 33; the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018, section 59(4), Schedule 3, paragraph 7; the Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019 (c. 5), section 16; S.I. 2018/378; S.I. 2018/652; S.I. 2018/905; S.I. 2018/1123; S.I. 2019/419; S.I. 2019/742; S.I. 2019/939; and S.I. 2020/661. Saving provisions are made by S.I. 2017/859.
[^f00023]: 2018 c. 12. There are amendments to this Act that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00024]: 2020 c. 17.
[^f00025]: 1995 c. 46.
[^f00026]: 1925 c. 86. Section 33 was amended by the Statute Law (Repeals) Act 2004 (c. 14), section 1(1) and Schedule 1, Part 17. Other amendments have been made to section 33 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00027]: 1980 c. 43. Amendments have been made to Schedule 3 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00028]: 1945 c. 15 (N.I.).
[^f00029]: S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I.26).
[^f00030]: The definition of “assigned matter” in section 1(1) of CEMA was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c. 11), Schedule 4, paragraph 22(a); the Scotland Act 2012 (c. 11), section 24(7); and the Wales Act 2014 (c. 29), section 7(1).
[^f00031]: Section 138 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60), section 114(1), Schedule 6, paragraph 37 and Schedule 7, Part 1; the Finance Act 1988 (c. 39), section 11; the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), Schedule 7, paragraph 54; S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I.12); and S.I. 2007/288.
[^f00032]: “the customs and excise Acts” is defined in section 1 of CEMA.
[^f00033]: Section 145 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, section 114(1); the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c. 11), Schedule 4, paragraph 23(a); and S.I. 2014/834. Section 147 was amended by the Magistrates Courts Act 1980 (c. 43), section 154 and Schedule 7, paragraph 176; the Criminal Justice Act 1982 (c. 48), section 77 and Schedule 14, paragraph 42; the Finance Act 1989 (c. 26), section 16(2); and the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44), section 41 and Schedule 3, paragraph 50. Section 152 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, section 50 and Schedule 4, paragraph 26, and section 52 and Schedule 5. Section 155 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, section 50 and Schedule, 4, paragraph 27, and section 52 and Schedule 5.
[^f00034]: The words “7 years” were inserted in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
[^f00035]: The words “7 years” were inserted in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
[^f00036]: 2005 c. 15. Chapter 1 of Part 2 has been amended by the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11), section 33(3) and (4); the Northern Ireland (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2006 (c. 33), sections 26(2) and 30(2) and Schedules 3 and 5; the Bribery Act 2010 (c. 23), section 17(2) and Schedule 1; the Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 asp 13, section 203 and Schedule 7, paragraph 77; the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (c. 22), section 15 and Schedule 8, paragraphs 157 and 159; the Criminal Finances Act 2017 (c. 22), section 51(1); the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018, section 59(4) and Schedule 3, paragraph 4; S.I. 2006/1629; and S.I. 2014/834.
[^f00037]: See section 143(4)(f) and (4A), as inserted by the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018, Schedule 3, paragraph 8(1) and (3).
[^f00038]: 1987 c. 4. Section 1 was amended by the Police Act 1996 (c. 16), Schedule 7, paragraph 41; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 1998 (c. 32), Schedule 4, paragraph 16; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 2000 (c. 32), section 78(2); the Police Reform Act 2002 (c. 30), section 79(3); and S.I. 2013/602.
[^f00039]: 2012 asp 8.
[^f00040]: 1996 c.16. Section 27 was amended by the Police and Justice Act 2006 (c. 48), Schedule 2, paragraph 23; the Policing and Crime Act 2009 (c. 26), Schedule 7, paragraphs 1 and 6; and the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011 (c. 13), Schedule 16, paragraph 26.
[^f00041]: 1847 c. 27. Section 79 was amended by S.I. 2006/2167.
[^f00042]: 2013 c. 23.
[^f00043]: 1964 c. 40. Section 16 was amended by section 29(2) of the Wales Act 2017 (c. 4); S.I. 1970/1681; and S.I. 1999/672. Other amendments have been made to section 16 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00044]: 2009 c. 11. Designated customs officials are designated, as either a general customs official or a customs revenue official, under sections 3 and 11 of this Act respectively.
[^f00045]: 2013 c. 22.
[^f00046]: Command 8941.
[^f00047]: Article 34 was amended by the Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), Schedule 24, paragraph 446(1). Article 35 was amended by the Sentencing Act 2020, Schedule 24, paragraph 446(1); S.I. 2009/1305; S.I. 2009/2151; and S.I. 2019/137. Article 37 was amended by S.I. 2012/1910; and S.I. 2019/137. Article 38 was amended by S.I. 2017/85; and S.I. 2019/137.
[^f00048]: S.I. 2019/136, amended by the Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), Schedule 24, paragraph 446(1); S.I. 2020/590; and S.I. 2020/951.
[^f00049]: Schedule 1 to the Interpretation Act 1978 (c. 30) provides that “IP completion day” has the same meaning as in the European Union (Withdrawal Agreement) Act 2020 (c. 1) (see section 39(1) to (5) of that Act).
[^f00050]: OJ No. L 121, 3.5.2013, p.1.
[^f00051]: Regulation 72(2) of the Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 provides that a licence is deemed to have been issued under those Regulations in respect of an existing trade licence (as defined in that regulation).
[^f00052]: Regulation 72(4) of the Burma (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 provides that an existing trade sanctions licence (as defined in that regulation) has effect as if it had been issued under those Regulations.
[^f00053]: 1986 c.45.
[^f00054]: S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I.19).
[^f00055]: United Nations Treaty Series, vol. 596, p.261.
[^f00056]: United Nations Treaty Series, vol. 500, p. 95.
Editorial notes
[^c24500141]: The power to make regulations under Part 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13) is conferred on an “appropriate Minister”. Section 1(9)(a) of that Act defines an “appropriate Minister” as including the Secretary of State.
[^c24500151]: 2018 c. 13. Section 17(5)(b)(i) (enforcement) is amended by the Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), Schedule 24, paragraph 443(1).
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