Financial Services and Markets Act 2000

Type Public General Act
Publication 2000-06-14
Last updated 2026-09-05
State In force
Department Statute Law Database
PDF Download
articles Not indexed

An Act to make provision about the regulation of financial services and markets; to provide for the transfer of certain statutory functions relating to building societies, friendly societies, industrial and provident societies and certain other mutual societies; and for connected purposes.

Reform history JSON API
  • (4) The FCA may refuse an application under this section if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its operational objectives , or the purpose for which the FCA must exercise its functions under Part 8B (see section 131U(1)).
  • (4A) The FCA may also refuse an application under this section if it appears to the FCA that the authorised person would not comply with requirements in Part 5 of the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Regulations 2013 (AIFs which acquire control of non-listed companies and issuers) that would apply to the authorised person.
  • (5) If on an application under subsection (2) or (3) the applicant is a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person, the FCA must consult the PRA before determining the application.
  • (6) If as a result of a variation of a Part 4A permission under this section there are no longer any regulated activities for which the authorised person concerned has permission, the FCA must, once it is satisfied that it is no longer necessary to keep the permission in force, cancel it.
  • (7) The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission under this section extends to including in the permission as varied any provision that could be included if a fresh permission were being given by it in response to an application under section 55A.

Variation by PRA at request of authorised person

55I
  • (1) On the application of a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission, the PRA may with the consent of the FCA vary the permission by—
  • (a) adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates;
  • (b) removing a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates;
  • (c) varying the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates

but the PRA may not under this subsection add, remove or vary the description of the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (administering a benchmark).

  • (2) On the application of a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission, the PRA may, after consulting the FCA, cancel the permission , but the PRA may not under this subsection cancel a permission where the only regulated activity to which the permission relates is the regulated activity in article 63S of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (administering a benchmark).
  • (3) On the application of an authorised person other than a PRA-authorised person, the PRA may with the consent of the FCA vary the permission by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity , but the PRA may not under this subsection add the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (administering a benchmark).
  • (4) The PRA may refuse an application under this section if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its objectives.
  • (5) The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed variation under this section if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
  • (6) If as a result of a variation of a Part 4A permission under this section there are no longer any regulated activities for which the authorised person concerned has permission, the PRA must, once it is satisfied after consulting the FCA that it is no longer necessary to keep the permission in force, cancel it.
  • (7) The PRA's power to vary a Part 4A permission under this section extends to including in the permission as varied any provision that could be included if a fresh permission were being given by it in response to an application under section 55A.
  • (8) Consent given by the FCA for the purposes of subsection (1) may be conditional on the manner in which the PRA exercises its powers under section 55F(3) and (4) (as a result of subsection (7)).

Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator

55J
  • (1) Either regulator may exercise its power under this section in relation to an authorised person with a Part 4A permission (“A”) if it appears to the regulator that—
  • (a) A is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the regulator is responsible,
  • (b) A has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates, ...
  • (c) it is desirable to exercise the power in order to advance—
  • (i) in the case of the FCA, one or more of its operational objectives,
  • (ii) in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives , or
  • (d) in the case of the FCA, A has failed to comply with a requirement in Part 5 of the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Regulations 2013 (AIFs which acquire control of non-listed companies and issuers), or it is for some other reason desirable to exercise the power for the purposes of ensuring compliance with such a requirement.
  • (2) The FCA's power under this section is the power—
  • (a) to vary the Part 4A permission by—
  • (i) adding a regulated activity other than a PRA-regulated activity to those to which the permission relates,
  • (ii) removing a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates, or
  • (iii) varying the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates in a way which, if it is a PRA-regulated activity, does not, in the opinion of the FCA, widen the description, or
  • (b) to cancel the Part 4A permission.
  • (3) The PRA's power under this section is the power—
  • (a) in the case of a PRA-authorised person, to vary the Part 4A permission in any of the ways mentioned in section 55I(1) or to cancel it;
  • (b) in the case of an authorised person who is not a PRA-authorised person, to vary the Part 4A permission by adding a PRA-regulated activity to those to which the permission relates and, if the PRA does so, to vary the Part 4A permission in any of the other ways mentioned in section 55I(1).
  • (4) The FCA—
  • (a) must consult the PRA before exercising its power under this section in relation to—
  • (i) a PRA-authorised person, or
  • (ii) a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person, and
  • (b) in the case of a PRA-authorised person, may exercise the power so as to add a new activity to those to which the permission relates or to widen the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates, only with the consent of the PRA

, but paragraph (b) does not apply in relation to the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (administering a benchmark).

  • (5) The PRA—
  • (a) must consult the FCA before exercising its power under this section, and
  • (b) may exercise the power so as to add a new activity to those to which the permission relates or to widen the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates, only with the consent of the FCA.
  • (6) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) to (3), a regulator may, in relation to an authorised person who is an investment firm, exercise its power under this section to cancel the Part 4A permission if it appears to it that any of the conditions in section 55K is met.
  • (6A) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) to (3), the FCA may, in relation to an authorised person who is a full-scope UKAIFM, exercise its power under this section to cancel the Part 4A permission if it appears to it that any of the following conditions is met—
  • (a) the person has failed, during a period of at least six months, to carry on the regulated activity of managing an AIF;
  • (b) the person obtained the Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of managing an AIF by making a false statement or by any other irregular means;
  • (c) in a case where the Part 4A permission includes permission to carry on the management of portfolios of investments in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, and client-by-client, basis, the person no longer complies with Part 9C rules;
  • (d) the person no longer meets the conditions that a person must meet in order to obtain a Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of managing an AIF;
  • (e) the person has seriously or systematically infringed—
  • (i) an AIFMD requirement;
  • (ii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (iii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (iv) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . or
  • (v) an MMF requirement.
  • (6AA) For the purposes of subsection (6A)(e)—
  • (a) an AIFMD requirement is a provision of—
  • (i) the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Regulations 2013,
  • (ii) any EU regulation, originally made under the alternative investment fund managers directive, which is assimilated direct legislation,
  • (iii) any provision made by or under this Act that immediately before IP completion day implemented provisions of the alternative investment fund managers directive (as that implementing provision is amended from time to time), or
  • (iv) any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) which is made under a power substituted for a power of an EU entity to make a directly applicable regulation under the alternative investment fund managers directive by regulations made under section 8 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018;
  • (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (c) an MMF requirement is a provision of—
  • (i) the MMF Regulation,
  • (ii) any EU regulation, originally made under the MMF Regulation, which is assimilated direct legislation, or
  • (iii) any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under the MMF Regulation on or after IP completion day.
  • (6B) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) to (3), the FCA may, in relation to an authorised person who is a mortgage intermediary and who has a Part 4A permission to carry on a relevant mortgage activity, exercise its power under this section to cancel the Part 4A permission or to vary the Part 4A permission by removing a relevant mortgage activity from the activities to which the permission relates, if it appears to the FCA that any of the following conditions is met—
  • (a) during a period of at least six months, the person has not carried on a relevant mortgage activity;
  • (b) the person obtained the Part 4A permission to carry on a relevant mortgage activity by making a false statement or by any other irregular means;
  • (c) the person no longer meets the conditions which the person was ... required to meet in order to be granted a Part 4A permission to carry on a relevant mortgage activity; or
  • (d) the person has seriously or systematically infringed any provision made by or under this Act which sets the operating conditions for mortgage intermediaries ....
  • (6C) In subsection (6B) “relevant mortgage activity” means—
  • (a) an activity of a kind specified in article 25A (arranging regulated mortgage contracts), article 53A (advising on regulated mortgage contracts) or article 53DA (advising on regulated credit agreements the purpose of which is to acquire land) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001, or
  • (b) an activity of a kind specified in article 36A of that Order (credit broking) which is referred to in Article 33(1)(a) of the mortgages directive.
  • (7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7ZA) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) and (2), if it appears to the FCA that there has been a serious failure, by a person with permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 51ZA of the Financial Services and Markets Act (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (managing a UK UCITS), to comply with the requirements imposed—
  • (a) by or under this Act in pursuance of the UCITS Directive, ...
  • (b) by the Undertakings for Collective Investment in Transferable Securities Regulations 2011, or
  • (c) an MMF requirement,

the FCA may exercise its powers under this section to vary the Part 4A permission of the person concerned by removing that activity from those to which the permission relates, or to cancel the person’s Part 4A permission.

  • (7ZB) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) and (2), the FCA may, in relation to an authorised person who is an investment firm, exercise its power under this section if it appears to it that the authorised person has failed to comply with a requirement imposed by—
  • (a) the market abuse regulation,
  • (b) any EU regulation, originally made under the market abuse regulation, which is assimilated direct legislation, or
  • (c) any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under the market abuse regulation on or after IP completion day.
  • (7ZC) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) and (2), if it appears to the FCA, in relation to a person who has a permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (administering a benchmark), that the conditions in Article 35(1) of the EU Benchmarks Regulation 2016 are met, the FCA may exercise its powers under this section—
  • (a) to vary the Part 4A permission by removing that activity from those to which the permission relates, or
  • (b) to cancel the Part 4A permission.
  • (7A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7B) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7C) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (8) If, as a result of a variation of a Part 4A permission under this section, there are no longer any regulated activities for which the authorised person concerned has permission, the regulator responsible for the variation must, once it is satisfied that it is no longer necessary to keep the permission in force, cancel it.
  • (9) Before cancelling under subsection (8) a Part 4A permission which relates to a person who (before the variation) was a PRA-authorised person, the regulator must consult the other regulator.
  • (10) The power of either regulator to vary a Part 4A permission under this section extends to including in the permission as varied any provision that could be included if a fresh permission were being given in response to an application to that regulator under section 55A.
  • (11) Consent given by one regulator for the purpose of subsection (4)(b) or (5)(b) may be conditional on the manner in which the other regulator exercises its powers under section 55E(4) and (5) or 55F(3) and (4) (as a result of subsection (10)).
  • (12) The power of the FCA or the PRA under this section is referred to in this Part as its own-initiative variation power.
  • (13) In this section “enactment” has the meaning given by section 3T.

Variation or cancellation on initiative of FCA: additional power

55JA
  • (1) Schedule 6A confers an additional power on the FCA to vary or cancel an FCA-authorised person's Part 4A permission.
  • (2) In this section and that Schedule “FCA-authorised person” means an authorised person who is not a PRA-authorised person.

Investment firms: particular conditions that enable cancellation

55K
  • (1) The conditions referred to in section 55J(6) are as follows—
  • (a) that the firm has failed, during a period of at least 6 months, to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity for which it has a Part 4A permission;
  • (b) that the firm obtained the Part 4A permission by making a false statement or by other irregular means;
  • (c) that the firm no longer satisfies the requirements for authorisation ... in relation to a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity for which it has a Part 4A permission;
  • (d) that the firm has seriously and systematically infringed any assimilated direct legislation, or any provision made by or under this Act, which sets the operating conditions in relation to a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity for which it has a Part 4A permission;
  • (e) that the firm has seriously or systematically infringed the markets in financial instruments regulation.
  • (2) For the purposes of this section a regulated activity is an investment service or activity if it falls within the definition of “investment services and activities” in section 417(1).

Insurance undertakings, reinsurance undertakings and third-country insurance undertakings: particular conditions that enable cancellation

55KA

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Imposition and variation of requirements

Imposition of requirements by FCA

55L
  • (1) Where a person has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA may impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the giving or variation of the permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
  • (2) The FCA may exercise its power under subsection (3) in relation to an authorised person with a Part 4A permission (whether given by it or by the PRA) (“A”) if it appears to the FCA that—
  • (a) A is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,
  • (b) A has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates, or
  • (c) it is desirable to exercise the power in order to advance one or more of the FCA's operational objectives.
  • (3) The FCA's power under this subsection is a power—
  • (a) to impose a new requirement,
  • (b) to vary a requirement imposed by the FCA under this section, or
  • (c) to cancel such a requirement.
  • (4) The FCA's power under subsection (3) is referred to in this Part as its own-initiative requirement power.
  • (5) The FCA may, on the application of an authorised person with a Part 4A permission—
  • (a) impose a new requirement,
  • (b) vary a requirement imposed by the FCA under this section, or
  • (c) cancel such a requirement.
  • (6) The FCA may refuse an application under subsection (5) if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its operational objectives , or the purpose for which the FCA must exercise its functions under Part 8B (see section 131U(1)).
  • (7) The FCA must consult the PRA before imposing or varying a requirement which relates to—
  • (a) a person who is, or will on the granting of an application for Part 4A permission be, a PRA-authorised person, or
  • (b) a person who is a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person.

Imposition of requirements by PRA

55M
  • (1) Where—
  • (a) a person has applied for a Part 4A permission in relation to activities which consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity,
  • (b) a PRA-authorised person has applied for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission, or
  • (c) an authorised person other than a PRA-authorised person has applied for a Part 4A permission to be varied by adding to the regulated activities to which it relates one or more regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity,

the PRA may impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the giving or variation of the permission, as the PRA considers appropriate.

  • (2) The PRA may exercise its power under subsection (3) in relation to a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission (“P”) if it appears to the PRA that—
  • (a) P is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the PRA is responsible,
  • (b) P has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates, or
  • (c) it is desirable to exercise the power in order to advance any of the PRA's objectives.
  • (3) The PRA's power under this subsection is a power—
  • (a) to impose a new requirement,
  • (b) to vary a requirement imposed by the PRA under this section, or
  • (c) to cancel such a requirement.
  • (4) The PRA's power under subsection (3) is referred to in this Part as its own-initiative requirement power.
  • (5) The PRA may, on the application of a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission—
  • (a) impose a new requirement,
  • (b) vary a requirement imposed by the PRA under this section, or
  • (c) cancel such a requirement.
  • (6) The PRA may refuse an application under subsection (5) if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its objectives.
  • (6A) The PRA may not exercise its powers under this section to impose a requirement relating to the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (administering a benchmark).
  • (7) The PRA must consult the FCA before imposing or varying a requirement.

Requirements under section 55L or 55M: further provisions

55N
  • (1) A requirement may, in particular, be imposed—
  • (a) so as to require the person concerned to take specified action, or
  • (b) so as to require the person concerned to refrain from taking specified action.
  • (2) A requirement may extend to activities which are not regulated activities.
  • (3) A requirement may be imposed by reference to the person's relationship with—
  • (a) the person's group, or
  • (b) other members of the person's group.
  • (4) A requirement may be expressed to expire at the end of such period as the regulator imposing it may specify, but the imposition of a requirement that expires at the end of a specified period does not affect the regulator's power to impose a new requirement.
  • (5) A requirement may refer to the past conduct of the person concerned (for example, by requiring the person concerned to review or take remedial action in respect of past conduct).
  • (6) In this section “requirement” means a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M.

General requirement relating to financial promotion approval

55NA
  • (1) An authorised person must not approve the content of a communication for the purposes of section 21 unless the person has permission to do so given by the FCA under this section.
  • (2) An authorised person who approves the content of a communication for the purposes of section 21 otherwise than in accordance with permission granted under this section is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed on the person by the FCA under this Act.
  • (3) Permission may be granted by the FCA under this section on the application of—
  • (a) an authorised person, or
  • (b) an applicant for Part 4A permission that has yet to be determined.
  • (4) The FCA may grant a person permission under this section—
  • (a) on the terms sought in the application (which may include the grant of permission to give approvals generally for the purposes of section 21), or
  • (b) subject to any other terms the FCA considers appropriate (which may in particular provide for the giving of permission in a narrower description of case than that sought in the application).
  • (5) Where the FCA grants permission to a person under this section, the FCA may vary or cancel the permission—
  • (a) on the application of the person to whom it was given, or
  • (b) of its own initiative,

and subsection (4)(b) applies to the variation of permission as it applies to its grant.

  • (6) If the FCA grants or varies permission under this section it must set out the terms on which the permission is given, described in such way as it considers appropriate.
  • (7) The FCA may refuse to grant an application for permission under this section, or for its variation or cancellation under subsection (5)(a), if it appears to the FCA that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
  • (8) The FCA may vary or cancel a person’s permission under subsection (5)(b) if it appears to the FCA that—
  • (a) the person has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to give, or to refuse to give, any approvals for the purposes of section 21 in accordance with the permission, or
  • (b) it is desirable to vary or cancel the permission in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
  • (9) The FCA must consult—
  • (a) the PRA before giving permission under this section to, or before varying or cancelling permission under this section given to—
  • (i) a person who is, or will on the granting of an application for Part 4A permission be, a PRA-authorised person, or
  • (ii) a person who is a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person;
  • (b) the Gibraltar regulator (within the meaning of Schedule 2A) before giving permission under this section to, or before varying or cancelling permission under this section given to, a Gibraltar-based person.
  • (10) Subsection (9)(b) does not apply in a case where the FCA varies or cancels permission of a Gibraltar-based person in exercise of its power under subsection (5)(b), but the FCA must inform the Gibraltar regulator in writing of the variation or cancellation.
  • (11) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply if the giving of approval falls within an exemption conferred by regulations made under section 55NB.
  • (12) Nothing in this section limits any other power under this Act to impose requirements in relation to approvals given for the purposes of section 21 so far as those requirements are additional to the requirement imposed by subsection (1) of this section (but any such other requirement that is inconsistent with the requirement imposed by that subsection is of no effect to the extent of that inconsistency).

Section 55NA: power to provide for exemptions

55NB
  • (1) The Treasury may by regulations provide for exemptions from the requirement imposed by section 55NA(1) not to give approvals for the purposes of section 21 without permission.
  • (2) Regulations under subsection (1) may provide for an exemption to have effect—
  • (a) in respect of specified persons;
  • (b) in respect of persons falling within a specified class;
  • (c) in respect of approval given in relation to activities of a specified description;
  • (d) only in specified circumstances;
  • (e) subject to specified conditions.
  • (3) In this section “specified” means specified in regulations under this section.

Imposition of requirements on acquisition of control

55O
  • (1) This section applies if it appears to the appropriate regulator that—
  • (a) a person has acquired control over a UK authorised person who has a Part 4A permission, but
  • (b) there are no grounds for exercising its own-initiative requirement power or (as the case may be) the power under section 55NA(5)(b).
  • (2) If it appears to the appropriate regulator that the likely effect of the acquisition of control on the UK authorised person, or on any of its activities, is uncertain, the appropriate regulator may—
  • (a) impose on the UK authorised person a requirement that could be imposed by that regulator under section 55L , 55M or 55NA (as the case may be) on the giving of permission, or
  • (b) vary a requirement imposed by that regulator under that section on the UK authorised person.
  • (3) “The appropriate regulator” means—
  • (a) in a case where the UK authorised person is a PRA-authorised person and the case does not relate to a requirement that is imposed (or that could be imposed) under section 55NA, the FCA or the PRA;
  • (b) in any other case, the FCA.
  • (4) This section does not affect any duty of the appropriate regulator to consult or obtain the consent of the other regulator in connection with the imposition of the requirement.
  • (5) Any reference to a person having acquired control is to be read in accordance with Part 12.

Prohibitions and restrictions

55P
  • (1) This section applies if—
  • (a) on a person being given a Part 4A permission, either regulator imposes an assets requirement on that person,
  • (b) an assets requirement is imposed on an authorised person, or
  • (c) an assets requirement previously imposed on such a person is varied.
  • (2) A person on whom an assets requirement is imposed is referred to in this section as “A”.
  • (3) The “appropriate regulator” is the regulator which imposed the requirement.
  • (4) “Assets requirement” means a requirement under section 55L or 55M—
  • (a) prohibiting the disposal of, or other dealing with, any of A's assets (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) or restricting such disposals or dealings, or
  • (b) that all or any of A's assets, or all or any assets belonging to consumers but held by A or to A's order, must be transferred to and held by a trustee approved by the appropriate regulator.
  • (5) If the appropriate regulator—
  • (a) imposes a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(a), and
  • (b) gives notice of the requirement to any institution with whom A keeps an account,

the notice has the effects mentioned in subsection (6).

  • (6) Those effects are that—
  • (a) the institution does not act in breach of any contract with A if, having been instructed by A (or on A's behalf) to transfer any sum or otherwise make any payment out of A's account, it refuses to do so in the reasonably held belief that complying with the instruction would be incompatible with the requirement, and
  • (b) if the institution complies with such an instruction, it is liable to pay to the appropriate regulator an amount equal to the amount transferred from, or otherwise paid out of, A's account in contravention of the requirement.
  • (7) If the appropriate regulator imposes a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(b), no assets held by a person as trustee in accordance with the requirement may, while the requirement is in force, be released or dealt with except with the consent of the appropriate regulator.
  • (8) If, while a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(b) is in force, A creates a charge over any assets of A held in accordance with the requirement, the charge is (to the extent that it confers security over the assets) void against the liquidator and any of A's creditors.
  • (9) Assets held by a person as trustee (“T”) are to be taken to be held by T in accordance with any requirement mentioned in subsection (4)(b) only if—
  • (a) A has given T written notice that those assets are to be held by T in accordance with the requirement, or
  • (b) they are assets into which assets to which paragraph (a) applies have been transposed by T on the instructions of A.
  • (10) A person who contravenes subsection (7) is guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
  • (11) “Charge” includes a mortgage (or in Scotland a security over property).
  • (12) Subsections (7) and (9) do not affect any equitable interest or remedy in favour of a person who is a beneficiary of a trust as a result of a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(b).

Assets requirements imposed on insurance undertakings or reinsurance undertakings

55PA

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Requirements relating to general meetings

55PB
  • (1) This section applies where—
  • (a) either regulator has imposed a general meeting requirement on an authorised person who is a bank, building society or investment firm,
  • (b) the authorised person has not complied with the general meeting requirement, and
  • (c) the appropriate regulator considers that the authorised person has infringed, or is likely in the near future to infringe—
  • (i) a relevant requirement within the meaning of section 204A; or
  • (ii) one or more of Articles 3 to 7, 14 to 17 or 24 to 26 of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014 of 15th May 2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council on Markets in Financial Instruments.
  • (2) A general meeting requirement is a requirement under section 55L or 55M that the authorised person call a general meeting of its shareholders or members.
  • (3) The appropriate regulator may call a general meeting of the shareholders or members of the authorised person.
  • (4) The appropriate regulator may propose business for consideration and decision at the general meeting.
  • (5) The meeting must be called in the same manner, as far as practicable, as that in which meetings are required to be called by the board of directors (or the equivalent management body) of the authorised person.
  • (6) For the purposes of this section—
  • “bank” has the meaning given in section 2 of the Banking Act 2009;
  • “building society” has the meaning given in the Building Societies Act 1986;
  • “investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 4(1)(2) of the capital requirements regulation;
  • “the appropriate regulator” means the regulator who imposed the general meeting requirement.

Exercise of power in support of overseas regulator

Exercise of power in support of overseas regulator

55Q
  • (1) Either UK regulator's own-initiative powers may be exercised in respect of an authorised person at the request of, or for the purpose of assisting, an overseas regulator of a prescribed kind.
  • (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) Subsection (1) does not affect any duty of one UK regulator to consult or obtain the consent of the other UK regulator in relation to the exercise of its own-initiative powers.
  • (4) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (5) In deciding whether or not to exercise its own-initiative powers in response to a request, the UK regulator may take into account in particular—
  • (a) whether in the country or territory of the overseas regulator concerned, corresponding assistance would be given to a United Kingdom regulatory authority;
  • (b) whether the case concerns the breach of a law, or other requirement, which has no close parallel in the United Kingdom or involves the assertion of a jurisdiction not recognised by the United Kingdom;
  • (c) the seriousness of the case and its importance to persons in the United Kingdom;
  • (d) whether it is otherwise appropriate in the public interest to give the assistance sought.
  • (6) The UK regulator may decide not to exercise its own-initiative powers, in response to a request, unless the overseas regulator concerned undertakes to make such contribution towards the cost of their exercise as the UK regulator considers appropriate.
  • (7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (8) In subsections (5) and (6) “request” means a request of a kind mentioned in subsection (1).
  • (9) In this section—
  • (a) “UK regulator” means the FCA or the PRA;
  • (b) “overseas regulator” means a regulator outside the United Kingdom;
  • (c) “own-initiative powers”, in relation to the FCA or the PRA, means its own-initiative variation power and its own-initiative requirement power.

Connected persons

Persons connected with an applicant

55R
  • (1) In considering—
  • (a) an application for a Part 4A permission,
  • (b) whether to vary or cancel a Part 4A permission,
  • (ba) an application for permission under section 55NA,
  • (bb) whether to vary or cancel permission under section 55NA,
  • (c) whether to impose or vary a requirement under this Part, or
  • (d) whether to give any consent required by any provision of this Part,

the regulator concerned may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the applicant or a person given permission which is relevant.

  • (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3B) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (8) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (9) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Additional permissions

Duty of FCA or PRA to consider other permissions

55S

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Persons whose interests are protected

Persons whose interests are protected

55T

For the purpose of any provision of this Part which refers to the FCA's operational objectives, the purpose for which the FCA must exercise its functions under Part 8B, or the PRA's objectives in relation to the exercise of a power in relation to a particular person, it does not matter whether there is a relationship between that person and the persons whose interests will be protected by the exercise of the power.

Procedure

Applications under this Part

55U
  • (1) An application for a Part 4A permission must—
  • (a) contain a statement of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the applicant proposes to carry on and for which the applicant wishes to have permission, and
  • (b) give the address of a place in the United Kingdom for service on the applicant of any notice or other document which is required or authorised to be served on the applicant under this Act.
  • (2) An application for the variation of a Part 4A permission must contain a statement—
  • (a) of the desired variation, and
  • (b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the applicant proposes to carry on if the permission is varied.
  • (3) An application for the variation of a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M or for the imposition of a new requirement must contain a statement of the desired variation or requirement.
  • (3A) An application for permission under section 55NA, or for the variation of permission under that section, must contain a statement of the desired permission or variation.
  • (4) An application under this Part must—
  • (a) be made in such manner as the regulator to which it is to be made may direct, and
  • (b) contain, or be accompanied by, such other information as that regulator may reasonably require.
  • (5) At any time after the application is received and before it is determined, the appropriate regulator may require the applicant to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or, as the case requires, to decide whether to give consent.
  • (6) In subsection (5), the “appropriate regulator” means—
  • (a) in a case where the application is made to the FCA, the FCA;
  • (b) in a case where the application is made to the PRA, the FCA or the PRA.
  • (7) Different directions may be given, and different requirements imposed, in relation to different applications or categories of application.
  • (8) Each regulator may require an applicant to provide information which the applicant is required to provide to it under this section in such form, or to verify it in such a way, as the regulator may direct.
  • (9) The PRA must consult the FCA before—
  • (a) giving a direction under this section in relation to a class of applications, or
  • (b) imposing a requirement under this section in relation to a class of applications.

Determination of applications

55V
  • (1) An application under this Part must be determined by the regulator to which it is required to be made (“the appropriate regulator”) before the end of the period of 6 months beginning with the date on which it received the completed application.
  • (2) The appropriate regulator may determine an incomplete application if it considers it appropriate to do so; and it must in any event determine such an application within 12 months beginning with the date on which it received the application.
  • (3) Where the application cannot be determined by the appropriate regulator without the consent of the other regulator, the other regulator's decision must also be made within the period required by subsection (1) or (2).
  • (4) The applicant may withdraw the application, by giving the appropriate regulator written notice, at any time before the appropriate regulator determines it.
  • (5) If the appropriate regulator grants an application—
  • (a) for Part 4A permission,
  • (b) for the variation or cancellation of a Part 4A permission,
  • (c) for the variation or cancellation of a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M, ...
  • (d) for the imposition of a new requirement under either of those sections , or
  • (e) for permission under section 55NA or for the variation or cancellation of permission granted under that section,

it must give the applicant written notice.

  • (6) The notice must state the date from which the permission, variation, cancellation or requirement has effect.
  • (7) A notice under this section which is given by the PRA and relates to the grant of an application for Part 4A permission or for the variation of a Part 4A permission must state that the FCA has given its consent to the grant of the application.
  • (8) In the case of an application for permission under this Part which—
  • (a) relates to the regulated activity of managing an AIF, and
  • (b) would if granted result in the applicant becoming a full-scope UKAIFM,

this section has effect subject to regulation 5 of the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Regulations 2013 and, accordingly, subsections (1) to (3) do not apply.

  • (9) In the case of an application which—
  • (a) is for a Part 4A permission or a variation of a Part 4A permission, and
  • (b) relates only to the undertaking of insurance distribution activity,

subsection (1) has effect as if the reference to “6 months” were to “3 months”.

  • (10) In this section, “insurance distribution activity” has the meaning given in article 92 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001.

Applications under this Part: communications between regulators

55W

The PRA must as soon as practicable notify the FCA of the receipt or withdrawal of—

  • (a) an application for permission under section 55A,
  • (b) an application under section 55I, or
  • (c) an application under section 55M(5).

Determination of applications: warning notices and decision notices

55X
  • (1) If a regulator proposes—
  • (a) to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
  • (b) to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the application for permission,
  • (c) to vary a Part 4A permission on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
  • (d) to vary a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the application for variation, ...
  • (e) in the case of the FCA, to exercise its power under section 55L(1) in connection with an application to the PRA for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission,
  • (f) to give permission under section 55NA but to exercise its power under subsection (4)(b) of that section, or
  • (g) to vary permission under section 55NA on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under subsection (4)(b) of that section,

it must give the applicant a warning notice.

  • (2) If a regulator proposes to refuse an application made under this Part, it must ... give the applicant a warning notice.
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) If a regulator decides—
  • (a) to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
  • (b) to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the giving of the permission,
  • (c) to vary a Part 4A permission on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
  • (d) to vary a Part 4A permission on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the variation,
  • (e) in the case of the FCA, to exercise its power under section 55L(1) in connection with an application to the PRA for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission, ...
  • (ea) to give permission under section 55NA but to exercise its power under subsection (4)(b) of that section,
  • (eb) to vary permission under section 55NA on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under subsection (4)(b) of that section, or
  • (f) to refuse an application under this Part,

it must give the applicant a decision notice.

  • (5) This section does not apply to applications to which section 55XA applies.

Applications relating to administering a benchmark

55XA
  • (1) If the FCA decides—
  • (a) to give a Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the RAO (administering a benchmark) but to exercise its power in section 55E(5)(a) or (b) in connection with the application for permission,
  • (b) to give a Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the RAO (administering a benchmark) but to exercise its power in section 55L(1) in connection with the application for permission,
  • (c) to vary a Part 4A permission to include permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the RAO (administering a benchmark) on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power in section 55E(5)(a) or (b) in connection with the application for variation,
  • (d) to vary a Part 4A permission to include permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the RAO (administering a benchmark) on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power in section 55L(1) in connection with the application for variation,
  • (e) to refuse an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the RAO (administering a benchmark), or
  • (f) to refuse an application for a variation of a Part 4A permission to include permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 63S of the RAO (administering a benchmark),

it must give the applicant a written notice.

  • (2) A written notice under subsection (1) must—
  • (a) give details of the decision made by the FCA,
  • (b) state the FCA's reasons for the decision,
  • (c) state whether the decision takes effect immediately or on such date as may be specified in the notice,
  • (d) inform the applicant that the applicant may either—
  • (i) request a review of the decision, and make written representations for the purpose of the review, within such period as may be specified in the notice, or
  • (ii) refer the matter to the Tribunal within such period as may be specified in the notice, and
  • (e) indicate the procedure on a reference to the Tribunal.
  • (3) If the applicant requests a review of the decision made by the FCA (“the original decision”), the FCA must consider any written representations made by the applicant and review the original decision.
  • (4) On a review under subsection (3) the FCA may make any decision (“the new decision”) the FCA could have made on the application.
  • (5) The FCA must give the applicant written notice of its decision on the review.
  • (6) If the new decision is to do any of the things mentioned in subsection (1)(a) to (f), the written notice under subsection (5) must—
  • (a) give details of the new decision made by the FCA,
  • (b) state the FCA's reasons for the new decision,
  • (c) inform the applicant that the applicant may, within such period as may be specified in the notice, refer the new decision to the Tribunal, and
  • (d) indicate the procedure on a reference to the Tribunal.
  • (8) In this section “the RAO” means the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001.

Exercise of own-initiative power: procedure

55Y
  • (1) This section applies to an exercise of either regulator's own-initiative variation power or own-initiative requirement power in relation to an authorised person (“A”).
  • (1A) This section also applies to an exercise of the FCA’s power under subsection (5)(b) of section 55NA to vary of its own initiative a permission given under that section to an authorised person (“A”).
  • (1B) References in this section to a regulator’s own initiative variation power are to be taken as including the power mentioned in subsection (1A).
  • (2) A variation of a permission or the imposition or variation of a requirement takes effect—
  • (a) immediately, if the notice given under subsection (4) states that that is the case,
  • (b) on such date as may be specified in the notice, or
  • (c) if no date is specified in the notice, when the matter to which the notice relates is no longer open to review.
  • (3) A variation of a permission, or the imposition or variation of a requirement, may be expressed to take effect immediately (or on a specified date) only if the regulator concerned, having regard to the ground on which it is exercising its own-initiative variation power or own-initiative requirement power, reasonably considers that it is necessary for the variation, or the imposition or variation of the requirement, to take effect immediately (or on that date).
  • (4) If either regulator—
  • (a) proposes to vary a Part 4A permission or to impose or vary a requirement,
  • (b) varies a Part 4A permission, or imposes or varies a requirement, with immediate effect,
  • (c) proposes to vary a permission under section 55NA, or
  • (d) varies permission under section 55NA with immediate effect,

it must give A written notice.

  • (5) The notice must—
  • (a) give details of the variation of the permission or the requirement or its variation,
  • (b) state the regulator's reasons for the variation of the permission or the imposition or variation of the requirement,
  • (c) inform A that A may make representations to the regulator within such period as may be specified in the notice (whether or not A has referred the matter to the Tribunal),
  • (d) inform A of when the variation of the permission or the imposition or variation of the requirement takes effect, and
  • (e) inform A of A's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (6) The regulator may extend the period allowed under the notice for making representations.
  • (7) If, having considered any representations made by A, the regulator decides—
  • (a) to vary the permission, or impose or vary the requirement, in the way proposed, or
  • (b) if the permission has been varied or the requirement imposed or varied, not to rescind the variation of the permission or the imposition or variation of the requirement,

it must give A written notice.

  • (8) If, having considered any representations made by A, the regulator decides—
  • (a) not to vary the permission, or impose or vary the requirement, in the way proposed,
  • (b) to vary the permission or requirement in a different way, or impose a different requirement, or
  • (c) to rescind a variation or requirement which has effect,

it must give A written notice.

  • (9) A notice under subsection (7) must inform A of A's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (10) A notice under subsection (8)(b) must comply with subsection (5).
  • (11) If a notice informs A of A's right to refer a matter to the Tribunal, it must give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
  • (12) For the purposes of subsection (2)(c), whether a matter is open to review is to be determined in accordance with section 391(8).

Cancellation of Part 4A permission or permission under section 55NA: procedure

55Z
  • (1) If a regulator proposes to cancel an authorised person's Part 4A permission or permission under section 55NA otherwise than at the person's request, it must give the person a warning notice.
  • (2) If a regulator decides to cancel an authorised person's Part 4A permission or permission under section 55NA otherwise than at the person's request, it must give the person a decision notice.

Notification

Notification of ESMA

55Z1

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Notification of EBA

55Z2

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Notification of the European bodies

55Z2A

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

References to the Tribunal

Right to refer matters to the Tribunal

55Z3
  • (1) An applicant who is aggrieved by the determination of an application made under this Part may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (2) An authorised person who is aggrieved by the exercise by either regulator of its own-initiative variation power or its own-initiative requirement power may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (2A) An authorised person who is aggrieved by the exercise by the FCA of its power under section 55NA(5)(b) may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (3) Where there is a review under section 55XA(3) of a determination within section 55XA(1), subsection (1) applies only in relation to the determination made on the review.

Interpretation

Interpretation of Part 4A

55Z4

In this Part—

  • “own-initiative requirement power”, in relation to the FCA or the PRA, is to be read in accordance with section 55L(4) or 55M(4);
  • “own-initiative variation power”, in relation to the FCA or the PRA, is to be read in accordance with section 55J(12).

Part V — Performance of Regulated Activities

Prohibition orders

Prohibition orders.

56
  • (1) The FCA may make a prohibition order if it appears to it that an individual is not a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
  • (a) an authorised person,
  • (b) a person who is an exempt person in relation to that activity, or
  • (c) a person to whom, as a result of Part 20, the general prohibition does not apply in relation to that activity.
  • (1A) The PRA may make a prohibition order if it appears to it that an individual is not a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
  • (a) a PRA-authorised person, or
  • (b) a person who is an exempt person in relation to a PRA-regulated activity carried on by the person.
  • (2) A “prohibition order” is an order prohibiting the individual from performing a specified function, any function falling within a specified description or any function.
  • (3) A prohibition order may relate to—
  • (a) a specified regulated activity, any regulated activity falling within a specified description or all regulated activities;
  • (b) all persons falling within subsection (3A) or a particular paragraph of that subsection or all persons within a specified class of person falling within a particular paragraph of that subsection.
  • (3A) A person falls within this subsection if the person is—
  • (a) an authorised person,
  • (b) an exempt person, or
  • (c) a person to whom, as a result of Part 20, the general prohibition does not apply in relation to a regulated activity.
  • (4) An individual who performs or agrees to perform a function in breach of a prohibition order is guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
  • (5) In proceedings for an offence under subsection (4) it is a defence for the accused to show that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the offence.
  • (6) A person falling within subsection (3A) must take reasonable care to ensure that no function of his, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity, is performed by a person who is prohibited from performing that function by a prohibition order.
  • (7) The regulator that has made a prohibition order may, on the application of the individual named in the order, vary or revoke it.
  • (7A) If—
  • (a) the FCA proposes to vary or revoke a prohibition order, and
  • (b) as a result of the proposed variation or revocation, an individual—
  • (i) will no longer be prohibited from performing a function of interest to the PRA, or
  • (ii) will be prohibited from performing such a function,

the FCA must consult the PRA before varying or revoking the order.

  • (7B) A function is of interest to the PRA if it is performed in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
  • (a) a PRA-authorised person, or
  • (b) a person who is an exempt person in relation to a PRA-regulated activity carried on by the person.
  • (7C) The PRA must consult the FCA before varying or revoking a prohibition order.
  • (7D) If—
  • (a) the FCA proposes to vary or revoke a prohibition order which makes provision in relation to a recognised body, and
  • (b) the FCA is not the appropriate regulator in relation to recognised bodies of that type,

the FCA must consult the appropriate regulator.

  • (7E) If the PRA proposes to vary or revoke a prohibition order which makes provision in relation to a recognised body, the PRA must consult the appropriate regulator in relation to recognised bodies of that type.
  • (8) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (9) “Specified” means specified in the prohibition order.
  • (9) In this section—
  • “the appropriate regulator”, in relation to a recognised body, has the meaning given by section 285A;
  • “recognised body” has the meaning given by section 313;
  • “specified” means specified in the prohibition order.

Prohibition orders: procedure and right to refer to Tribunal.

57
  • (1) If a regulator proposes to make a prohibition order it must give the individual concerned a warning notice.
  • (2) The warning notice must set out the terms of the prohibition.
  • (3) If a regulator decides to make a prohibition order it must give the individual concerned a decision notice.
  • (4) The decision notice must—
  • (a) name the individual to whom the prohibition order applies;
  • (b) set out the terms of the order; and
  • (c) be given to the individual named in the order.
  • (5) A person against whom a decision to make a prohibition order is made may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (6) If—
  • (a) the FCA proposes to make a prohibition order, and
  • (b) as a result of the proposed order, an individual will be prohibited from performing a function of interest to the PRA,

the FCA must consult the PRA before giving a warning notice under this section.

  • (7) A function is of interest to the PRA if it is performed in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
  • (a) a PRA-authorised person, or
  • (b) a person who is an exempt person in relation to a PRA-regulated activity carried on by the person.
  • (8) The PRA must consult the FCA before giving a warning notice under this section.
  • (9) If—
  • (a) the FCA proposes to make a prohibition order which makes provision in relation to a recognised body, and
  • (b) the FCA is not the appropriate regulator in relation to recognised bodies of that type,

the FCA must consult the appropriate regulator before giving a warning notice under this section.

  • (10) If the PRA proposes to make a prohibition order which makes provision in relation to a recognised body, the PRA must consult the appropriate regulator in relation to recognised bodies of that type before giving a warning notice under this section.
  • (11) In this section—
  • “the appropriate regulator”, in relation to a recognised body, has the meaning given by section 285A;
  • “recognised body” has the meaning given by section 313;

Applications relating to prohibitions: procedure and right to refer to Tribunal.

58
  • (1) This section applies to an application for the variation or revocation of a prohibition order.
  • (2) If the appropriate regulator decides to grant the application, it must give the applicant written notice of its decision.
  • (3) If the appropriate regulator proposes to refuse the application, it must give the applicant a warning notice.
  • (4) If the appropriate regulator decides to refuse the application, it must give the applicant a decision notice.
  • (5) If the appropriate regulator gives the applicant a decision notice, he may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
  • (6) The appropriate regulator” means the regulator to which the application is made.

Approval

Approval for particular arrangements.

59
  • (1) An authorised person (“A”) must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless that person is acting in accordance with an approval given by the appropriate regulator under this section.
  • (2) An authorised person (“A”) must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a contractor of A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless that person is acting in accordance with an approval given by the appropriate regulator under this section.
  • (3) “Controlled function”—
  • (a) in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a PRA-authorised person, means a function of a description specified in rules made by the FCA or the PRA, and
  • (b) in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by any other authorised person, means a function of a description specified in rules made by the FCA.
  • (4) “The appropriate regulator”—
  • (a) in relation to a controlled function which is of a description specified in rules made by the FCA, means the FCA, and
  • (b) in relation to a controlled function which is of a description specified in rules made by the PRA, means the PRA with the consent of the FCA.
  • (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (6) The PRA may specify a description of function under subsection (3)(a) only if, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a PRA-authorised person, it is satisfied that the function is a senior management function as defined in section 59ZA.
  • (6A) If the FCA is satisfied that a function of a description specified in rules made by the FCA under subsection (3)(a) or (b) is a senior management function as defined in section 59ZA, the FCA must designate the function in the rules as a senior management function.
  • (6B) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (6C) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7B) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7C) A regulator may not exercise the power in subsection (3) so as to provide for a function to be a controlled function in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity of managing an AIF by an AIFM which—
  • (a) is also an AIF;
  • (b) does not manage any AIF other than itself;
  • (c) is a body corporate; and
  • (d) is not a collective investment scheme.
  • (8) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (9) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (10) “Arrangement”—
  • (a) means any kind of arrangement for the performance of a function of A which is entered into by A or any contractor of his with another person; and
  • (b) includes, in particular, that other person’s appointment to an office, his becoming a partner or his employment (whether under a contract of service or otherwise).
  • (11) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Senior management functions

59ZA
  • (1) This section has effect for determining whether a function is for the purposes of section 59(6) or (6A) a senior management function.
  • (2) A function is a “senior management function”, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by an authorised person, if—
  • (a) the function will require the person performing it to be responsible for managing one or more aspects of the authorised person's affairs, so far as relating to the activity, and
  • (b) those aspects involve, or might involve, a risk of serious consequences—
  • (i) for the authorised person, or
  • (ii) for business or other interests in the United Kingdom.
  • (3) In subsection (2)(a) the reference to managing one or more aspects of an authorised person's affairs includes a reference to taking decisions, or participating in the taking of decisions, about how one or more aspects of those affairs should be carried on.

Designated senior management functions

59ZB

For the purposes of this Part the following are “designated senior management functions”—

  • (a) a function of a description specified in rules made by the FCA under section 59(3)(a) or (b) which is designated as a senior management function by the FCA under section 59(6A);
  • (b) a function of a description specified in rules made by the PRA under section 59(3)(a).

Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary

59A
  • (1) The FCA must—
  • (a) keep under review the exercise of its power under section 59(3)(a) to specify any senior management function as a controlled function, and
  • (b) exercise that power in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals fall to be given by both the FCA and the PRA in respect of the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by the same PRA-authorised person.
  • (2) The FCA and the PRA must each consult the other before exercising any power under section 59(3)(a).
  • (3) Any reference in this section to the exercise of a power includes its exercise by way of amendment or revocation of provision previously made in the exercise of the power.
  • (3A) “Senior management function” has the meaning given by section 59ZA.
  • (4) “Approval” means an approval under section 59.
  • (5) Any expression which is used both in this section and section 59 has the same meaning in this section as in that section.

Specifying functions as controlled functions: transitional provision

59AB
  • (1) In relation to rules made by the FCA or the PRA under section 59, the power conferred by section 137T(c) to make transitional provision includes in particular power—
  • (a) to provide for anything done under this Part or Chapter 2A of Part 18 in relation to controlled functions of a particular description to be treated as having been done in relation to controlled functions of a different description;
  • (b) to provide for anything done under this Part or Chapter 2A of Part 18 (including any application or order made, any requirement imposed and any approval or notice given) to cease to have effect, to continue to have effect, or to continue to have effect with modifications, or subject to time limits or conditions;
  • (c) to provide for rules made by the regulator making the rules under section 59 to apply with modifications;
  • (d) to make saving provision.
  • (2) The Treasury may by regulations make whatever incidental, consequential, transitional, supplemental or saving provision the Treasury consider appropriate in connection with the making of rules by the FCA or the PRA under section 59.
  • (3) Regulations under subsection (2) may—
  • (a) confer functions on the FCA or the PRA (including the function of making rules);
  • (b) modify, exclude or apply (with or without modifications) any primary or subordinate legislation (including any provision of, or made under, this Act).

Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions

59B
  • (1) The FCA may arrange with the PRA that in such cases as may be described in the arrangements the PRA may give approval under section 59 without obtaining the consent of the FCA.
  • (2) Arrangements under this section must be in writing, and must specify the date on which they come into force.
  • (3) The regulators must publish any arrangements under this section in such manner as they think fit.
  • (4) Section 59(4)(b) has effect subject to any arrangements in force under this section.

Applications for approval.

60
  • (1) An application for the appropriate regulator's approval under section 59 may be made by the authorised person concerned.
  • (2) The application must—
  • (a) be made in such manner as the appropriate regulator may direct; and
  • (b) contain, or be accompanied by, such information as the appropriate regulator may reasonably require.
  • (2A) If—
  • (a) the application is for the approval of a person to perform a designated senior management function, ...
  • (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

the appropriate regulator must require the application to contain, or be accompanied by, a statement setting out the aspects of the affairs of the authorised person concerned which it is intended that the person will be responsible for managing in performing the function.

  • (2B) A statement provided under subsection (2A) is known as a “statement of responsibilities”.
  • (2C) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) At any time after the application is received and before it is determined, the appropriate regulator may require the applicant to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or, as the case requires, to decide whether to give consent.
  • (4) The appropriate regulator may require an applicant to present information which he is required to give under this section in such form, or to verify it in such a way, as the appropriate regulator may direct.
  • (5) Different directions may be given, and different requirements imposed, in relation to different applications or categories of application.
  • (6) “The authorised person concerned” includes a person who has applied for permission under Part 4A and will be the authorised person concerned if permission is given.
  • (6A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7) The PRA must consult the FCA before—
  • (a) giving a direction under subsection (2)(a) in relation to a class of applicants, or

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