The Space Industry Regulations 2021

Type Statutory-Instrument
Publication 2021-07-08
Last updated 2025-04-01
State In force
Department King's Printer of Acts of Parliament
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  • (b) the number of persons who have died, sustained an injury or had a medical emergency as a result of taking part in the operator’s spaceflight activities, and
  • (c) the number of spaceflight accidents relating to the operator’s spaceflight activities and whether they occurred during the testing and development of the launch vehicle or during commercial operation.
  • (4) In this regulation “commercial operation” means any operation of the launch vehicle—
  • (a) which is available to the public, or
  • (b) which, when not made available to the public, is performed under a contract between the spaceflight operator and a customer, where the latter has no control over the spaceflight operator,

in return for remuneration or other valuable consideration.

Information about the operator’s spaceflight activities

210

At least 24 hours, but not more than one month, before a human occupant signs a consent form, the spaceflight operator must give that human occupant—

  • (a) the details of the current risk assessment for the operator’s spaceflight activities in an easily understandable form,
  • (b) information in writing about the availability of emergency services in the event of an accident or medical emergency, and
  • (c) where that human occupant is a crew member or a launch vehicle task specialist, the information relating to exposure to cosmic radiation which is referred to in regulation 140(1).

Opportunity for questions

211
  • (1) Before a human occupant signs the consent form, the spaceflight operator must—
  • (a) give the human occupant an opportunity to ask questions about the information given to that individual in accordance with regulations 209 and 210, and
  • (b) answer the questions in an easily understandable form.
  • (2) The questions referred to in paragraph (1)(a) may be raised, and answers referred to in paragraph (1)(b) may be given, in writing or orally.
212

The spaceflight operator must prepare the consent form in writing and in duplicate.

213

A human occupant must sign both copies of the consent form no more than 24 hours before taking part in the operator’s spaceflight activities or, if the form relates to more than one flight, no more than 24 hours before taking part in the first of those flights.

214

A human occupant must give the duplicate consent form to the spaceflight operator by hand or send such duplicate form to the spaceflight operator.

A written record of the information provided to the human occupant

215
  • (1) The spaceflight operator must keep a written record of—
  • (a) the information provided to a human occupant in accordance with regulations 209 to 211, and
  • (b) the date on which and time at which such information was provided to that individual.
  • (2) Before a human occupant signs the consent form, the spaceflight operator must give a copy of the written record referred to in paragraph (1) to that individual.
216
  • (1) A human occupant must sign the consent form.
  • (2) A human occupant must date the consent form and record on the form the time at which the consent form was signed.
  • (3) An electronic signature satisfies the requirements to sign the consent form in paragraph (1).
  • (4) In this regulation “electronic signature” has the same meaning as in section 7(2) (electronic signatures and related certificates) of the Electronic Communications Act 2000[^f00061].
217

The requirement in section 17(2) for consent to accept the risks involved in an operator’s spaceflight activities to be signified by signing the consent form is satisfied only if—

  • (a) the spaceflight operator complies with the requirements in regulations 206 to 212 and 215, and
  • (b) a human occupant complies with the requirements in regulations 213, 214 and 216.

PART 13 — Liabilities and indemnities

Prescribed description of individuals to whom section 34(2) does not apply

218
  • (1) The following descriptions of an individual are prescribed for the purposes of section 34(3)(a)—
  • (a) where a spaceport licensee or a range control licensee is an individual, that licensee;
  • (b) an appointee, employee or agent of a licensee who is at work at a space site;
  • (c) a member of the crew who has consented to accept the risks involved in an operator’s spaceflight activities in accordance with section 17;
  • (d) a spaceflight participant who has consented to accept the risks involved in an operator’s spaceflight activities in accordance with section 17;
  • (e) an individual not falling within sub-paragraphs (a) to (d) who is present at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (f) an individual on a carrier aircraft taking part in an operator’s spaceflight activities;
  • (g) an officer or partner of a licensee who is present at a space site;
  • (h) an individual who is within an operational area or a restricted area of a space site at the invitation of a licensee;
  • (i) an employee or an individual acting on behalf of the regulator or with the regulator’s authority at a space site;
  • (j) an employee or an individual acting on behalf of the government of another country present at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (k) an employee of the emergency services who is on duty at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (l) an employee of SAIA who is on duty at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (m) compliance authority personnel on duty at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (n) an employee of a qualifying health and safety authority who is on duty at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (o) a member of the armed forces of the Crown who is on duty at a space site in connection with spaceflight activities;
  • (p) any individual who has entered into a reciprocal waiver of liability with a licensee.
  • (2) For the purposes of this regulation—
  • compliance authority personnel” includes the following individuals— an individual appointed as an Inspector of Spaceflight Accidents under regulation 6(1) of the Spaceflight Activities (Investigation of Spaceflight Accidents) Regulations 2021[^f00062]; CAA inspectors and auditors; inspectors of the Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs and its agencies; an air traffic controller; an employee of the National Crime Agency[^f00063]; an employee of an intelligence service; a constable;
  • “officer” in paragraph (1)(g) has the meaning given in section 57(3);
  • “partner” in paragraph (1)(g) has the meaning given in section 58(6);
  • restricted area” means a controlled area, a space site security restricted area or a segregated area, within the meanings given in regulation 168, within a space site.

Prescribed cases or circumstances under which a limit on the operator’s liability to government does not apply

219

The following cases and circumstances are prescribed for the purposes of section 36(3)(a) (obligation to indemnify government etc. against claims)—

  • (a) cases where the operator is liable in respect of gross negligence[^f00064] or wilful misconduct in the performance of its obligations under the Act or regulations made under the Act;
  • (b) circumstances where damage or loss is caused as a result of the non-compliance by the operator with—
  • (i) any conditions of its licence;
  • (ii) the requirements under the Act or regulations made under the Act.

Limit on the amount of operator’s liability

220
  • (1) An operator licence must specify a limit on the amount of the operator’s liability in respect of—
  • (a) injury or damage arising out of spaceflight activities under section 34(2), and
  • (b) any third party liability arising out of spaceflight activities which may be incurred by the operator in respect of the death of or bodily injury to any person or damage to property not covered by section 34(2).
  • (2) The limit on the amount of the operator’s liability shall be determined by the regulator having regard to, in particular, the spaceflight activities which the operator applicant proposes to carry out[^f00065].
  • (3) An operator licence must provide that the limit on the amount of the operator’s liability does not apply in cases or circumstances where—
  • (a) the operator is liable in respect of gross negligence or wilful misconduct in the performance of its obligations under the Act or regulations made under the Act;
  • (b) damage or loss is caused as a result of the non-compliance by the operator with—
  • (i) any conditions of its licence;
  • (ii) any requirements under the Act or regulations made under the Act.
  • (4) In this regulation “operator applicant” means a person who is applying, has applied or intends to apply for an operator licence.

Duty of the Secretary of State to indemnify

221

The cases and circumstances prescribed for the purposes of section 35(5)(b) (power or duty of Secretary of State to indemnify) are—

  • (a) cases where the operator is liable in respect of gross negligence or wilful misconduct in the performance of its obligations under the Act or regulations made under the Act;
  • (b) circumstances where damage or loss is caused as a result of the non-compliance by the operator with—
  • (i) any conditions of its licence;
  • (ii) any requirements under the Act or regulations made under the Act.

PART 14 — Monitoring and enforcement

CHAPTER 1 — General

Interpretation

222

In this Part—

  • contravention notice” means a notice issued under regulation 247;
  • information” means information held in any form;
  • inspector” means a person appointed under regulation 237;
  • prohibition notice” means a notice issued under regulation 249;
  • warning notice” means a notice issued under regulation 248.

Offence to obstruct inspector or regulator

223

It is an offence for a person intentionally to obstruct or impede any person who is exercising a power or performing a duty under this Part.

Penalty for obstructing inspector or regulator

224

A person guilty of an offence under regulation 223 is liable—

  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (c) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months, or a fine, or both.

Offence to impersonate inspector

225

It is an offence to impersonate an inspector.

Penalty for impersonating inspector

226

A person guilty of an offence under regulation 225 is liable on summary conviction—

  • (a) in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.

CHAPTER 2 — Obligation to provide information to the regulator

Persons to whom obligation applies

227

This Chapter applies to a person who—

  • (a) carries out spaceflight activities,
  • (b) operates a spaceport,
  • (c) occupies land forming part of a spaceport or is allowed access to such land for the purposes of the activities of a business carried on by the person,
  • (d) provides range control services under a range control licence, or
  • (e) carries out associated activities.

Information notices

228
  • (1) The regulator may serve a notice on a person specified in regulation 227 requiring the provision of any information it thinks necessary for the purposes set out in section 26(2).
  • (2) A notice requiring the provision of information under this Chapter is referred to as an “information notice”.
  • (3) The regulator may specify in the information notice that the information is to be provided by any means it thinks necessary, including a written response or an oral interview.
  • (4) Where information is provided orally, the regulator may record that information in any manner which in the regulator’s view is appropriate.
  • (5) The notice must specify a period within which the person must provide the information specified.
  • (6) An information notice may require the creation of documents, or documents of a description, specified in the notice.
  • (7) A requirement to provide information or create a document is a requirement to do so in a legible form.

Obligation to provide information to regulator

229

A person who receives an information notice must, before the end of the period specified in the notice, provide, or cause to be provided, to the regulator such information as is specified or described in the information notice.

Offence of failing to comply with information notice

230

A person who contravenes regulation 229 commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with such an offence to show that they took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the offence.

Penalty for failing to comply with information notice

231

A person guilty of an offence under regulation 230 is liable, on summary conviction—

  • (a) in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.

Offence of providing false information

232

It is an offence for a person, in purported compliance with regulation 229

  • (a) to make a statement that the person knows to be false in a material particular, or
  • (b) recklessly to make a statement that is false in a material particular.

Penalty for providing false information

233

A person guilty of an offence under regulation 232 is liable—

  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (c) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

Offences of false recording

234
  • (1) It is an offence for a person to—
  • (a) use any document or record issued or required or having effect by or under the Act—
  • (i) which the person knows or ought to know has been forged, altered, revoked, or suspended, or
  • (ii) to which the person knows or ought to know that that person is not entitled, or
  • (b) lend any document or record issued or required or having effect by or under the Act to, or allow it to be used by, any other person.
  • (2) It is an offence for a person intentionally to damage, alter, or render illegible—
  • (a) any document or record issued or required or having effect by or under the Act, or
  • (b) any entry made in such a document or record.
  • (3) It is an offence for a person—
  • (a) knowingly to make, or procure or assist in the making of, any false entry in or material omission from any document or record issued or required or having effect by or under the Act, or
  • (b) to destroy any such document or record during the period for which the person is obliged to preserve it.
  • (4) It is an offence for a person knowingly to create a false licence, certificate, approval, permission, exemption or any other document issued by the regulator.

Defence to offences of false recording

235

It is a defence for a person charged with an offence—

  • (a) under regulation 234(2) to show that the person was acting with intent to amend an error in the document, record or entry;
  • (b) under regulation 234(3)(b) to show that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the offence.

Penalty for false recording

236

A person guilty of an offence under regulation 234 is liable—

  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (c) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

CHAPTER 3 — Inspectors

SECTION 1 — Appointment and powers

Appointment of inspector

237
  • (1) The regulator may appoint a person (referred to in this Chapter as “an inspector”) to act on the regulator’s behalf for the purposes set out in section 26(2).
  • (2) The regulator must not appoint a person under paragraph (1) unless satisfied that that person is qualified to carry out the functions that the regulator authorises the person to carry out.
  • (3) The regulator may appoint an inspector under this Chapter on such terms as the regulator may determine and may terminate that appointment at any time.
  • (4) Any appointment of an inspector under this regulation must be made in writing and must specify the powers available to the inspector.

Duties of inspector

238

An inspector must carry out all monitoring and enforcement activities and tasks that the regulator thinks necessary to discharge its obligations in section 26(1) for the purposes set out in section 26(2).

Powers of inspector

239
  • (1) The regulator may authorise the inspector to exercise any power set out in Section 2 of this Chapter.
  • (2) That authority may be given—
  • (a) without restriction, or
  • (b) only to a limited extent or for limited purposes.
  • (3) The authority conferred by an instrument of appointment to exercise any power may be varied by the regulator by a further instrument in writing varying the instrument of appointment.
  • (4) When exercising or seeking to exercise a power, an inspector must, if asked, produce formal identification showing their authority to exercise that power.

References to inspector

240

In this Chapter, references to an inspector, in relation to any power, are to the inspector exercising or proposing to exercise the power.

SECTION 2 — Powers exercisable by inspectors

Power of entry

241
  • (1) An inspector may enter any of the premises mentioned in paragraph (2), or enter, or demand access to, any vehicle mentioned in paragraph (3), where the inspector has reason to believe it is necessary for the purposes set out in paragraph (4)
  • (a) at any reasonable time, or
  • (b) at any time, in a situation—
  • (i) which, in the inspector’s opinion, is or may be dangerous, or
  • (ii) in which, in the inspector’s opinion, delay would or might be prejudicial to public safety or the national security of the United Kingdom.
  • (2) In this Section “premises” means—
  • (a) any spaceport or other space site;
  • (b) any site from which spaceflight activities, the operation of a spaceport, the provision of range control services, or associated activities are being carried out, including range control facilities, spaceport facilities, mission control, and mission management facilities;
  • (c) any place in the United Kingdom where spacecraft[^f00066] or carrier aircraft[^f00067] used by a regulated person[^f00068] are assembled or made or where third party work is carried out on behalf of a regulated person;
  • (d) any other facility used by or on behalf of a regulated person;
  • (e) any place where any carrier aircraft, spacecraft or other vehicle involved in spaceflight activities used by any person, including a person who is not a regulated person, has landed.
  • (3) In this Section “vehicle” means any carrier aircraft, spacecraft or other vehicle involved in spaceflight activities and used by or on behalf of a regulated person.
  • (4) An inspector so authorised may enter the premises or enter, or demand access to, the vehicle for any of the following purposes—
  • (a) to inspect the premises or to inspect any vehicle;
  • (b) to inspect any document or record which the inspector has power to demand under these Regulations;
  • (c) to examine, inspect or test any part of, or material intended to be incorporated in or used in the manufacture of any part of, any vehicle or its equipment;
  • (d) to examine, inspect or test any equipment used or intended to be used in connection with the provision of a service to any vehicle whether or not in flight;
  • (e) to inspect the training and assessment of persons for a specified role under regulation 56(1);
  • (f) to carry out any examination, inspection or test necessary to discharge the inspector’s duties;
  • (g) to serve any notice under these Regulations.
  • (5) The power to enter any premises or vehicle under this regulation includes the power to be on the premises or vehicle during testing, training, demonstration flights, and commercial flights.

Power to take persons and equipment etc. onto premises or vehicle

242

In exercising the power of entry mentioned in regulation 241 an inspector may—

  • (a) be accompanied—
  • (i) by any person approved by the regulator including a representative of a qualifying health and safety authority, and
  • (ii) by a constable if the inspector has reasonable cause to expect any serious obstruction in the exercise of the inspector’s powers, and
  • (b) take along any equipment and materials required for any purpose for which the inspector is exercising the power of entry.

Powers of inspection and examination and to take samples

243
  • (1) An inspector may—
  • (a) take measurements and photographs, and
  • (b) make recordings.
  • (2) An inspector may take and deal with samples of—
  • (a) any article or substance found on any premises or vehicle, or
  • (b) the atmosphere in, or in the vicinity of, any premises or vehicle.
  • (3) An inspector may take possession of—
  • (a) any part of, or material to be incorporated or used in the manufacture of any part of, any vehicle or its equipment, or
  • (b) any equipment used, or intended to be used, in connection with the provision of a service to any vehicle in flight or on the ground,

and retain it for as long as necessary to comply with the purposes in section 26(2).

  • (4) An inspector may direct that any premises or vehicle, or any article or substance or atmosphere in them, must be left undisturbed for as long as reasonably necessary for the purposes of any inspection, examination or test under regulation 241(4).
  • (5) A direction under paragraph (4)
  • (a) may relate to part of any premises;
  • (b) may relate to particular aspects of any premises, article, substance or atmosphere.

Powers to require information and documents

244
  • (1) An inspector may require any person whom the inspector has reasonable cause to believe is able to give any information relevant to any inspection or examination under regulation 241(4)
  • (a) to answer any question that the inspector thinks fit, and
  • (b) to sign a declaration of the truth of the person’s answers.
  • (2) An inspector may—
  • (a) require any relevant documents to be produced, and
  • (b) inspect and take copies of, or of any information in, any relevant documents.
  • (3) For this purpose—
  • (a) “document” includes information recorded in any form;
  • (b) “relevant document” means a record or other document which—
  • (i) is required to be kept by virtue of these Regulations, or
  • (ii) the inspector needs to see for the purposes of any inspection, examination or test under regulation 241(4).
  • (4) In the case of a relevant document that consists of information held otherwise than in legible form, including information held in electronic form, the inspector may—
  • (a) require it to be produced—
  • (i) in a legible form, or
  • (ii) in a form from which it can readily be produced in a legible form, and
  • (b) require access to, and inspect and check the operation of, any computer and any associated apparatus or material which is or has been used in connection with the relevant document.
  • (5) An inspector may take possession of any document or record which the inspector has power to demand and retain it for as long as necessary to comply with the purposes in section 26(2).
  • (6) Where an inspector has reason to believe that any document or record which the inspector has power to demand is held on electrical or electronic equipment, the inspector—
  • (a) may take possession of that equipment and retain it for as long as necessary to comply with the purposes in section 26(2);
  • (b) may take all reasonable steps to gain access to the document or record held on the electrical or electronic equipment.

Powers exercisable in relation to particular articles or substances

245
  • (1) An inspector may take possession of any article or substance found on any premises or vehicle and retain it for as long as necessary—
  • (a) for it to be examined or tested;
  • (b) for anything to be done to it which the inspector may cause to be done under paragraph (6);
  • (c) to ensure that it is not tampered with before any examination, test or other procedure mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) or (b) is complete;
  • (d) to ensure that it is available for use in any proceedings for an offence under the Act or any regulations made under the Act.
  • (2) The inspector may exercise the power in paragraph (1) if the inspector has reason to believe that—
  • (a) the article or substance has caused, may have caused, or is likely to cause, non-compliance with a licence condition, a provision of the Act or an international obligation of the United Kingdom,
  • (b) the article or substance has caused, may have caused, or is likely to cause, danger to public safety or national security, or
  • (c) it is desirable to do so for the purposes set out in section 26(2).
  • (3) Before taking possession of any substance under this regulation, the inspector must, if it is practicable—
  • (a) take a sample of it, and
  • (b) give a portion of the sample, marked so as to be identifiable, to a person at the premises or vehicle from which the substance is taken.
  • (4) An inspector who takes possession of any article or substance under this regulation must—
  • (a) if it is practicable to do so, give written notice to that effect to a person at the premises or vehicle from which the article or substance is taken;
  • (b) otherwise, fix such a notice in a conspicuous position at the premises or vehicle from which the article or substance is taken.
  • (5) The notice must include sufficient information about the article or substance to identify it.
  • (6) An inspector may cause any article or substance found in any premises or vehicle—
  • (a) to be dismantled;
  • (b) to be examined or tested;
  • (c) to be the subject of a demonstration showing how the article or substance functions;
  • (d) to be deactivated or otherwise rendered safe for handling;
  • (e) to have any other process applied to it.
  • (7) The inspector may exercise any power in this regulation if the inspector has reason to believe that—
  • (a) the article or substance has caused, may have caused, or is likely to cause, non-compliance with a licence condition, a provision of the Act or an international obligation of the United Kingdom,
  • (b) the article or substance has caused, may have caused, or is likely to cause, danger to public safety or national security, or
  • (c) it is desirable to do so for the purposes set out in section 26(2).
  • (8) Before exercising a power in this regulation, the inspector must use their best endeavours to consult such persons as the inspector considers appropriate.
  • (9) Anything done to the article or substance under this regulation must not damage or destroy it unless in the circumstances that is unavoidable.
  • (10) If requested by a person who has responsibilities in relation to the premises or vehicle from which the article or substance is taken, and that person is on or at the premises or vehicle, the inspector must allow anything done to the article or substance under this regulation to be done in that person’s presence.
  • (11) Paragraph (10) does not apply where the inspector considers that that would be prejudicial to the national security of the United Kingdom.

Power to require the use of facilities and assistance

246

A power conferred by this Section includes power to require any person to provide any facilities or assistance relating to matters or things—

  • (a) within the person’s control, or
  • (b) in relation to which the person has responsibilities,

which are needed in order to enable an inspector to exercise the power.

Power to issue contravention notice

247
  • (1) This paragraph applies where an inspector is of the opinion that a person—
  • (a) is contravening, or has contravened—
  • (i) any of the conditions of a licence granted under the Act,
  • (ii) any provision of the Act or regulations made under the Act, or
  • (b) is conducting an activity that is likely to cause a contravention of—
  • (i) any of the conditions of a licence granted under the Act;
  • (ii) any provision of the Act or regulations made under the Act.
  • (2) The inspector may serve on that person a notice (a “contravention notice”) identifying the contravention.
  • (3) The notice must—
  • (a) specify the relevant licence condition or provision of the Act or regulations, and
  • (b) state that the inspector is of the opinion mentioned in paragraph (1).
  • (4) The notice must specify a period within which it is in the inspector’s opinion reasonable for the contravention to be remedied.
  • (5) The notice may include directions as to the measures to be taken to remedy the contravention identified in the notice.

Power to issue warning notice

248
  • (1) This regulation applies where the conditions in paragraph (2) are met.
  • (2) The conditions are—
  • (a) a contravention notice has been issued to a person,
  • (b) the period specified under regulation 247(4) has expired, and
  • (c) the contravention identified in the notice has not been remedied in full.
  • (3) The inspector may serve on that person a notice (a “warning notice”) informing that person of—
  • (a) the regulator’s power to revoke, vary or suspend a licence under section 15;
  • (b) the regulator’s power to give a direction under sections 27 and 28;
  • (c) the Secretary of State’s power to give a direction under section 28;
  • (d) the inspector’s power to give a prohibition notice under regulation 249.
  • (4) The notice must specify a period within which it is, in the inspector’s opinion, reasonable for the contravention to be remedied.
  • (5) The notice may include directions as to the measures to be taken to remedy the contravention identified in the contravention notice.

Power to issue prohibition notice

249
  • (1) This paragraph applies where the conditions in paragraph (2) are met.
  • (2) The conditions in this paragraph are—
  • (a) a warning notice has been served on a person,
  • (b) the period given in the warning notice has expired,
  • (c) the contravention identified in the contravention notice has not been remedied in full, and
  • (d) the inspector is of the opinion that that person—
  • (i) is carrying on activities which involve a risk to public safety or the national security of the United Kingdom, or
  • (ii) is likely to carry on activities which involve a risk to public safety or the national security of the United Kingdom.
  • (3) The inspector may serve on that person a notice (a “prohibition notice”) directing the relevant person to stop carrying on the activities specified in the notice unless that person remedies the contravention complained of in the contravention notice.
  • (4) The notice must—
  • (a) state that the inspector is of the opinion mentioned in paragraph (2)(d), and why;
  • (b) specify the matters which in the inspector’s opinion give rise, or will give rise, to the risk mentioned in that sub-paragraph.
  • (5) A prohibition notice takes effect—
  • (a) at the end of the period specified in the notice, or
  • (b) if the notice so specifies, immediately.

Appealing against notice under regulation 249

250

A prohibition notice must include information about the right of appeal against the notice.

Supplementary powers

251

A power conferred by this Section includes power to do anything incidental that is necessary for the inspector to fulfil the purpose of the inspector’s appointment.

252

Nothing in this Section is to be taken to confer power to compel the production by any person of a document or information in respect of which—

  • (a) in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, a claim to legal professional privilege, or
  • (b) in Scotland, a claim to confidentiality of communications,

could be maintained in legal proceedings.

CHAPTER 4 — Sharing of information between regulator and other bodies

Regulator may share information

253
  • (1) The regulator may share the information listed in paragraph (2) with the following persons—
  • (a) the Secretary of State;
  • (b) a qualifying health and safety authority;
  • (c) the Defence Safety Authority;
  • (d) any other public authority or international organisation responsible for regulating any aspect of spaceflight activities;
  • (e) an appointed person[^f00069],

for the purposes set out in section 26(2).

  • (2) The regulator may share the following information—
  • (a) information submitted to the regulator by a person making an application for a licence under the Act;
  • (b) information otherwise obtained by a regulator in respect of a person making an application for a licence under the Act;
  • (c) information submitted to or obtained by the regulator, or an inspector, in the exercise of powers under this Part.

CHAPTER 5 — Restrictions on disclosure of information

SECTION 1 — Prohibition against disclosure of protected information

Meaning of “protected information”

254
  • (1) A reference in this Section to “protected information” means information which has been—
  • (a) obtained by the regulator or an inspector under this Part, or
  • (b) shared with any of the persons listed in regulation 253(1).
  • (2) Information is not protected information for the purposes of this Section if it has been disclosed or made available to the public lawfully from other sources.

Prohibition on disclosing protected information

255

Protected information must not be disclosed except in accordance with Section 2 of this Chapter.

Offence of disclosing protected information

256

It is an offence for a person to disclose information in contravention of regulation 255.

Defences to offence of disclosing protected information

257

It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under regulation 256 to prove—

  • (a) that the person did not know, and had no reason to suspect, that the information disclosed was protected information, or
  • (b) that the person took all reasonable precautions, and exercised all due diligence, to avoid committing the offence.

Penalty for disclosing protected information

258

A person guilty of an offence under regulation 256 is liable—

  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (c) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

SECTION 2 — Exceptions to prohibition against disclosure of protected information

259

Regulation 255 does not prohibit disclosure of protected information if it is made with the consent of the person or body who provided or shared the information.

Disclosure by the regulator, inspectors etc.

260
  • (1) Regulation 255 does not prohibit a disclosure of protected information by—
  • (a) the regulator,
  • (b) an inspector,
  • (c) any person referred to in regulation 253(1),
  • (d) any other public authority,

for the purposes set out in paragraph (2).

  • (2) Those purposes are—
  • (a) complying with any of that person’s duties, or
  • (b) exercising their powers,

under the Act or any regulations made under the Act.

Disclosure to authorities

261
  • (1) Regulation 255 does not prohibit a disclosure to a public or local authority, or an officer of that authority.
  • (2) Where protected information is disclosed by virtue of this paragraph, the person to whom the information is disclosed may only use the information for the purposes of the authority in question.

Disclosure required under legislation

262

Regulation 255 does not prohibit a disclosure of protected information which is made in accordance with an obligation under—

  • (a) the Freedom of Information Act 2000[^f00070], or
  • (b) the Freedom of Information (Scotland) Act 2002[^f00071].
263
  • (1) Regulation 255 does not prohibit a disclosure of protected information for the purposes of—
  • (a) any legal proceedings;
  • (b) an investigation under section 20;
  • (c) any report of such proceedings or investigation.
  • (2) Regulation 255 does not prohibit a disclosure of protected information which is made—
  • (a) by the regulator or an inspector, and
  • (b) for any of the purposes specified in section 17(2)(a) to (d) (criminal proceedings and investigation) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001[^f00072].

Anonymised information

264

Regulation 255 does not prohibit a disclosure of protected information which is made in a form calculated to prevent a particular person or case, to whom the information relates, from being identified.

PART 15 — Civil sanctions (stop notices)

Stop notices

265
  • (1) A reference in this Part to a “stop notice” is to a notice prohibiting a person from carrying on an activity specified in the notice (the “activity”) until the person has taken the steps specified in the notice.
  • (2) The regulator may serve a stop notice on any person (the “relevant person”) in accordance with this Part.
  • (3) A stop notice may only be served in a case falling within paragraph (4) or (5).
  • (4) A case falling within this paragraph is a case where—
  • (a) the relevant person is carrying on the activity,
  • (b) the regulator reasonably believes that the activity as carried on by the relevant person is causing, or presents a significant risk of causing, serious harm to any of the matters referred to in paragraph (6), and
  • (c) the regulator reasonably believes that the activity as carried on by the relevant person involves or is likely to involve the commission by that person of an offence under the Act or under any regulations made under the Act (referred to in this Part as the “relevant offence”).
  • (5) A case falling within this paragraph is a case where the regulator reasonably believes that—
  • (a) the relevant person is likely to carry on the activity,
  • (b) the activity as likely to be carried on by the relevant person will cause, or will present a significant risk of causing, serious harm to any of the matters referred to in paragraph (6), and
  • (c) the activity as likely to be carried on by the relevant person will involve, or will be likely to involve, the commission by that person of an offence under the Act or under any regulations made under the Act.
  • (6) The matters referred to in paragraphs (4)(b) and (5)(b) are—
  • (a) public safety;
  • (b) persons carried in spacecraft[^f00073] or carrier aircraft[^f00074];
  • (c) persons at work at spaceports, mission management facilities or sites used in connection with the provision of range control services;
  • (d) the interests of persons in relation to the use of land, sea and airspace;
  • (e) the interests of persons with interests in property carried by spacecraft.
  • (7) The steps referred to in paragraph (1) must be steps to remove or reduce the harm or risk of harm referred to in paragraphs (4)(b) or (5)(b).

Contents of stop notice

266

A stop notice must include information as to—

  • (a) the grounds for serving the notice,
  • (b) rights of appeal, and
  • (c) the consequences of non-compliance.

Completion certificate

267
  • (1) Where, after service of the notice, the regulator is satisfied that the relevant person has taken the steps specified in the stop notice, the regulator must issue a certificate to that effect.
  • (2) A certificate under paragraph (1) is referred to in this Part as a “completion certificate”.
  • (3) The stop notice ceases to have effect on the issue of a completion certificate.
  • (4) The relevant person may at any time apply for a completion certificate.
  • (5) The regulator must make a decision as to whether to issue a completion certificate within 14 days of that application.

Compensation

268
  • (1) The regulator must compensate the relevant person for loss suffered as a result of the service of the stop notice or the refusal to issue a completion certificate if that person has suffered loss as a result of the notice or refusal and the conditions in paragraph (2) apply.
  • (2) The conditions referred to in paragraph (1) are—
  • (a) the relevant person makes a successful appeal against a decision to serve a stop notice or a decision not to issue a completion certificate;
  • (b) the power to issue the stop notice was not exercised as a result of any neglect or default of the relevant person.

Offence of failing to comply with stop notice

269
  • (1) Where a relevant person does not comply with a stop notice within the time limit specified in the notice, that person is guilty of an offence and liable—
  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court, or both;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to a fine not exceeding £20,000, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, or both;
  • (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding £20,000, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months;
  • (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.
  • (2) In relation to an offence committed before the commencement of paragraph 24(2) of Schedule 22 (general limit on magistrates’ court’s powers to imprison) to the Sentencing Act 2020[^f00075], the reference in paragraph (1)(a) to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court is to be read as a reference to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.

PART 16 — Occurrence reporting

CHAPTER 1 — Interpretation

Interpretation

270

In this Part—

  • Chief Inspector” means the Chief Inspector of Spaceflight Accidents appointed under regulation 6(2) (appointment of inspectors of spaceflight accidents) of the Spaceflight Activities (Investigation of Spaceflight Accidents) Regulations 2021[^f00076];
  • confidential information” includes— occurrence reports or any information referred to in those reports except to the extent that such information has been made public, material produced by the regulator and others assisting in the analysis of the occurrence or the exercise of the regulator’s powers referred to in regulation 276(1)(b) such as notes and opinions expressed about the analysis of information, information and evidence about occurrences provided by SAIA, information and evidence about occurrences provided by any national or international body referred to in regulation 277(5)(h) if the arrangement referred to in that regulation provides that this material is to be treated as confidential information in accordance with this Part, and US technical data;
  • injury” means personal injury;
  • occurrence” means— a spaceflight accident, a major accident, or any other fortuitous or unexpected event arising out of or in the course of spaceflight activities or preparation for those activities, and occurring— in or over the United Kingdom, or elsewhere if any of the circumstances referred to in regulation 273 apply, which, if not corrected or addressed, could result in a spaceflight accident or a major accident;
  • police officer” means any person who is a member of— a police force, the Police Service of Northern Ireland, or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve;
  • staff of the regulator” means an employee or agent of the regulator.

CHAPTER 2 — Duty to report an occurrence and the objective of that report

Duty to report an occurrence

271
  • (1) A licensee must report an occurrence to the regulator.
  • (2) The occurrence report must be in writing and sent to the regulator within 72 hours of the time at which the licensee became aware of the occurrence.
  • (3) The licensee must prepare the occurrence report having regard to the objective of the report referred to in regulation 272.

Objective of an occurrence report

272

The sole objective of an occurrence report is the prevention of spaceflight accidents or major accidents, without the apportionment of blame or liability.

CHAPTER 3 — Events elsewhere which could threaten safety

When an event elsewhere which could result in an accident is an occurrence

273
  • (1) A fortuitous or unexpected event which occurs elsewhere than the United Kingdom is an occurrence within the meaning of paragraph (c)(ii) of the definition of “occurrence” in regulation 270 if any of the circumstances in paragraph (2) apply.
  • (2) The circumstances referred to in paragraph (1) are that the United Kingdom is the state—
  • (a) from which the launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft was launched,
  • (b) having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the design of the launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft,
  • (c) having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the manufacture or final assembly of the launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft, or of any components of that vehicle or aircraft,
  • (d) having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the maintenance of the launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft or any components of that vehicle or aircraft, or
  • (e) in which the licensee’s principal place of business is located.

CHAPTER 4 — Contents of the occurrence report

Contents of the occurrence report

274
  • (1) The occurrence report must include—
  • (a) the name and address of the licensee,
  • (b) the role of the person within the licensee’s organisation who has prepared the occurrence report on the licensee’s behalf,
  • (c) the date of the occurrence report and the time when it was made,
  • (d) the date and time of the occurrence and where it took place,
  • (e) if any person has died or sustained an injury as a result of the occurrence—
  • (i) the number of such persons who have died,
  • (ii) the number of such persons who are injured,
  • (iii) a description of the injuries of such persons including any injuries which resulted in death,
  • (iv) if the person falls within the description of persons in regulation 40 (persons who are not members of the public), the description in that regulation which the person falls within,
  • (v) any other role or capacity of the person in connection with spaceflight activities, and
  • (vi) whether the person is a member of the public,
  • (f) whether the occurrence falls within one or more of Categories A to E described in regulation 275,
  • (g) a short description of the occurrence and the circumstances in which it happened,
  • (h) any action taken to prevent the occurrence happening again and improve safety relating to the operator’s spaceflight activities, the operation of the spaceport or other place from which the launch is to take place or takes place or the provision of range control services following the occurrence,
  • (i) any notification of the occurrence to—
  • (i) the Chief Inspector of SAIA or to a police officer or, in relation to Scotland, a constable for the area where the occurrence took place, as required by regulation 7 of the Spaceflight Activities (Investigation of Spaceflight Accidents) Regulations 2021, and
  • (ii) any other national or international body investigating spaceflight accidents for the purposes of accident prevention, and
  • (j) if a body referred to in sub-paragraph (i) has been notified, the method by which that body was notified.
  • (2) In this regulation “member of the public” has the same meaning as its prescribed meaning for the purpose of section 10(a) given in regulation 39.

Categories of occurrence

275

For the purposes of regulation 274(1)(f), the categories of occurrence are occurrences related to—

  • (a) preparations for spaceflight activities at a spaceport or other place from which such preparations take place (Category A),
  • (b) the launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft, including a technical failure in such a vehicle or aircraft, during—
  • (i) preparations for the launch from the time when that vehicle or its component parts or that aircraft or its component parts arrive at the spaceport or other place from which the launch is to take place or takes place (Category B), or
  • (ii) the operator’s spaceflight activities (Category B),
  • (c) a technical failure in the mission management facility or ground control at the spaceport or other place (Category C),
  • (d) failure in the provision of range control services (Category D), and
  • (e) human occupants (Category E).

CHAPTER 5 — The regulator’s actions when it receives an occurrence report

What the regulator must do on receipt of an occurrence report

276
  • (1) As soon as reasonably practicable after receipt of an occurrence report, the regulator must—
  • (a) analyse the occurrence report, including comparing that report with any other occurrence reports which the regulator has received, so that any common trends of events described in the occurrence report are identified, and
  • (b) identify whether the regulator needs to exercise any of its powers contained in the Act or in regulations made under the Act to prevent or mitigate the risk of a spaceflight accident or a major accident from occurring.
  • (2) The regulator must retain the occurrence report.

CHAPTER 6 — Confidential information

Protection of information and permitted disclosures

277
  • (1) Confidential information may not be disclosed by—
  • (a) the licensee who reported the occurrence,
  • (b) any member of staff of the regulator,
  • (c) any person called upon to participate or assist in an analysis of an occurrence report or in the regulator exercising its powers referred to in regulation 276(1)(b), or
  • (d) any person who has received confidential information from a person referred to in sub-paragraph (a), (b) or (c),

except as provided for in this regulation or by order of the court under regulation 278.

  • (2) US technical data may only be disclosed with the consent of the Government of the United States after consultation between the regulator, the Secretary of State and the Government of the United States.
  • (3) Any disclosure made under this regulation must ensure that the anonymity of the licensee, the person who prepared the occurrence report on the licensee’s behalf and any other person involved in an occurrence, is preserved.
  • (4) Subject to obtaining the consent required by paragraph (2) to disclose US technical data, the regulator may disclose confidential information to the persons referred to in paragraph (5) to the extent necessary for the purposes of—
  • (a) improving the safety of spaceflight activities, or
  • (b) preventing a spaceflight accident or a major accident.
  • (5) The persons referred to in this paragraph are—
  • (a) a licensee involved in an occurrence other than the licensee who reported the occurrence,
  • (b) the Secretary of State,
  • (c) persons responsible for the manufacture and maintenance of the launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft involved in the spaceflight accident,
  • (d) persons responsible for training,
  • (e) persons using a launch vehicle or a carrier aircraft of the same type as the launch vehicle or the carrier aircraft involved in the occurrence,
  • (f) a qualifying health and safety authority if—
  • (i) such an authority is providing the regulator with advice or assistance in response to a requirement imposed under section 21(1)(a), or
  • (ii) such an authority is performing a function that the authority is authorised to perform under section 21(1)(b),
  • (g) the Chief Inspector of SAIA or the investigator-in-charge, or
  • (h) any national or international body involved with spaceflight activities provided that—
  • (i) the regulator has in place an arrangement to disclose an occurrence report to such a body, and
  • (ii) the regulator does not disclose information which might create a conflict of interest between the bodies to whom the information is revealed and the objective of an occurrence report.
  • (6) Subject to obtaining the consent required by paragraph (2) to disclose US technical data, the Chief Inspector or the investigator-in-charge may refer to confidential information received from the regulator in accordance with paragraph (4) in a safety investigation report only to the extent necessary to permit the Chief Inspector or the investigator-in-charge to comply with their obligations under regulations 32 to 34 of the Spaceflight Activities (Investigation of Spaceflight Accidents) Regulations 2021.

Court application for disclosure

278
  • (1) An application may be made to the court for permission—
  • (a) to disclose confidential information, or
  • (b) for confidential information to be disclosed.
  • (2) An application made under paragraph (1) must identify the confidential information which the person making the application wishes to disclose, or to be disclosed.
  • (3) Before making an order under paragraph (1), the court must be satisfied—
  • (a) that the disclosure of the confidential information identified in the application will not—
  • (i) disclose the identity of any person involved with the occurrence, or
  • (ii) damage the international relations of the United Kingdom, and
  • (b) that the benefits of disclosing that information outweigh the adverse domestic and international consequences that disclosure of that information might have on the reporting of occurrences to the regulator and any safety investigation to which the information relates or any future safety investigation.
  • (4) The jurisdiction conferred by this regulation may be exercised by—
  • (a) the High Court, or
  • (b) in Scotland, the Court of Session.

CHAPTER 7 — Offences and penalties

Providing false information

279

Any person who, in purported compliance with regulation 271, makes a statement they know to be false in a material particular, or recklessly makes a statement that is false in a material particular, commits an offence.

Failure to protect confidential information

280
  • (1) Any person who knowingly contravenes any of the prohibitions in regulation 277 commits an offence.
  • (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply where a person makes confidential information available to another person (“person A”) in the following circumstances—
  • (a) in a case where person A is a party to, or otherwise entitled to appear at, judicial proceedings and the relevant court has ordered that confidential information must be made available to person A for the purposes of those proceedings;
  • (b) in any other case, where the relevant court has ordered that confidential information must be made available to person A for other specified purposes.
  • (3) The relevant court must not make an order under paragraph (2) unless it is satisfied that the benefits of the disclosure of the confidential information concerned outweigh the adverse domestic and international consequences which the disclosure might have on the reporting of occurrences or any safety investigation to which the information relates or any future safety investigation.
  • (4) In this regulation—
  • judicial proceedings” includes any proceedings before any court, tribunal or person having by law power to hear, receive and examine evidence on oath;
  • relevant court” means— in the case of judicial proceedings or an application for disclosure made in England, Wales or Northern Ireland, the High Court, and in the case of judicial proceedings or an application for disclosure made in Scotland, the Court of Session.

Penalties

281

A person who is guilty of an offence under regulation 279 or 280 is liable—

  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (c) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

PART 17 — Miscellaneous

Duty on licensee to inform regulator of changes

282
  • (1) A reference in this Part to a “relevant person” is to—
  • (a) a person applying for a licence under the Act, or
  • (b) a licensee.
  • (2) A relevant person must inform the regulator in writing as soon as possible of any material change in any of the information provided to the regulator by or on behalf of the relevant person, whether in or with the application for a licence or after the licence has been granted.
  • (3) Where the information referred to in paragraph (2) was provided by a person other than the relevant person, the obligation to inform the regulator of any material change in the information applies as soon as possible after the relevant person becomes aware—
  • (a) that the information in question was provided to the regulator, and
  • (b) of the change in the information.

Offence of failure to inform regulator of changes

283
  • (1) It is an offence for a relevant person—
  • (a) to fail to comply with regulation 282, or
  • (b) in purported compliance with regulation 282, to make a statement or provide information they know to be false in a material particular, or recklessly to make such a statement or provide such information.
  • (2) It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under paragraph (1)(a) to show that they took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the offence.

Penalty for failure to inform regulator of changes

284

A person who commits an offence under regulation 283 is liable—

  • (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine;
  • (b) on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
  • (c) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

Sending of notices and other documents

285
  • (1) Any notice or other document required or authorised by these Regulations to be provided (in whatever terms) to any person may be provided by—
  • (a) delivering it to that person in person,
  • (b) leaving it at that person’s proper address, or
  • (c) sending it by post or by electronic means to that person’s proper address.
  • (2) In the case of a body corporate, any such notice or document may be provided to a director of that body or to any other officer or employee of that body (“authorised person”) who is authorised to accept such notices or documents on its behalf.
  • (3) For the purposes of this regulation, “proper address” means—
  • (a) in the case of a body corporate or its director or authorised person—
  • (i) the registered or principal office of that body, or
  • (ii) the email address of the secretary or clerk of that body, the director or the authorised person;
  • (b) in any other case, a person’s last known address, which includes an email address.
  • (4) In this regulation references to an email address are to an email address which has not been withdrawn for the purposes of service.

Use of records and documentary evidence: prescribed persons

286
  • (1) The following persons are prescribed persons for the purposes of section 66(1)—
  • (a) the Secretary of State;
  • (b) the regulator;
  • (c) an inspector appointed by the regulator under regulation 237 to act on the regulator’s behalf for the purposes set out in section 26(2) (monitoring and enforcement).
  • (2) The following persons are prescribed persons for the purposes of section 66(3)—
  • (a) the Secretary of State;
  • (b) the regulator;
  • (c) a range control licensee;
  • (d) an operator;
  • (e) a spaceport licensee;
  • (f) a person employed by, or providing services to, a person referred to in sub-paragraph (c), (d) or (e).

Review

287
  • (1) The Secretary of State must from time to time—
  • (a) carry out a review of the regulatory provision contained in these Regulations, and
  • (b) publish a report setting out the conclusions of the review.
  • (2) The first report must be published before the end of the period of five years beginning with the date on which these Regulations come into force.
  • (3) Subsequent reports must be published at intervals not exceeding five years.
  • (4) Section 30(4) of the Small Business, Enterprise and Employment Act 2015[^f00077] requires that a report published under this regulation must, in particular—
  • (a) set out the objectives intended to be achieved by the regulatory provision referred to in paragraph (1)(a),
  • (b) assess the extent to which those objectives are achieved,
  • (c) assess whether those objectives remain appropriate, and
  • (d) if those objectives remain appropriate, assess the extent to which they could be achieved in another way which involves less onerous regulatory provision.
  • (5) In this regulation, “regulatory provision” has the same meaning as in sections 28 to 32 of the Small Business, Enterprise and Employment Act 2015 (see section 32 of that Act).

SCHEDULE 1 — Information the safety case must contain

General information

1

A description of the proposed spaceflight activities including the proposed flight trajectory, any planned orbital parameters for the launch vehicle, any planned orbital parameters for any payload and details of any planned re-entry from orbit by the launch vehicle.

2

General descriptions of—

  • (a) the applicant’s organisation and management structure;
  • (b) the launch vehicle to be used including descriptions and, where appropriate, diagrams of—
  • (i) its concept of operations,
  • (ii) any payload or class of payload, and
  • (iii) the layout of systems that are part of it;
  • (c) any carrier aircraft to be used including descriptions and, where appropriate, diagrams of—
  • (i) its concept of operations,
  • (ii) any payload or class of payload, and
  • (iii) the layout of systems that are part of it;
  • (d) the facilities and major items of equipment that the applicant will need to carry out the proposed spaceflight activities, and which, if any, of these will be provided by a proposed spaceport licensee or by a proposed range control service provider;
  • (e) the areas which could be affected by a major accident during the proposed spaceflight activities, including—
  • (i) their geography,
  • (ii) any structures in them built by humans or built for human use or benefit, and
  • (iii) the existing and expected locations of humans and areas of habitation within those areas.
3

For launch operator licence applicants, identification of the spaceport or other place from which the launch is to take place and the proposed spaceport licensee.

4

Identification of—

  • (a) any range control services needed;
  • (b) any proposed range control service providers;
  • (c) any site or facility other than a spaceport that has been or is to be used by the applicant in the design, manufacture, testing or operation of the applicant’s launch vehicle or any carrier aircraft.
5
  • (1) For launch operator licence applicants—
  • (a) a schedule of the preparatory events mentioned in the ground safety analysis required by regulation 27 setting out how long before the launch each preparatory event is intended to take place;
  • (b) the review processes the applicant will use to check—
  • (i) that launch preparations are progressing safely, and
  • (ii) whether the applicant and any other licensees involved in the launch are ready to commence the launch;
  • (c) a schedule of any safety-critical actions the proposed range control service provider and the proposed spaceport licensee will carry out in preparation for the launch from the time when the launch vehicle or its components arrive at the spaceport or other place from which the launch is to take place.
  • (2) In this paragraph, “safety-critical action” means any action which is essential to preventing the proposed spaceflight activities from causing a major accident.
6

Evidence that the applicant will, if granted the licence, be able to meet the requirements of regulations 84 to 104 of Part 8 (safety of operator’s spaceflight activities).

7

Details of the applicant’s safety management system for the proposed spaceflight activities.

8

Particulars of any licence, permit or approval that any country other than the United Kingdom has granted to the applicant in relation to the proposed spaceflight activities or a launch vehicle that the applicant plans to use for those activities.

9

Information about what applications, if any, the applicant has previously made for a licence or approval to carry out spaceflight activities similar to the proposed spaceflight activities, and what the outcome was of each of those applications.

10

Information about the applicant’s experience, if any, in the design, development or operation of launch vehicles, payloads or any other space-related hardware or software.

Technical particulars

11

Descriptions of the technical requirements which apply to the launch vehicle, which must be either—

  • (a) the requirements described under the headings of technical requirements types contained in Chapter 6 of the Space Engineering Technical Requirements Specification produced by the European Cooperation for Space Standardisation and dated 6th March 2009[^f00078], or
  • (b) requirements of substantially like effect to the requirements referred to in sub-paragraph (a).
12
  • (1) For each safety-critical system used in the proposed spaceflight activities—
  • (a) a description, drawing and schematic diagram of the system;
  • (b) a statement of the system’s purpose;
  • (c) documentation justifying the choice of design for that system;
  • (d) a description of each way that system could fail;
  • (e) predicted probabilities of failure and, where known, failure frequencies;
  • (f) predicted consequences of failure;
  • (g) a description of any method used to check that the applicant has correctly identified the environment within which the system is expected to operate;
  • (h) a description of the methods used to—
  • (i) design, test and qualify the system;
  • (ii) accept the system hardware and any software for use;
  • (iii) determine the service life of the system and the major phases of its lifecycle;
  • (i) the criteria and procedures for disposal or refurbishment of the system or its major components;
  • (j) a description of any standards used in paragraphs (a) to (i).
  • (2) In this paragraph, “safety-critical system” means any system, including hardware and software, the performance of which is essential to preventing a major accident as a result of the proposed spaceflight activities.
13

A description of the engineering practices used in the design, manufacture, assembly and operation of the launch vehicle including of—

  • (a) the design and analysis tools used;
  • (b) any national or international design, engineering or safety standards followed;
  • (c) test, validation and verification procedures undertaken or to be undertaken as required by regulation 94.
14

A description of the engineering practices and design and operational measures that will be used to prevent or mitigate the creation of space debris during the proposed spaceflight activities, including identification of methods for verifying and validating those practices and measures.

15

Descriptions of any hazardous material that is part of the launch vehicle or payload or is to be carried on board the launch vehicle during the proposed spaceflight activities.

16

For any payload that the launch vehicle will carry, technical particulars relevant to the risk of a major accident, including—

  • (a) descriptions of any systems on board the payload that are required for the basic operation of the payload or necessary to carry out its intended mission;
  • (b) information about any hazardous material or any equipment or device carried on board the payload that could give rise to a major accident hazard;
  • (c) a description of any ground support equipment needed for the payload or its integration with the launch vehicle;
  • (d) information about any essential interface between the payload and specific equipment at the place of launch.
17

Technical particulars of and performance data for any carrier aircraft intended to be used, including any existing aircraft certification or permit.

Flight safety analysis

18
  • (1) The hazards mentioned in regulation 26(2) which the applicant must consider in carrying out the flight safety analysis are—
  • (a) blast overpressure;
  • (b) fragmentation debris;
  • (c) thermal radiation;
  • (d) toxic release;
  • (e) major accident hazards arising from—
  • (i) any discarded part of the launch vehicle and any object, including any payload, released or separated from the launch vehicle;
  • (ii) collision with a space object;
  • (iii) meteorological or environmental conditions;
  • (iv) the use of a carrier aircraft, if applicable;
  • (v) re-entry of the launch vehicle, or any part of it, from orbit, if applicable.

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