Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

Type Public General Act
Publication 2002-07-24
Last updated 2026-03-22
State In force
Department Statute Law Database
articles Not indexed
Reform history JSON API
  • (c) the expenses are ones which (but for the effect of the restraint order) might have been met by taking possession of and realising property subject to it.
  • (6A) Subsection (7) also applies if—
  • (a) property is detained under or by virtue of section 44A, 47J, 47K, 47M, 47P, 122A, 127J, 127K, 127M, 127P, 193A, 195J, 195K, 195M or 195P,
  • (b) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner incurs expenses which are not ones in respect of the detained property, and
  • (c) the expenses are ones which (but for the effect of the detention of the property) might have been met by taking possession of and realising the property.
  • (7) Whether or not the insolvency practitioner has seized or disposed of any property, the insolvency practitioner is entitled to payment of the expenses under—
  • (a) section 54(2), 55(3) or 67D(2) if the restraint order was made under section 41 or (as the case may be) the property was detained under or by virtue of section 44A, 47J, 47K, 47M or 47P,
  • (b) section 130(3), 131(3) or 131D(2) if the restraint order was made under section 120 or (as the case may be) the property was detained under or by virtue of section 122A, 127J, 127K, 127M or 127P, and
  • (c) section 202(2), 203(3) or 215D(2) if the restraint order was made under section 190 or (as the case may be) the property was detained under or by virtue of section 193A, 195J, 195K, 195M or 195P.
  • (8) Subsection (10) applies if—
  • (a) property is subject to a property freezing order made under section 245A, an interim receiving order made under section 246, a prohibitory property order made under section 255A or an interim administration order made under section 256,
  • (b) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner incurs expenses in respect of property subject to the order, and
  • (c) he does not know (and has no reasonable grounds to believe) that the property is subject to the order.
  • (9) Subsection (10) also applies if—
  • (a) property is subject to a property freezing order made under section 245A, an interim receiving order made under section 246, a prohibitory property order made under section 255A or an interim administration order made under section 256,
  • (b) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner incurs expenses which are not ones in respect of property subject to the order, and
  • (c) the expenses are ones which (but for the effect of the order) might have been met by taking possession of and realising property subject to it.
  • (10) Whether or not he has seized or disposed of any property, he is entitled to payment of the expenses under section 280.

Meaning of insolvency practitioner

433
  • (1) This section applies for the purposes of section 432.
  • (2) A person acts as an insolvency practitioner if he so acts within the meaning given by section 388 of the 1986 Act or Article 3 of the 1989 Order; but this is subject to subsections (3) to (5).
  • (3) The expression “person acting as an insolvency practitioner” includes the official receiver acting as receiver or manager of the property concerned.
  • (4) In applying section 388 of the 1986 Act under subsection (2) above—
  • (a) the reference in section 388(2)(a) to a permanent or interim trustee in sequestration must be taken to include a reference to a trustee in sequestration;
  • (b) section 388(5) (which includes provision that nothing in the section applies to anything done by the official receiver or the Accountant in Bankruptcy) must be ignored.
  • (5) In applying Article 3 of the 1989 Order under subsection (2) above, paragraph (5) (which includes provision that nothing in the Article applies to anything done by the official receiver) must be ignored.

Interpretation

Interpretation

434
  • (1) The following paragraphs apply to references to Acts or Orders—
  • (a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (b) the 1914 Act is the Bankruptcy Act 1914 (c. 59);
  • (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (d) the 1986 Act is the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45);
  • (e) the 1989 Order is the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I. 19)).
  • (f) the 2016 Act is the Bankruptcy (Scotland) Act 2016;
  • (2) An award of sequestration is made on the date of sequestration within the meaning of section 22(7) of the 2016 Act.
  • (3) This section applies for the purposes of this Part.

Part 10 — Information

England and Wales and Northern Ireland

Use of information by Director

435
  • (1) Information obtained by or on behalf of a relevant authority in connection with the exercise of any of the authority's functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8 may be used by the authority in connection with his exercise of any of the authority's other functions (whether under, or in relation to, either Part, another Part of this Act or otherwise).
  • (2) Information obtained by or on behalf of a relevant authority in connection with the exercise of any of the authority's functions (whether under, or in relation to, this Act or otherwise) which are not functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8 may be used by the authority in connection with his exercise of any of the authority's functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8.
  • (3) This section applies to information obtained before the coming into force of the section as well as to information obtained after the coming into force of the section.
  • (4) In this section “relevant authority” means—
  • (a) the Director of Public Prosecutions;
  • (b) the Director of the Serious Fraud Office; ...
  • (c) the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
  • (d) Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs; or
  • (e) the Financial Conduct Authority.

Disclosure of information to Director

436
  • (1) Information which is held by or on behalf of a permitted person (whether it was obtained before or after the coming into force of subsection (10)) may be disclosed to a relevant authority for the purpose of the exercise by the authority of the authority's functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8.
  • (2) A disclosure under this section is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
  • (3) But nothing in this section authorises the making of a disclosure—
  • (a) which contravenes the data protection legislation;
  • (b) which is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
  • (4) This section does not affect a power to disclose which exists apart from this section.
  • (5) These are permitted persons—
  • (a) a constable;
  • (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (d) the Director of the Serious Fraud Office;
  • (e) the Commissioners of Inland Revenue;
  • (f) the Commissioners of Customs and Excise;
  • (g) the Director of Public Prosecutions;
  • (ga) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (h) the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
  • (i) the Financial Conduct Authority.
  • (6) The Secretary of State may by order designate as permitted persons other persons who exercise functions which he believes are of a public nature.
  • (7) But an order under subsection (6) must specify the functions in respect of which the designation is made.
  • (7A) In relation to persons exercising functions in Northern Ireland, any reference in subsection (6) to the Secretary of State must be read as a reference to the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland.
  • (8) Information must not be disclosed under this section on behalf of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or on behalf of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise unless the Commissioners concerned authorise the disclosure.
  • (9) The power to authorise a disclosure under subsection (8) may be delegated (either generally or for a specified purpose)—
  • (a) in the case of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue, to an officer of the Board of Inland Revenue;
  • (b) in the case of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise, to a customs officer.
  • (10) In this section “relevant authority” has the same meaning as in section 435.

Further disclosure

437
  • (1) Subsection (2) applies to information obtained under section 436 from the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or from the Commissioners of Customs and Excise or from a person acting on behalf of either of them.
  • (2) Such information must not be further disclosed except—
  • (a) for a purpose connected with the exercise of a relevant authority's functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8 , and
  • (b) with the consent of the Commissioners concerned.
  • (3) Consent under subsection (2) may be given—
  • (a) in relation to a particular disclosure;
  • (b) in relation to disclosures made in circumstances specified or described in the consent.
  • (4) The power to consent to further disclosure under subsection (2)(b) may be delegated (either generally or for a specified purpose)—
  • (a) in the case of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue, to an officer of the Board of Inland Revenue;
  • (b) in the case of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise, to a customs officer.
  • (5) Subsection (6) applies to information obtained under section 436 from a permitted person other than the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or the Commissioners of Customs and Excise or a person acting on behalf of either of them.
  • (6) A permitted person who discloses such information to a relevant authority may make the disclosure subject to such conditions as to further disclosure by the authority as the permitted person thinks appropriate; and the information must not be further disclosed in contravention of the conditions.
  • (7) In this section “relevant authority” has the same meaning as in section 435.

Disclosure of information by Director

438
  • (1) Information obtained by or on behalf of a relevant authority in connection with the exercise of any of the authority's functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8 may be disclosed by the authority if the disclosure is for the purposes of any of the following—
  • (a) any criminal investigation which is being or may be carried out, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
  • (b) any criminal proceedings which have been or may be started, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
  • (c) the exercise of the authority's functions under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8;
  • (d) the exercise by the prosecutor of functions under Parts 2, 3 and 4;
  • (e) the exercise by the Scottish Ministers of their functions under Part 5 or 8;
  • (f) the exercise by a customs officer , an accredited financial investigator , a constable or an SFO officer of his functions under Chapter 3 , 3A , 3B, 3C, 3D, 3E or 3F of Part 5;
  • (fa) the exercise of any functions of the National Crime Agency or another relevant authority under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8;
  • (g) safeguarding national security;
  • (h) investigations or proceedings outside the United Kingdom which have led or may lead to the making of an external order within the meaning of section 447;
  • (i) the exercise of a designated function.
  • (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (5) If a relevant authority makes a disclosure of information for a purpose specified in subsection (1) the authority may make any further disclosure of the information by the person to whom the authority discloses it subject to such conditions as the authority thinks fit.
  • (6) Such a person must not further disclose the information in contravention of the conditions.
  • (7) A disclosure under this section is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
  • (8) But nothing in this section authorises the making of a disclosure—
  • (a) which contravenes the data protection legislation;
  • (b) which is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
  • (8A) This section does not affect a power to disclose which exists apart from this section.
  • (8B) This section applies to information obtained before the coming into force of subsection (10) as well as to information obtained after the coming into force of that subsection.
  • (9) A designated function is a function which the Secretary of State thinks is a function of a public nature and which he designates by order.
  • (10) In this section “relevant authority” has the same meaning as in section 435.

Scotland

Disclosure of information to Lord Advocate and to Scottish Ministers

439
  • (1) Information which is held by or on behalf of a permitted person (whether it was obtained before or after the coming into force of this section) may be disclosed to the Lord Advocate in connection with the exercise of any of his functions under Part 3 or to the Scottish Ministers in connection with the exercise of any of their functions under Part 5 or 8.
  • (2) A disclosure under this section is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
  • (3) But nothing in this section authorises the making of a disclosure—
  • (a) which contravenes the data protection legislation;
  • (b) which is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
  • (4) This section does not affect a power to disclose which exists apart from this section.
  • (5) These are permitted persons—
  • (a) a constable;
  • (b) the National Crime Agency but only so far as the information is held by it or on its behalf otherwise than in connection with its functions under this Act;
  • (d) the Director of the Serious Fraud Office;
  • (e) the Commissioners of Inland Revenue;
  • (f) the Commissioners of Customs and Excise;
  • (fa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (g) the Director of Public Prosecutions;
  • (h) the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
  • (i) the Financial Conduct Authority.
  • (6) The Scottish Ministers may by order designate as permitted persons other persons who exercise functions which they believe are of a public nature.
  • (7) But an order under subsection (6) must specify the functions in respect of which the designation is made.
  • (8) Information must not be disclosed under this section on behalf of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or on behalf of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise unless the Commissioners concerned authorise the disclosure.
  • (9) The power to authorise a disclosure under subsection (8) may be delegated (either generally or for a specified purpose)—
  • (a) in the case of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue, to an officer of the Board of Inland Revenue;
  • (b) in the case of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise, to a customs officer.

Further disclosure

440
  • (1) Subsection (2) applies to information obtained under section 439 from the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or from the Commissioners of Customs and Excise or from a person acting on behalf of either of them.
  • (2) Such information must not be further disclosed except—
  • (a) for a purpose connected with the exercise of the functions of the Lord Advocate under Part 3 and of the Scottish Ministers under Part 5, and
  • (b) with the consent of the Commissioners concerned.
  • (3) Consent under subsection (2) may be given—
  • (a) in relation to a particular disclosure;
  • (b) in relation to disclosures made in circumstances specified or described in the consent.
  • (4) The power to consent to further disclosure under subsection (2)(b) may be delegated (either generally or for a specified purpose)—
  • (a) in the case of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue, to an officer of the Board of Inland Revenue;
  • (b) in the case of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise, to a customs officer.
  • (5) Subsection (6) applies to information obtained under section 439 from a permitted person other than the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or the Commissioners of Customs and Excise or a person acting on behalf of either of them.
  • (6) A permitted person who discloses such information to the Lord Advocate or to the Scottish Ministers may make the disclosure subject to such conditions as to further disclosure by the Lord Advocate or by the Scottish Ministers as the permitted person thinks appropriate; and the information must not be further disclosed in contravention of the conditions.

Disclosure of information by Lord Advocate and by Scottish Ministers

441
  • (1) Information obtained by or on behalf of the Lord Advocate in connection with the exercise of any of his functions under Chapter 3 , 3A, 3C or 3F of Part 5 may be disclosed to the Scottish Ministers in connection with the exercise of any of their functions under that Part.
  • (2) Information obtained by or on behalf of the Lord Advocate in connection with the exercise of any of his functions under Part 3 or by or on behalf of the Scottish Ministers in connection with the exercise of any of their functions under Part 5 or 8 may be disclosed by him or by them if the disclosure is for the purposes of any of the following—
  • (a) any criminal investigation which is being or may be carried out whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
  • (b) any criminal proceedings which have been or may be started, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
  • (c) the exercise of the functions of the Lord Advocate under Part 3;
  • (d) the exercise of the functions of the Scottish Ministers under Part 5 or 8;
  • (e) the exercise by the prosecutor of functions under Parts 2, 3 and 4;
  • (fa) the exercise of the functions of the Director of Public Prosecutions, ... the Director of the Serious Fraud Office or the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland functions of a relevant authority, as defined by section 435(4), under, or in relation to, Part 5 or 8;
  • (g) the exercise by a constable of his functions under Chapter 3 , 3A , 3B, 3C, 3D, 3E or 3F of Part 5;
  • (h) safeguarding national security;
  • (i) investigations or proceedings outside the United Kingdom which have led or may lead to the making of an external order within the meaning of section 447;
  • (j) the exercise of a designated function.
  • (3) If the Lord Advocate makes a disclosure of information for a purpose specified in subsection (2) he may make any further disclosure of the information by the person to whom he discloses it subject to such conditions as he thinks fit.
  • (4) If the Scottish Ministers make a disclosure of information for a purpose specified in subsection (2) they may make any further disclosure of the information by the person to whom they disclose it subject to such conditions as they think fit.
  • (5) A person mentioned in subsection (3) or (4) must not further disclose the information in contravention of the conditions.
  • (6) A disclosure under this section is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
  • (7) But nothing in this section authorises the making of a disclosure—
  • (a) which contravenes the data protection legislation;
  • (b) which is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
  • (8) This section does not affect a power to disclose which exists apart from this section.
  • (9) A designated function is a function which the Scottish Ministers think is a function of a public nature and which they designate by order.

Overseas purposes

Restriction on disclosure for overseas purposes

442
  • (1) Section 18 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (restrictions on disclosure of information for overseas purposes) applies to a disclosure of information authorised by section 438(1)(a) or (b) or 441(2)(a) or (b).
  • (2) In the application of section 18 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 by virtue of subsection (1) section 20 of that Act must be ignored and the following subsection is substituted for subsection (2) of section 18 of that Act—

(2) In subsection (1) the reference, in relation to a direction, to a relevant disclosure is a reference to a disclosure which— (a) is made for a purpose authorised by section 438(1)(a) or (b) or 441(2)(a) or (b) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002, and (b) is of any such information as is described in the direction.

.

Part 11 — Co-operation

Enforcement in different parts of the United Kingdom

443
  • (1) Her Majesty may by Order in Council make provision—
  • (a) for an order made by a court under Part 2 to be enforced in Scotland or Northern Ireland;
  • (b) for an order made by a court under Part 3 to be enforced in England and Wales or Northern Ireland;
  • (c) for an order made by a court under Part 4 to be enforced in England and Wales or Scotland;
  • (ca) for an order made by a court under Part 7 in one part of the United Kingdom to be enforced in another part;
  • (d) for an order made under Part 8 in one part of the United Kingdom to be enforced in another part;
  • (e) for a warrant issued under Part 8 in one part of the United Kingdom to be executed in another part.
  • (2) Her Majesty may by Order in Council make provision—
  • (a) for a function of a receiver appointed in pursuance of Part 2 to be exercisable in Scotland or Northern Ireland;
  • (b) for a function of an administrator appointed in pursuance of Part 3 to be exercisable in England and Wales or Northern Ireland;
  • (c) for a function of a receiver appointed in pursuance of Part 4 to be exercisable in England and Wales or Scotland.
  • (3) An Order under this section may include—
  • (a) provision conferring and imposing functions on the prosecutor , the National Crime Agency or its officers and the relevant Director;
  • (b) provision about the registration of orders and warrants;
  • (c) provision allowing directions to be given in one part of the United Kingdom about the enforcement there of an order made or warrant issued in another part;
  • (d) provision about the authentication in one part of the United Kingdom of an order made or warrant issued in another part.
  • (4) An Order under this section may—
  • (a) amend an enactment;
  • (b) apply an enactment (with or without modifications).
  • (5) In this section “relevant Director” has the meaning given by section 352(5A).

External requests and orders

444
  • (1) Her Majesty may by Order in Council—
  • (a) make provision for a prohibition on dealing with property which is the subject of an external request;
  • (b) make provision for the realisation of property for the purpose of giving effect to an external order.
  • (2) An Order under this section may include provision which (subject to any specified modifications) corresponds to any provision of Part 2, 3 or 4 or Part 5 except Chapter 3.
  • (3) An Order under this section may include—
  • (a) provision about the functions of any of the listed persons in relation to external requests and orders;
  • (aa) provision creating offences in relation to external requests and orders which are equivalent to the offences created by section 453B;
  • (b) provision about the registration of external orders;
  • (c) provision about the authentication of any judgment or order of an overseas court, and of any other document connected with such a judgment or order or any proceedings relating to it;
  • (d) provision about evidence (including evidence required to establish whether proceedings have been started or are likely to be started in an overseas court);
  • (e) provision to secure that any person affected by the implementation of an external request or the enforcement of an external order has an opportunity to make representations to a court in the part of the United Kingdom where the request is being implemented or the order is being enforced.
  • (4) For the purposes of subsection (3)(a) “the listed persons” are—
  • (a) the Secretary of State;
  • (b) the Lord Advocate;
  • (c) the Scottish Ministers;
  • (ca) the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland;
  • (d) the National Crime Agency;
  • (e) the Director of Public Prosecutions;
  • (f) the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland; and
  • (g) the Director of the Serious Fraud Office; ...
  • (h) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

External investigations

445
  • (1) Her Majesty may by Order in Council make—
  • (a) provision to enable orders equivalent to those under Part 8 to be made, and warrants equivalent to those under Part 8 to be issued, for the purposes of an external investigation;
  • (b) provision creating offences in relation to external investigations which are equivalent to offences created by Part 8 and section 453B.
  • (2) An Order under this section may include—
  • (a) provision corresponding to any provision of Part 8 (subject to any specified modifications);
  • (b) provision about the functions of the Secretary of State, the Lord Advocate, the Scottish Ministers, the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland, the National Crime Agency or its officers, the Director of Public Prosecutions, the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland, ... the Director of the Serious Fraud Office, constables and customs officers;
  • (c) provision about evidence (including evidence required to establish whether an investigation is being carried out in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom).
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Rules of court

446

Rules of court may make such provision as is necessary or expedient to give effect to an Order in Council made under this Part (including provision about the exercise of functions of a judge conferred or imposed by the Order).

Interpretation

447
  • (1) An external request is a request by an overseas authority to prohibit dealing with relevant property which is identified in the request.
  • (2) An external order is an order which—
  • (a) is made by an overseas court where property is found or believed to have been obtained as a result of or in connection with criminal conduct, and
  • (b) is for the recovery of specified property or a specified sum of money.
  • (3) An external investigation is an investigation by an overseas authority into—
  • (a) whether property has been obtained as a result of or in connection with criminal conduct, ...
  • (aa) the extent or whereabouts of property obtained as a result of or in connection with criminal conduct, or
  • (b) whether a money laundering offence has been committed.
  • (4) Property is all property wherever situated and includes—
  • (a) money;
  • (b) all forms of property, real or personal, heritable or moveable;
  • (c) things in action and other intangible or incorporeal property.
  • (5) Property is obtained by a person if he obtains an interest in it.
  • (6) References to an interest, in relation to property other than land, include references to a right (including a right to possession).
  • (6A) A person who obtains a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct is to be taken to obtain, as a result of or in connection with the conduct, a sum of money equal to the value of the pecuniary advantage.
  • (6B) References to property or a pecuniary advantage obtained in connection with conduct include references to property or a pecuniary advantage obtained both in that connection and some other.
  • (7) Property is relevant property if there are reasonable grounds to believe that it may be needed to satisfy an external order which has been or which may be made.
  • (8) Criminal conduct is conduct which—
  • (a) constitutes an offence in any part of the United Kingdom, or
  • (b) would constitute an offence in any part of the United Kingdom if it occurred there.
  • (9) A money laundering offence is conduct carried out in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom and which if carried out in the United Kingdom would constitute any of the following offences—
  • (a) an offence under section 327, 328 or 329;
  • (b) an attempt, conspiracy or incitement to commit an offence specified in paragraph (a);
  • (c) aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in paragraph (a).
  • (10) An overseas court is a court of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
  • (11) An overseas authority is an authority which has responsibility in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom—
  • (a) for making a request to an authority in another country or territory (including the United Kingdom) to prohibit dealing with relevant property,
  • (b) for carrying out an investigation into whether property has been obtained as a result of or in connection with criminal conduct, or
  • (c) for carrying out an investigation into whether a money laundering offence has been committed.
  • (12) This section applies for the purposes of this Part.

Part 12 — Miscellaneous and general

Miscellaneous

Tax

448

Schedule 10 contains provisions about tax.

Agency staff: pseudonyms

449
  • (1) This section applies to a National Crime Agency officer if—
  • (a) he is assigned to do anything on behalf of the National Crime Agency for the purposes of this Act, and
  • (b) it is necessary or expedient for the purpose of doing the thing for the National Crime Agency officer to identify himself by name.
  • (2) An authorised person may direct that such a National Crime Agency officer may for that purpose identify himself by means of a pseudonym.
  • (3) For the purposes of any proceedings or application under this Act a certificate signed by an authorised person which sufficiently identifies the National Crime Agency officer by reference to the pseudonym is conclusive evidence that that National Crime Agency officer is authorised to use the pseudonym.
  • (4) In any proceedings or application under this Act a National Crime Agency officer in respect of whom a direction under this section is in force must not be asked (and if asked is not required to answer) any question which is likely to reveal his true identity.
  • (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (6) In this section “authorised person” means an NCA officer authorised by the Director General of the NCA for the purposes of this section.

Pseudonyms: Scotland

450
  • (1) This section applies to—
  • (a) any person named by the Scottish Ministers for the purpose of a civil recovery investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation under Part 8, or
  • (b) any person authorised by the Scottish Ministers for the purpose of such a civil recovery investigation to receive relevant information under section 391,

if it is necessary or expedient for the person to identify himself by name for that purpose.

  • (2) The Scottish Ministers may direct that such a person may for that purpose identify himself by means of a pseudonym.
  • (3) For the purposes of any proceedings or application under this Act, a certificate signed by the Scottish Ministers which sufficiently identifies the person by reference to the pseudonym is conclusive evidence that the person is authorised to use the pseudonym.
  • (4) In any proceedings or application under this Act a person in respect of whom a direction under this section is in force must not be asked (and if asked is not required to answer) any question which is likely to reveal his true identity.

Customs and Excise prosecutions

451
  • (1) Proceedings for a specified offence may be started by the Director of Public Prosecutions or by order of the Commissioners for Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs (the Commissioners).
  • (2) Where proceedings under subsection (1) are instituted by the Commissioners, the proceedings must be brought in the name of an officer of Revenue and Customs.
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) If the Commissioners investigate, or propose to investigate, any matter to help them to decide—
  • (a) whether there are grounds for believing that a specified offence has been committed, or
  • (b) whether a person is to be prosecuted for such an offence,

the matter must be treated as an assigned matter within the meaning of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2).

  • (5) This section—
  • (a) does not prevent any person (including a officer of Revenue and Customs) who has power to arrest, detain or prosecute a person for a specified offence from doing so;
  • (b) does not prevent a court from dealing with a person brought before it following his arrest by a officer of Revenue and Customs for a specified offence, even if the proceedings were not started by an order under subsection (1).
  • (6) The following are specified offences—
  • (a) an offence under Part 7;
  • (b) an offence under section 342;
  • (c) an attempt, conspiracy or incitement to commit an offence specified in paragraph (a) or (b);
  • (d) aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in paragraph (a) or (b).
  • (7) This section does not apply to proceedings on indictment in Scotland.

Crown servants

452
  • (1) The Secretary of State may by regulations provide that any of the following provisions apply to persons in the public service of the Crown.
  • (2) The provisions are—
  • (a) the provisions of Part 7;
  • (b) section 342.
  • (3) In relation to Northern Ireland, the power to make regulations under subsection (1) is exercisable by the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland (and not by the Secretary of State) in relation to persons in the public service of the Crown in right of Her Majesty’s Government in Northern Ireland.

References to financial investigators

453
  • (1) The Secretary of State may by order provide that a specified reference in this Act to an accredited financial investigator is a reference to such an investigator who falls within a specified description.
  • (1A) The Welsh Ministers may by order provide that a specified reference in this Act to an accredited financial investigator includes a reference to a person exercising a function of the Welsh Revenue Authority who falls within a specified description.
  • (2) A description may , in particular, be framed by reference to a grade designated by a specified person or by reference to particular types of training undertaken.

Customs officers

454

For the purposes of this Act a customs officer is a person commissioned by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise under section 6(3) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2).

Enactment

455

In this Act (except in section 460(1)) a reference to an enactment includes a reference to—

  • (a) an Act of the Scottish Parliament;
  • (b) Northern Ireland legislation.

General

Amendments

456

Schedule 11 contains miscellaneous and consequential amendments.

Repeals and revocations

457

Schedule 12 contains repeals and revocations.

Commencement

458
  • (1) The preceding provisions of this Act (except the provisions specified in subsection (3) or (4) ) come into force in accordance with provision made by the Secretary of State by order.
  • (2) But no order may be made by the Secretary of State which includes provision for the commencement of Part 5, 8 or 10 unless the Secretary of State has consulted the Scottish Ministers.
  • (3) The following provisions come into force in accordance with provision made by the Scottish Ministers by order after consultation with the Secretary of State—
  • (a) Part 3;
  • (b) this Part, to the extent that it relates to Part 3.
  • (4) Any provision of this Act which provides for the repeal of any provision of the Proceeds of Crime (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 comes into force in accordance with provision made by the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland by order.

Orders and regulations

459
  • (1) References in this section to subordinate legislation are to—
  • (a) any Order in Council under this Act;
  • (b) any order under this Act (other than one falling to be made by a court);
  • (c) any regulations under this Act.
  • (2) Subordinate legislation—
  • (a) may make different provision for different purposes;
  • (b) may include supplementary, incidental, saving or transitional provisions.
  • (3) Any power to make subordinate legislation is exercisable by statutory instrument (other than—
  • (a) the power of the Advocate General for Northern Ireland to make an order under section 377A(5), and
  • (b) any power of the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland to make subordinate legislation,

which are exercisable by statutory rule for the purposes of the Statutory Rules (Northern Ireland) Order 1979 (S.I. 1979/1573 (N.I.12))).

  • (3A) Subsection (3) does not apply to the power of the Scottish Ministers to make an order under section 118(2B) or regulations under section 131ZA(7).
  • (4) A statutory instrument is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament if it contains subordinate legislation other than—
  • (a) an order under section 35(2C), 41(5A), 41A(5), 47S(4), 67(7A), 75(7) or (8), 190A(5), 195S(4), ... 282, 292(4), 302(7B), 309,339A(7), 364(4), 377(4) , 377A(5) , 436(6), 438(9) or 458;
  • (azza) regulations under—
  • (i) section 67ZB(5) or 84A(5);
  • (ii) section 131ZC(5) or 150A(5);
  • (iii) section 251ZB(5) or 232A(5);
  • (aza) regulations under section 303B(2), 303G(5), 303W(10), 303Y(2), 303Z8(2) , 303Z18(10), 303Z20(2), 303Z35(4), 303Z42(7), 303Z52(10) or 303Z64(10);
  • (azab) regulations under section 339ZL(5);
  • (azb) regulations under section 340(14)(c) or (14A)(b),
  • (aa) an order made by the Welsh Ministers under section 453(1A);
  • (b) subordinate legislation made by the Scottish Ministers;
  • (c) an Order in Council made under section 443 which makes provision only in relation to Scotland.
  • (4A) A statutory instrument containing an order under section 453(1A) is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of the National Assembly for Wales.
  • (5) A statutory instrument is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of the Scottish Parliament if it contains—
  • (a) subordinate legislation made by the Scottish Ministers other than regulations under section 131ZA(7) or an order under section 118(2B), 142(6) or (7), 293(4), 303H(4), 398(4), 410(4), 439(6), 441(9) or 458;
  • (b) an Order in Council made under section 443 which makes provision only in relation to Scotland.
  • (6) No order may be made—
  • (a) by the Secretary of State under section 35(2C), 41(5A), 41A(5), 47S(4), 67(7A), 75(7) or (8), 190A(5), 195S(4), ... 282, 292(4), 302(7B), 309,339A(7), 364(4), 377(4), 436(6) or 438(9) unless a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House;
  • (aa) by the Attorney General or the Advocate General for Northern Ireland under section 377A(5) unless a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House;
  • (b) by the Scottish Ministers under section 118(2B), 142(6) or (7), 293(4), 303H(4), 398(4), 410(4), 439(6) or 441(9) unless a draft of the order has been laid before and approved by a resolution of the Scottish Parliament.
  • (6ZA) No regulations may be made by the Scottish Ministers under section 131ZA(7) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before and approved by a resolution of the Scottish Parliament.
  • (6ZAA) No regulations may be made by the Secretary of State under any of the following provisions unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House--
  • (a) section 67ZB(5) or 84A(5);
  • (b) section 131ZC(5) or 150A(5);
  • (c) section 251ZB(5) or 232A(5).
  • (6ZB) No regulations may be made by the Secretary of State under section 303B(2), 303G(5), 303W(10), 303Y(2), 303Z8(2) , 303Z18(10), 303Z20(2), 303Z35(4), 303Z42(7), 303Z52(10) or 303Z64(10) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House.
  • (6ZBA) No regulations may be made by the Secretary of State under section 327(2E)(a), 328(7)(a) or 329(2E)(a) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House.
  • (6ZBB) No regulations may be made by the Secretary of State under section 339ZL(5) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House.
  • (6ZC) No regulations may be made by the Treasury or the Secretary of State under section 340(14)(c) or (14A)(b) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House.
  • (6A) If a draft of an order under section 302(7B) or of regulations under section 303W(10) , 303Z18(10), 303Z52(10) or 303Z64(10) or of regulations under section 340(14)(c) or (14A)(b) would, apart from this subsection, be treated as a hybrid instrument for the purposes of the standing orders of either House of Parliament, it shall proceed in that House as if it were not a hybrid instrument.
  • (7) The Scottish Ministers must lay before the Scottish Parliament a copy of every statutory instrument containing an Order in Council made under section 444 or 445.
  • (7A) Subordinate legislation made by the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland is subject to negative resolution (within the meaning of section 41(6) of the Interpretation Act (Northern Ireland) 1954) other than an order under section 185(2B), 195T(5), 215(7A), 223(7) or (8), 282, 293A(4), 302(7B), 303I(4), 377ZA(4), 436(6) or 458 or regulations under section 303W(10) or 303Z18(10) .
  • (7B) No order shall be made by the Department of Justice under section 185(2B), 195T(5), 215(7A), 223(7) or (8), 282, 293A(4), 302(7B), 303I(4), 377ZA(4) or 436(6) unless a draft of it has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, the Northern Ireland Assembly.
  • (7BA) No regulations may be made by the Department of Justice under section 303W(10) or 303Z18(10) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, the Northern Ireland Assembly.
  • (7C) The Department of Justice must lay before the Northern Ireland Assembly a copy of every statutory instrument containing an Order in Council under section 444 or 445.
  • (7D) Section 41(3) of the Interpretation Act (Northern Ireland) 1954 applies for the purposes of subsections (7B) , (7BA) and (7C) in relation to the laying of a draft or copy as it applies in relation to the laying of a statutory document under an enactment.
  • (8) In this section references to the Advocate General for Northern Ireland are to be read, before the coming into force of section 27(1) of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26), as references to the Attorney General for Northern Ireland.

Finance

460
  • (1) The following are to be paid out of money provided by Parliament—
  • (a) any expenditure incurred by any Minister of the Crown under this Act;
  • (b) any increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable out of money so provided under any other enactment.
  • (2) Any sums received by the Secretary of State in consequence of this Act are to be paid into the Consolidated Fund.
  • (3) Subject to anything in this Act—
  • (a) any sums received by the Director of Public Prosecutions ... or the Director of the Serious Fraud Office in consequence of this Act are to be paid into the Consolidated Fund; and
  • (b) any sums received by the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland in consequence of this Act are to be paid to the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland, and
  • (c) any sums received by the Financial Conduct Authority in consequence of this Act are to be paid into the Consolidated Fund.

Extent

461
  • (1) Part 2 extends to England and Wales only.
  • (2) In Part 8, Chapter 2 extends to England and Wales and Northern Ireland only.
  • (3) These provisions extend to Scotland only—
  • (a) Part 3;
  • (b) in Part 8, Chapter 3.
  • (4) Part 4 extends to Northern Ireland only.
  • (5) The amendments in Schedule 11 have the same extent as the provisions amended.
  • (6) The repeals and revocations in Schedule 12 have the same extent as the provisions repealed or revoked.

Short title

462

This Act may be cited as the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.

SCHEDULE 1

Director’s terms of appointment

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Staff

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Finances

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Annual plan

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Annual report

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Meaning of “financial year”

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

SCHEDULE 2

Drug trafficking

1
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)—
  • (a) section 4(2) or (3) (unlawful production or supply of controlled drugs);
  • (b) section 5(3) (possession of controlled drug with intent to supply);
  • (c) section 8 (permitting certain activities relating to controlled drugs);
  • (d) section 20 (assisting in or inducing the commission outside the UK of an offence punishable under a corresponding law).
  • (2) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) if it is committed in connection with a prohibition or restriction on importation or exportation which has effect by virtue of section 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971—
  • (a) section 50(2) or (3) (improper importation of goods);
  • (b) section 68(2) (exploration of prohibited or restricted goods);
  • (c) section 170 (fraudulent evasion).
  • (3) An offence under either of the following provisions of the Criminal Justice (International Co-operation) Act 1990 (c. 5)—
  • (a) section 12 (manufacture or supply of a substance for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to that Act);
  • (b) section 19 (using a ship for illicit traffic in controlled drugs).

Money laundering

2

An offence under either of the following provisions of this Act—

  • (a) section 327 (concealing etc criminal property);
  • (b) section 328 (assisting another to retain criminal property).

Directing terrorism

3

An offence under section 56 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (directing the activities of a terrorist organisation).

People trafficking

4
  • (1) An offence under section 25 or 25A of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77) (assisting unlawful immigration etc.).
  • (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) An offence under section 2 of the Modern Slavery Act 2015 (human trafficking).

Arms trafficking

5
  • (1) An offence under either of the following provisions of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 if it is committed in connection with a firearm or ammunition—
  • (a) section 68(2) (exportation of prohibited goods);
  • (b) section 170 (fraudulent evasion).
  • (2) An offence under section 3(1) of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27) (dealing in firearms or ammunition by way of trade or business).
  • (3) In this paragraph “firearm” and “ammunition” have the same meanings as in section 57 of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27).

Counterfeiting

6

An offence under any of the following provisions of the Forgery and Counterfeiting Act 1981 (c. 45)—

  • (a) section 14 (making counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (b) section 15 (passing etc counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (c) section 16 (having counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (d) section 17 (making or possessing materials or equipment for counterfeiting).

Intellectual property

7
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988 (c. 48)—
  • (a) section 107(1) (making or dealing in an article which infringes copyright);
  • (b) section 107(2) (making or possessing an article designed or adapted for making a copy of a copyright work);
  • (c) section 198(1) (making or dealing in an illicit recording);
  • (d) section 297A (making or dealing in unauthorised decoders).
  • (2) An offence under section 92(1), (2) or (3) of the Trade Marks Act 1994 (c. 26) (unauthorised use etc of trade mark).

Pimps and brothels

8
  • (1) An offence under section 33 or 34 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 (keeping or letting premises for use as a brothel).
  • (2) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Sexual Offences Act 2003—
  • (a) section 14 (arranging or facilitating commission of a child sex offence);
  • (b) section 48 (causing or inciting sexual exploitation of a child );
  • (c) section 49 (controlling a child in relation to sexual exploitation );
  • (d) section 50 (arranging or facilitating sexual exploitation of a child );
  • (e) section 52 (causing or inciting prostitution for gain);
  • (f) section 53 (controlling prostitution for gain).

Blackmail

9

An offence under section 21 of the Theft Act 1968 (c. 60) (blackmail).

Inchoate offences

10
  • (1) An offence of attempting, conspiring or inciting the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule.
  • (1A) An offence under section 44 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 of doing an act capable of encouraging or assisting the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule.
  • (2) An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of such an offence.

SCHEDULE 3

General

1

In this Schedule, unless otherwise expressly provided—

  • (a) references to an administrator are to an administrator appointed under section 125 or 128(3);
  • (b) references to realisable property are to the realisable property in respect of which the administrator is appointed.

Appointment etc

2
  • (1) If the office of administrator is vacant, for whatever reason, the court must appoint a new administrator.
  • (2) Any property vested in the previous administrator by virtue of paragraph 5(4) vests in the new administrator.
  • (3) Any order under section 125 or 128(7) in relation to the previous administrator applies in relation to the new administrator when he gives written notice of his appointment to the person subject to the order.
  • (4) The administration of property by an administrator must be treated as continuous despite any temporary vacancy in that office.
  • (5) The appointment of an administrator is subject to such conditions as to caution as the accountant of court may impose.
  • (6) The premium of any bond of caution or other security required by such conditions must be treated as part of the administrator’s expenses in the exercise of his functions.

Functions

3
  • (1) An administrator—
  • (a) may, if appointed under section 125, and
  • (b) must, if appointed under section 128(3),

as soon as practicable take possession of the realisable property and of the documents mentioned in sub-paragraph (2).

  • (2) Those documents are any document which—
  • (a) is in the possession or control of the person (“A”) in whom the property is vested (or would be vested but for an order made under paragraph 5(4)), and
  • (b) relates to the property or to A’s assets, business or financial affairs.
  • (3) An administrator is entitled to have access to, and to copy, any document relating to the property or to A’s assets, business or financial affairs and not falling within sub-paragraph (2)(a).
  • (4) An administrator may bring, defend or continue any legal proceedings relating to the property.
  • (5) An administrator may borrow money so far as it is necessary to do so to safeguard the property and may for the purposes of such borrowing create a security over any part of the property.
  • (6) An administrator may, if he considers that it would be beneficial for the management or realisation of the property—
  • (a) carry on any business of A;
  • (b) exercise any right of A as holder of securities in a company;
  • (c) grant a lease of the property or take on lease any other property;
  • (d) enter into any contract, or execute any deed, as regards the property or as regards A’s business.
  • (7) An administrator may, where any right, option or other power forms part of A’s estate, make payments or incur liabilities with a view to—
  • (a) obtaining property which is the subject of, or
  • (b) maintaining,

the right, option or power.

  • (8) An administrator may effect or maintain insurance policies as regards the property on A’s business.
  • (9) An administrator may, if appointed under section 128(3), complete any uncompleted title which A has to any heritable estate; but completion of title in A’s name does not validate by accretion any unperfected right in favour of any person other than the administrator.
  • (10) An administrator may sell, purchase or exchange property or discharge any security for an obligation due to A; but it is incompetent for the administrator or an associate of his (within the meaning of section 229 of the Bankruptcy (Scotland) Act 2016 ) to purchase any of A’s property in pursuance of this sub-paragraph.
  • (11) An administrator may claim, vote and draw dividends in the sequestration of the estate (or bankruptcy or liquidation) of a debtor of A and may accede to a voluntary trust deed for creditors of such a debtor.
  • (12) An administrator may discharge any of his functions through agents or employees, but is personally liable to meet the fees and expenses of any such agent or employee out of such remuneration as is payable to the administrator on a determination by the accountant of court.
  • (13) An administrator may take such professional advice as he considers necessary in connection with the exercise of his functions.
  • (14) An administrator may at any time apply to the court for directions as regards the exercise of his functions.
  • (15) An administrator may exercise any power specifically conferred on him by the court, whether conferred on his appointment or subsequently.
  • (16) An administrator may—
  • (a) enter any premises;
  • (b) search for or inspect anything authorised by the court;
  • (c) make or obtain a copy, photograph or other record of anything so authorised;
  • (d) remove anything which the administrator is required or authorised to take possession of in pursuance of an order of the court.
  • (17) An administrator may do anything incidental to the powers and duties listed in the previous provisions of this paragraph.
4

An administrator proposing to exercise any power conferred by paragraph 3(4) to (17) must first obtain the consent of the accountant of court.

Dealings in good faith with administrator

5
  • (1) A person dealing with an administrator in good faith and for value is not concerned to enquire whether the administrator is acting within the powers mentioned in paragraph 3.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply where the administrator or an associate purchases property in contravention of paragraph 3(10).
  • (3) The validity of any title is not challengeable by reason only of the administrator having acted outwith the powers mentioned in paragraph 3.
  • (4) The exercise of a power mentioned in paragraph 3(4) to (11) must be in A’s name except where and in so far as an order made by the court under this sub-paragraph vests the property in the administrator (or in a previous administrator).
  • (5) The court may make an order under sub-paragraph (4) on the application of the administrator or on its own motion.

Money received by administrator

6
  • (1) All money received by an administrator in the exercise of his functions must be deposited by him, in the name (unless vested in the administrator by virtue of paragraph 5(4)) of the holder of the property realised, in a bank or building society.
  • (2) But the administrator may at any time retain in his hands a sum not exceeding £200 or such other sum as may be prescribed by the Scottish Ministers by regulations.
  • (3) In sub-paragraph (1)—
  • (a) “bank” means an authorised deposit-taker, other than a building society, that has its head office or a branch in the United Kingdom;
  • (b) “building society” has the same meaning as in the Building Societies Act 1986.
  • (4) In sub-paragraph (3)(a) “authorised deposit-taker” means—
  • (a) a person who has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 to accept deposits;
  • (b) a person who—
  • (i) is specified, or is within a class of persons specified, by an order under section 38 of that Act (exemption orders), and
  • (ii) accepts deposits;
  • (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (5) A reference in sub-paragraph (4) to a person ... with permission to accept deposits does not include a person ... with permission to do so only for the purposes of, or in the course of, an activity other than accepting deposits.

Effect of appointment of administrator on diligence

7
  • (1) An arrestment or attachment of realisable property executed on or after the appointment of an administrator does not create a preference for the arrester or attacher .
  • (2) Any realisable property so arrested or attached , or (if the property has been sold) the proceeds of sale, must be handed over to the administrator.
  • (3) A poinding of the ground in respect of realisable property on or after such appointment is ineffectual in a question with the administrator except for the interest mentioned in sub-paragraph (4).
  • (4) That interest is—
  • (a) interest on the debt of a secured creditor for the current half-yearly term, and
  • (b) arrears of interest on that debt for one year immediately before the commencement of that term.
  • (5) On and after such appointment no other person may raise or insist in an adjudication against realisable property or be confirmed as executor-creditor on that property.
  • (6) An inhibition on realisable property which takes effect on or after such appointment does not create a preference for the inhibitor in a question with the administrator.
  • (7) This paragraph is without prejudice to sections 123 and 124.
  • (8) In this paragraph, the reference to an administrator is to an administrator appointed under section 128(3).

Supervision

8
  • (1) If the accountant of court reports to the court that an administrator has failed to perform any duty imposed on him, the court may, after giving the administrator an opportunity to be heard as regards the matter—
  • (a) remove him from office,
  • (b) censure him, or
  • (c) make such other order as it thinks fit.
  • (2) Section 6 of the Judicial Factors (Scotland) Act 1889 (c. 39) (supervision of judicial factors) does not apply in relation to an administrator.

Accounts and remuneration

9
  • (1) Not later than two weeks after the issuing of any determination by the accountant of court as to the remuneration and expenses payable to the administrator, the administrator or the Lord Advocate may appeal against it to the court.
  • (2) The amount of remuneration payable to the administrator must be determined on the basis of the value of the work reasonably undertaken by him, regard being had to the extent of the responsibilities involved.
  • (3) The accountant of court may authorise the administrator to pay without taxation an account in respect of legal services incurred by the administrator.

Discharge of administrator

10
  • (1) After an administrator has lodged his final accounts under paragraph 9(1), he may apply to the accountant of court to be discharged from office.
  • (2) A discharge, if granted, frees the administrator from all liability (other than liability arising from fraud) in respect of any act or omission of his in exercising his functions as administrator.

SCHEDULE 4

Money laundering

1

An offence under either of the following provisions of this Act—

  • (a) section 327 (concealing etc. criminal property);
  • (b) section 328 (assisting another person to retain criminal property).

Drug trafficking

2
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)—
  • (a) section 4(2) or (3) (unlawful production or supply of controlled drugs);
  • (b) section 5(3) (possession of controlled drug with intent to supply);
  • (c) section 8 (permitting certain activities relating to controlled drugs);
  • (d) section 20 (assisting in or inducing the commission outside the UK of an offence punishable under a corresponding law).
  • (2) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) if it is committed in connection with a prohibition or restriction on importation or exportation which has effect by virtue of section 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971—
  • (a) section 50(2) or (3) (improper importation of goods);
  • (b) section 68(2) (exportation of prohibited or restricted goods);
  • (c) section 170 (fraudulent evasion).
  • (3) An offence under either of the following provisions of the Criminal Justice (International Co-operation) Act 1990 (c. 5)—
  • (a) section 12 (manufacture or supply of a substance for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to that Act);
  • (b) section 19 (using a ship for illicit traffic in controlled drugs).

Directing terrorism

3

An offence under section 56 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (directing the activities of a terrorist organisation).

People trafficking

4
  • (1) An offence under section 25 or 25A of the Immigration Act 1971 (assisting unlawful immigration etc.).
  • (2) An offence under section 4 of the Asylum and Immigration (Treatment of Claimants, etc.) Act 2004 (trafficking people for exploitation).
  • (3) An offence of human trafficking (see section 1 of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Scotland) Act 2015).
  • (4) An offence to which section 5 of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Scotland) Act 2015 (offences aggravated by connection with human trafficking activity) applies.

Arms trafficking

5
  • (1) An offence under either of the following provisions of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 if it is committed in connection with a firearm or ammunition—
  • (a) section 68(2) (exportation of prohibited goods);
  • (b) section 170 (fraudulent evasion).
  • (2) An offence under section 3(1) of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27)(dealing in firearms or ammunition by way of trade or business).
  • (3) In this paragraph “firearm” and “ammunition” have the same meanings as in section 57 of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27).

Counterfeiting

6

An offence under any of the following provisions of the Forgery and Counterfeiting Act 1981 (c. 45)—

  • (a) section 14 (making counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (b) section 15 (passing etc counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (c) section 16 (having counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (d) section 17 (making or possessing materials or equipment for counterfeiting).

Intellectual property

7
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988 (c. 48)—
  • (a) section 107(1) (making or dealing in an article which infringes copyright);
  • (b) section 107(2) (making or possessing an article designed or adapted for making a copy of a copyright work);
  • (c) section 198(1) (making or dealing in an illicit recording);
  • (ca) section 296ZB(1) or (2) (devices and services designed to circumvent technological measures);
  • (d) section 297A (making or dealing in unauthorised decoders).
  • (2) An offence under section 92(1), (2), or (3) of the Trade Marks Act 1994 (c. 26)(unauthorised use etc of trade mark).

Pimps and brothels

8

An offence under either of the following provisions of the Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 39)—

  • (a) section 11(1) (living on earnings of prostitution or soliciting for immoral purposes);
  • (aa) section 11(4) (aiding, abetting or compelling prostitution for gain);
  • (b) section 11(5) (running of brothels).

Blackmail

9

An offence of blackmail or extortion.

Inchoate offences

10
  • (1) An offence of attempting, conspiring or inciting the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule.
  • (2) An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of such an offence.

SCHEDULE 5

Drug trafficking

1
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)—
  • (a) section 4(2) or (3) (unlawful production or supply of controlled drugs);
  • (b) section 5(3) (possession of controlled drug with intent to supply);
  • (c) section 8 (permitting certain activities relating to controlled drugs);
  • (d) section 20 (assisting in or inducing the commission outside the UK of an offence punishable under a corresponding law).
  • (2) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) if it is committed in connection with a prohibition or restriction on importation or exportation which has effect by virtue of section 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971—
  • (a) section 50(2) or (3) (improper importation of goods);
  • (b) section 68(2) (exportation of prohibited or restricted goods);
  • (c) section 170 (fraudulent evasion).
  • (3) An offence under either of the following provisions of the Criminal Justice (International Co-operation) Act 1990 (c. 5)—
  • (a) section 12 (manufacture or supply of a substance for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to that Act);
  • (b) section 19 (using a ship for illicit traffic in controlled drugs).

Money laundering

2

An offence under either of the following provisions of this Act—

  • (a) section 327 (concealing etc. criminal property);
  • (b) section 328 (assisting another to retain criminal property).

Directing terrorism

3

An offence under section 56 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (directing the activities of a terrorist organisation).

People trafficking

4
  • (1) An offence under section 25 or 25A of the Immigration Act 1971 (assisting unlawful immigration etc. ).
  • (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) An offence under section2 of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Criminal Justice and Support for Victims) Act (Northern Ireland) 2015 (human trafficking).

Arms trafficking

5
  • (1) An offence under either of the following provisions of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 if it is committed in connection with a firearm or ammunition—
  • (a) section 68(2) (exportation of prohibited goods);
  • (b) section 170 (fraudulent evasion).
  • (2) An offence under Article 24(1) of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 2004 (S.I. 2004/ (N.I. )) (dealing in firearms or ammunition by way of trade or business).
  • (3) In this paragraph “firearm” and “ammunition” have the same meanings as in Article 2(2) of that Order.

Counterfeiting

6

An offence under any of the following provisions of the Forgery and Counterfeiting Act 1981 (c. 45)—

  • (a) section 14 (making counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (b) section 15 (passing etc counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (c) section 16 (having counterfeit notes or coins);
  • (d) section 17 (making or possessing materials or equipment for counterfeiting).

Intellectual property

7
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988 (c. 48)—
  • (a) section 107(1) (making or dealing in an article which infringes copyright);
  • (b) section 107(2) (making or possessing an article designed or adapted for making a copy of a copyright work);
  • (c) section 198(1) (making or dealing in an illicit recording);
  • (d) section 297A (making or dealing in unauthorised decoders).
  • (2) An offence under section 92(1), (2) or (3) of the Trade Marks Act 1994 (c. 26) (unauthorised use etc of trade mark).

Pimps and brothels

8
  • (1) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 1885 (c. 69)—
  • (a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (d) section 13(3) (letting premises for use as a brothel).
  • (1A) An offence under any of the following provisions of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008—
  • (a) Article 21 (arranging or facilitating commission of a sex offence against a child);
  • (b) Article 38 (causing or inciting child prostitution or pornography);
  • (c) Article 39 (controlling a child prostitute or a child involved in pornography);
  • (d) Article 40 (arranging or facilitating child prostitution or pornography);
  • (e) Article 62 (causing or inciting prostitution for gain);
  • (f) Article 63 (controlling prostitution for gain).
  • (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (4) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (7) An offence of keeping a bawdy house.

Blackmail

9

An offence under section 20 of the Theft Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 16) (blackmail).

Inchoate offences

10
  • (1) An offence of attempting, conspiring or inciting the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule.
  • (1A) An offence under section 44 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 of doing an act capable of encouraging or assisting the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule.
  • (2) An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of such an offence.

SCHEDULE 6

Seizure

1

Power to seize property to which the order applies.

Information

2
  • (1) Power to obtain information or to require a person to answer any question.
  • (2) A requirement imposed in the exercise of the power has effect in spite of any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
  • (3) An answer given by a person in pursuance of such a requirement may not be used in evidence against him in criminal proceedings.
  • (4) Sub-paragraph (3) does not apply—
  • (a) on a prosecution for an offence under section 5 of the Perjury Act 1911, section 44(2) of the Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995 or Article 10 of the Perjury (Northern Ireland) Order 1979 (false statements), or
  • (b) on a prosecution for some other offence where, in giving evidence, he makes a statement inconsistent with it.
  • (5) But an answer may not be used by virtue of sub-paragraph (4)(b) against a person unless—
  • (a) evidence relating to it is adduced, or
  • (b) a question relating to it is asked,

by him or on his behalf in the proceedings arising out of the prosecution.

Entry, search, etc.

3
  • (1) Power to—
  • (a) enter any premises in the United Kingdom to which the interim order applies, and
  • (b) take any of the following steps.
  • (2) Those steps are—
  • (a) to carry out a search for or inspection of anything described in the order,
  • (b) to make or obtain a copy, photograph or other record of anything so described,
  • (c) to remove anything which he is required to take possession of in pursuance of the order or which may be required as evidence in the proceedings under Chapter 2 of Part 5.
  • (3) The order may describe anything generally, whether by reference to a class or otherwise.

Supplementary

4
  • (1) An order making any provision under paragraph 2 or 3 must make provision in respect of legal professional privilege (in Scotland, legal privilege within the meaning of Chapter 3 of Part 8).
  • (2) An order making any provision under paragraph 3 may require any person—
  • (a) to give the interim receiver or administrator access to any premises which he may enter in pursuance of paragraph 3,
  • (b) to give the interim receiver or administrator any assistance he may require for taking the steps mentioned in that paragraph.

Management

5
  • (1) Power to manage any property to which the order applies.
  • (2) Managing property includes—
  • (a) selling or otherwise disposing of assets comprised in the property which are perishable or which ought to be disposed of before their value diminishes,
  • (b) where the property comprises assets of a trade or business, carrying on, or arranging for another to carry on, the trade or business,
  • (c) incurring capital expenditure in respect of the property.

SCHEDULE 7

Sale

1

Power to sell the property or any part of it or interest in it.

Expenditure

2

Power to incur expenditure for the purpose of—

  • (a) acquiring any part of the property, or any interest in it, which is not vested in him,
  • (b) discharging any liabilities, or extinguishing any rights, to which the property is subject.

Management

3
  • (1) Power to manage property.
  • (2) Managing property includes doing anything mentioned in paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 6.
4

Power to start, carry on or defend any legal proceedings in respect of the property.

Compromise

5

Power to make any compromise or other arrangement in connection with any claim relating to the property.

Supplementary

6
  • (1) For the purposes of, or in connection with, the exercise of any of his powers—
  • (a) power by his official name to do any of the things mentioned in sub-paragraph (2),
  • (b) power to do any other act which is necessary or expedient.
  • (2) Those things are—
  • (a) holding property,
  • (b) entering into contracts,
  • (c) suing and being sued,
  • (d) employing agents,
  • (e) executing a power of attorney, deed or other instrument.

SCHEDULE 8

The Director

“I, A.B., do solemnly declare that I will not disclose any information received by me in carrying out my functions under Part 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 except for the purposes of those functions or for the purposes of any prosecution for an offence relating to inland revenue, or in such other cases as may be required or permitted by law.”

Members of the staff of the Agency

“I, A.B., do solemnly declare that I will not disclose any information received by me in carrying out the functions under Part 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 which I may from time to time be authorised by the Director of the Assets Recovery Agency to carry out except for the purposes of those functions, or to the Director or in accordance with his instructions, or for the purposes of any prosecution for an offence relating to inland revenue, or in such other cases as may be required or permitted by law.”

SCHEDULE 9

PART 1 — REGULATED SECTOR

Business in the regulated sector

1
  • (1) A business is in the regulated sector to the extent that it consists of—
  • (a) the acceptance by a credit institution of deposits or other repayable funds from the public, or the granting by a credit institution of credits for its own account;
  • (b) the carrying on of one or more of the activities listed in points 2 to 12 , 14 and 15 of Schedule 2 to the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 by an undertaking other than—
  • (i) a credit institution; ...
  • (ia) an undertaking whose only listed activity is as a creditor under an agreement which—
  • (aa) falls within section 12(a) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 (debtor-creditor-supplier agreements);
  • (bb) provides fixed sum credit (within the meaning given in section 10(1)(b) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 (running-account credit and fixed-sum credit)) in relation to the provision of services; and
  • (cc) provides financial accommodation by way of deferred payment or payment by instalments over a period not exceeding 12 months; or
  • (ii) an undertaking whose only listed activity is trading for own account in one or more of the products listed in point 7 of Schedule 2 to the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 and which does not act on behalf of a customer (that is, a third party which is not a member of the same group as the undertaking);
  • (c) the carrying on of activities by an authorised person (within the meaning of section 31 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000) who has permission under Part 4A of that Act to carry out or effect contracts of insurance, where those activities consist of carrying out or effecting contracts of long-term insurance;
  • (d) the provision of investment services or the performance of investment activities by a person (other than a person falling within one of the exclusions to the definition of “investment firm” in article 3(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/544)) whose regular occupation or business is the provision to other persons of an investment service or the performance of an investment activity on a professional basis;
  • (e) the marketing or other offering of units or shares by a collective investment undertaking;
  • (f) the activities of an insurance intermediary as defined in article 33B(4) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001, in respect of contracts of long-term insurance within the meaning given by article 3(1) of, and Part II of Schedule 1 to, that Order;
  • (g) the carrying on of any of the activities mentioned in paragraphs (b) to (f) by a branch located in the United Kingdom of a person referred to in those paragraphs (or of an equivalent person in any other State), wherever its head office is located;
  • (h) the activities of the National Savings Bank;
  • (i) any activity carried on for the purpose of raising money authorised to be raised under the National Loans Act 1968 under the auspices of the Director of Savings;
  • (j) the carrying on of statutory audit work within the meaning of section 1210 of the Companies Act 2006 (meaning of “statutory auditor” etc) by any firm or individual who is a statutory auditor within the meaning of Part 42 of that Act (statutory auditors);
  • (ja) the carrying on of local audit work within the meaning of Schedule 5 to the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (eligibility and regulation of local auditors) by any firm or individual who is a local auditor within the meaning of section 4(1) of that Act (general requirements for audit);
  • (k) the activities of a person appointed to act as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (meaning of “act as insolvency practitioner”) or article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989;
  • (l) the provision to other persons of accountancy services by a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides such services to other persons;
  • (m) the provision of material aid, or assistance or advice, in connection with the tax affairs of other persons by a firm or sole practitioner, whether provided directly or through a third party, if the firm or sole practitioner by way of business provides (as the case may be) aid, assistance or advice in connection with the tax affairs of other persons;
  • (n) the participation in financial or real property transactions concerning—
  • (i) the buying and selling of real property (or, in Scotland, heritable property) or business entities;
  • (ii) the managing of client money, securities or other assets;
  • (iii) the opening or management of bank, savings or securities accounts;
  • (iv) the organisation of contributions necessary for the creation, operation or management of companies; or
  • (v) the creation, operation or management of trusts, companies or similar structures,

by a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides legal or notarial services to other persons;

  • (o) the provision to other persons by way of business by a firm or sole practitioner of any of the services mentioned in sub-paragraph (4);
  • (p) the carrying on of estate agency work or letting agency work, ... by a firm or a sole practitioner who carries on, or whose employees carry on, such work;
  • (q) the trading in goods (including dealing as an auctioneer) whenever a transaction involves the making or receipt of a payment or payments in cash of at least 10,000 euros in total, whether the transaction is executed in a single operation or in several operations which appear to be linked, by a firm or sole trader who by way of business trades in goods;
  • (r) operating a casino under a casino operating licence (within the meaning given by section 65(2) of the Gambling Act 2005 (nature of licence)).
  • (s) the auctioning by an auction platform of two-day spot or five-day futures, within the meanings given by Article 3 of the Emission Allowance Auctioning Regulation.
  • (t) bidding directly, on behalf of clients, in auctions of emissions allowances in accordance with the Emission Allowance Auctioning Regulation.
  • (u) the carrying on of activities by a firm or sole practitioner when it—
  • (i) by way of business trades in, or acts as an intermediary in the sale or purchase of, works of art and the value of the transaction, or a series of linked transactions, amounts to 10,000 euros or more; or
  • (ii) is the operator of a freeport when it, or any other firm or sole practitioner, stores works of art in the freeport and the value of the works of art so stored for a person, or a series of linked persons, amounts to 10,000 euros or more;
  • (v) the carrying on of activities by a firm or individual when acting as a cryptoasset exchange provider or custodian wallet provider.
  • (2) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1)(a) and (b) “credit institution” means—
  • (a) a credit institution as defined in Article 4(1)(1) of the Capital Requirements Regulation; or
  • (b) a branch (within the meaning of Article 4(1)(17) of that Regulation) located in the United Kingdom of an institution falling within paragraph (a) (or of an equivalent institution in any other State) wherever its head office is located.
  • (2A) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1)(c), “contract of long-term insurance” means any contract falling within Part 2 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/544).
  • (3) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1)(n) a person participates in a transaction by assisting in the planning or execution of the transaction or otherwise acting for or on behalf of a client in the transaction.
  • (4) The services referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(o) are—
  • (a) forming companies or other legal persons;
  • (b) acting, or arranging for another person to act—
  • (i) as a director or secretary of a company;
  • (ii) as a partner of a partnership; or
  • (iii) in a similar position in relation to other legal persons;
  • (c) providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a company, partnership or any other legal person or arrangement;
  • (d) acting, or arranging for another person to act, as—
  • (i) a trustee of an express trust or similar legal arrangement; or
  • (ii) a nominee shareholder for a person other than a company whose securities are listed on a regulated market.

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