Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

Type Public General Act
Publication 2002-07-24
Last updated 2026-03-22
State In force
Department Statute Law Database
articles Not indexed
Reform history JSON API
  • (6) If the prosecutor accepts to any extent an allegation made by an interested person—
  • (a) in giving information required by an order under this section, or
  • (b) in any other statement given to the court in relation to any matter relevant to a determination under section 10A,

the court may treat the acceptance as conclusive of the matters to which it relates.

  • (7) For the purposes of this section an allegation may be accepted in a manner ordered by the court.
  • (8) If the court makes an order under this section it may at any time vary it by making another one.
  • (9) No information given by a person under this section is admissible in evidence in proceedings against that person for an offence.
25A
  • (1) This section applies if—
  • (a) a court has made a confiscation order,
  • (b) the defendant dies while the order is not satisfied, and
  • (c) the designated officer for a magistrates' court applies to the Crown Court for the discharge of the order.
  • (2) The court may discharge the order if it appears to the court that—
  • (a) it is not possible to recover anything from the estate of the deceased for the purpose of satisfying the order to any extent, or
  • (b) it would not be reasonable to make any attempt, or further attempt, to recover anything from the estate of the deceased for that purpose.
41A
  • (1) A restraint order may include provision authorising the detention of any property to which it applies if the property—
  • (a) is seized by an appropriate officer under a relevant seizure power, or
  • (b) is produced to an appropriate officer in compliance with a production order under section 345.
  • (2) Provision under subsection (1) may, in particular—
  • (a) relate to specified property, to property of a specified description or to all property to which the restraint order applies;
  • (b) relate to property that has already been seized or produced or to property that may be seized or produced in future.
  • (3) “Appropriate officer” means—
  • (a) an accredited financial investigator;
  • (b) a constable;
  • (c) an officer of Revenue and Customs;
  • (ca) an immigration officer;
  • (d) a National Crime Agency officer,
  • (e) a member of staff of the relevant director (within the meaning of section 352(5A)).
  • (4) “Relevant seizure power” means a power to seize property which is conferred by or by virtue of—
  • (a) section 47C,
  • (b) section 352, or
  • (c) Part 2 or 3 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (including as applied by order under section 114(2) of that Act).
  • (5) The Secretary of State may by order amend the definition of “relevant seizure power”.
44A
  • (1) This section applies where—
  • (a) a restraint order includes provision under section 41A authorising the detention of property, and
  • (b) the restraint order is discharged under section 42(5) or 43(3)(b).
  • (2) This section also applies where—
  • (a) a restraint order includes provision under section 41A authorising the detention of property, and
  • (b) the restraint order is varied under section 42(5) or 43(3)(b) so as to omit any such provision.
  • (3) The property may be detained until there is no further possibility of an appeal against—
  • (a) the decision to discharge or vary the restraint order, or
  • (b) any decision made on an appeal against that decision.

Code of practice about search and seizure and detention of property

Codes of practice

47S
  • (1) The Secretary of State must make a code of practice in connection with—
  • (a) the carrying out by appropriate officers of the functions conferred by sections 47C to 47H,
  • (b) the carrying out by senior officers of their functions under section 47G, and
  • (c) the detention of property under or by virtue of sections 41A, 44A and 47J to 47P.
  • (2) Where the Secretary of State proposes to issue a code of practice the Secretary of State must—
  • (a) publish a draft,
  • (b) consider any representations made about the draft,
  • (c) if the Secretary of State thinks appropriate, modify the draft in the light of any such representations.
  • (2A) The Secretary of State must also consult the Attorney General about the draft in its application to the exercise of powers by SFO officers and the Director of the Serious Fraud Office.
  • (3) The Secretary of State must lay a draft of the code before Parliament.
  • (4) When the Secretary of State has laid a draft of the code before Parliament the Secretary of State may bring it into operation by order.
  • (5) The Secretary of State may revise the whole or any part of the code and issue the code as revised; and subsections (2) to (4) apply to such a revised code as they apply to the original code.
  • (6) A failure by a person to comply with a provision of the code does not of itself make the person liable to criminal or civil proceedings.
  • (7) The code is admissible in evidence in criminal or civil proceedings and is to be taken into account by a court or tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be relevant.
67A
  • (1) This section applies to personal property which is held by a person and which—
  • (a) has been seized by an appropriate officer under a relevant seizure power, or
  • (b) has been produced to an appropriate officer in compliance with a production order under section 345.
  • (3) If—
  • (a) a confiscation order is made against the person by whom the property is held, and
  • (b) a receiver has not been appointed under section 50 in relation to the property,

a magistrates' court may by order authorise an appropriate officer to realise the property.

  • (4) In this section “appropriate officer” and “relevant seizure power” have the same meaning as in section 41A.
67B
  • (1) This section applies if a magistrates' court makes an order under section 67A.
  • (2) The court may determine an amount which may be recovered by the appropriate officer in respect of reasonable costs incurred in—
  • (a) storing or insuring the property since it was seized or produced as mentioned in subsection (1) of that section;
  • (b) realising the property.
  • (3) If the court makes a determination under this section the appropriate officer is entitled to payment of the amount under section 55(4).
  • (4) A determination under this section may be made on the same occasion as the section 67A order or on any later occasion; and more than one determination may be made in relation to any case.
  • (5) In this section “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 41A.
67C
  • (1) If a magistrates' court decides not to make an order under section 67ZA(3), 67A(3) or 67AA(2), an appropriate officer may appeal to the Crown Court.
  • (2) If a magistrates' court makes an order under section 67ZA(3), 67A(3) or 67AA(2), a person affected by the order may appeal to the Crown Court.
  • (3) But the person mentioned in section 67ZA(2)(a), 67A(3)(a) or 67AA(2)(a) (as applicable) may not appeal.
  • (4) An appropriate officer may appeal to the Crown Court against—
  • (a) a determination made by a magistrates' court under section 67B;
  • (b) a decision by a magistrates' court not to make a determination under that section.
  • (5) In this section “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 41A.
67D
  • (1) This section applies to sums which—
  • (a) are in the hands of an appropriate officer, and
  • (b) are the proceeds of the realisation of property under section 67ZA or 67A.
  • (2) The sums must be applied as follows—
  • (a) first, they must be applied in payment of such expenses incurred by a person acting as an insolvency practitioner as are payable under this subsection by virtue of section 432;
  • (b) second, they must be applied in making any payments directed by the magistrates' court or the Crown Court;
  • (c) third, they must be paid to the appropriate designated officer on account of the amount payable under the confiscation order.
  • (3) If the amount payable under the confiscation order has been fully paid and any sums remain in the appropriate officer's hands, the appropriate officer must distribute them—
  • (a) among such persons who held (or hold) interests in the property represented by the proceeds as the magistrates' court or the Crown Court directs, and
  • (b) in such proportions as it directs.
  • (4) Before making a direction under subsection (3) the court must give persons who held (or hold) interests in the property a reasonable opportunity to make representations to it.
  • (5) If the magistrates' court has made a direction under subsection (2)(b) or (3) in respect of the proceeds of realisation of any property, the Crown Court may not make a direction under either of those provisions in respect of the proceeds of realisation of that property; and vice versa.
  • (6) In this section—
  • “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 41A;
  • “appropriate designated officer” means the designated officer for the magistrates' court which, by virtue of section 35, is responsible for enforcing the confiscation order as if it were a fine.
87A
  • (1) The following rule applies for the purposes of construing any provision of this Part which refers to there being no further possibility of—
  • (a) an appeal against a decision of a court, or
  • (b) an appeal on which an order of a court could be varied or quashed.
  • (2) Any power to extend the time for giving notice of application for leave to appeal, or for applying for leave to appeal, must be ignored.
120A
  • (1) A restraint order may include provision authorising the detention of any property to which it applies if the property—
  • (a) is seized by an appropriate officer under a relevant seizure power, or
  • (b) is produced to an appropriate officer in compliance with a production order under section 380.
  • (2) Provision under subsection (1) may, in particular—
  • (a) relate to specified property, to property of a specified description or to all property to which the restraint order applies;
  • (b) relate to property that has already been seized or produced or to property that may be seized or produced in future.
  • (3) “Appropriate officer” means—
  • (a) a constable;
  • (b) an officer of Revenue and Customs;
  • (ba) an immigration officer;
  • (c) a National Crime Agency officer;
  • (4) “Relevant seizure power” means a power to seize property conferred by or by virtue of—
  • (a) section 127C or 387,
  • (b) a warrant granted under any other enactment or any rule of law, or
  • (c) any other enactment, or any rule of law, under which the authority of a warrant is not required.
122A
  • (1) This section applies where—
  • (a) a restraint order includes provision under section 120A authorising the detention of property, and
  • (b) the restraint order is recalled under section 121(7).
  • (2) This section also applies where—
  • (a) a restraint order includes provision under section 120A authorising the detention of property, and
  • (b) the restraint order is varied under section 121(7) so as to omit any such provision.
  • (3) The property may be detained until there is no further possibility of an appeal against (or review of)—
  • (a) the decision to recall or vary the restraint order, or
  • (b) any decision made on an appeal against (or review of) that decision.

Seized personal property

131A
  • (1) This section applies to moveable property which is held by a person and which—
  • (a) has been seized by an appropriate officer under a relevant seizure power, or
  • (b) has been produced to an appropriate officer in compliance with a production order under section 380.
  • (2) This section applies if the following conditions are satisfied—
  • (a) a confiscation order is made against the person by whom the property is held;
  • (b) an administrator has not been appointed under section 128 in relation to the property;
  • (c) any period allowed under section 116 for payment of the amount ordered to be paid under the confiscation order has ended.
  • (3) In such a case the sheriff may by order authorise an appropriate officer to realise the property.
  • (4) In this section “appropriate officer” and “relevant seizure power” have the same meaning as in section 120A.
131B
  • (1) This section applies if the sheriff makes an order under section 131A.
  • (2) The sheriff may determine an amount which may be recovered by the appropriate officer in respect of reasonable costs incurred in—
  • (a) storing or insuring the property since it was seized or produced as mentioned in subsection (1) of that section;
  • (b) realising the property.
  • (3) If the sheriff makes a determination under this section the appropriate officer is entitled to payment of the amount under section 131(5A).
  • (4) A determination under this section may be made on the same occasion as the section 131A order or on any later occasion; and more than one determination may be made in relation to any case.
  • (5) In this section “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 120A.
131C
  • (1) If a sheriff decides not to make an order under section 131A 131A(3), an appropriate officer may appeal to the Court of Session.
  • (1A) If a sheriff decides not to make an order under section 131ZB(3) or 131AA(2), the prosecutor may appeal to the Court of Session.
  • (2) If a sheriff makes an order under section 131A 131ZB(3), 131A(3) or 131AA(2), a person affected by the order may appeal to the Court of Session.
  • (3) But the person mentioned in section 131A(2)(a) 131ZB(2)(a), 131A(2)(a) or 131AA(2)(a) (as applicable) may not appeal.
  • (4) An appropriate officer may appeal to the Court of Session against—
  • (a) a determination made by a sheriff under section 131B;
  • (b) a decision by a sheriff not to make a determination under that section.
  • (5) An appeal under this section must be made before the end of the period of 21 days starting with the day on which the decision or (as the case may be) the order was made.
  • (6) On an appeal under this section the Court of Session may—
  • (a) confirm, quash or vary the decision or (as the case may be) the order, or
  • (b) make such order as Court of Session believes is appropriate.
  • (7) In this section “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 120A.
131D
  • (1) This section applies to sums which—
  • (a) are in the hands of an appropriate officer, and
  • (b) are the proceeds of the realisation of property under section 131ZB or 131A.
  • (2) The sums must be applied as follows—
  • (a) first, they must be applied in payment of such expenses incurred by a person acting as an insolvency practitioner as are payable under this subsection by virtue of section 432;
  • (b) second, they must be applied in making any payments directed by the sheriff;
  • (c) third, they must be paid to the appropriate clerk of court on account of the amount payable under the confiscation order.
  • (3) If the amount payable under the confiscation order has been fully paid and any sums remain in the appropriate officer's hands, the appropriate officer must distribute them—
  • (a) among such persons who held (or hold) interests in the property represented by the proceeds as the sheriff directs, and
  • (b) in such proportions as the sheriff directs.
  • (4) Before making a direction under subsection (3) the sheriff must give persons who held (or hold) interests in the property a reasonable opportunity to make representations to the sheriff.
  • (5) In this section—
  • (a) “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 120A;
  • (b) “appropriate clerk of court” means the sheriff clerk of the sheriff court responsible for enforcing the confiscation order under section 211 of the Procedure Act as applied by section 118(1).
153A
  • (1) The following rule applies for the purposes of construing any provision of this Part which refers to there being no further possibility of—
  • (a) an appeal against (or review of) a decision of a court, or
  • (b) an appeal on which an order of a court could be varied or quashed.
  • (2) Any power—
  • (a) to allow an appeal (or review) out of time, or
  • (b) to extend the time for applying for leave to appeal,

must be ignored.

160A
  • (1) Where it appears to a court making a confiscation order that—
  • (a) there is property held by the defendant that is likely to be realised or otherwise used to satisfy the order, and
  • (b) a person other than the defendant holds, or may hold, an interest in the property,

the court may, if it thinks it appropriate to do so, determine the extent (at the time the confiscation order is made) of the defendant's interest in the property.

  • (2) The court must not exercise the power conferred by subsection (1) unless it gives to anyone who the court thinks is or may be a person holding an interest in the property a reasonable opportunity to make representations to it.
  • (3) A determination under this section is conclusive in relation to any question as to the extent of the defendant's interest in the property that arises in connection with—
  • (a) the realisation or destruction of the property, or the transfer of an interest in the property, with a view to satisfying the confiscation order, or
  • (b) any action or proceedings taken for the purposes of any such realisation or transfer.
  • (4) Subsection (3)—
  • (a) is subject to section 199(8B), and
  • (b) does not apply in relation to a question that arises in proceedings before the Court of Appeal or the Supreme Court.
  • (5) In this Part, the “extent” of the defendant's interest in property means the proportion that the value of the defendant's interest in it bears to the value of the property itself.
163A
  • (1) This section applies where the court makes a confiscation order.
  • (2) The court may make such order as it believes is appropriate for the purpose of ensuring that the confiscation order is effective (a “compliance order”).
  • (3) The court must consider whether to make a compliance order—
  • (a) on the making of the confiscation order, and
  • (b) if it does not make a compliance order then, at any later time (while the confiscation order is still in effect) on the application of the prosecutor.
  • (4) In considering whether to make a compliance order, the court must, in particular, consider whether any restriction or prohibition on the defendant's travel outside the United Kingdom ought to be imposed for the purpose mentioned in subsection (2).
  • (5) The court may discharge or vary a compliance order on an application made by—
  • (a) the prosecutor;
  • (b) any person affected by the order.
163B
  • (1) If on an application under section 163A(3)(b) the Crown Court decides not to make a compliance order, the prosecutor may appeal to the Court of Appeal against the decision.
  • (2) The following persons may appeal to the Court of Appeal in respect of the Crown Court's decision to make, discharge or vary a compliance order—
  • (a) the prosecutor;
  • (b) any person affected by the order.
  • (3) On an appeal under subsection (1) or (2) the Court of Appeal may—
  • (a) confirm the decision, or
  • (b) make such order as it believes is appropriate.
  • (4) An appeal lies to the Supreme Court against a decision of the Court of Appeal under subsection (3).
  • (5) An appeal under subsection (4) lies at the instance of any person who was a party to the proceedings before the Court of Appeal.
  • (6) On an appeal under subsection (4) the Supreme Court may—
  • (a) confirm the decision of the Court of Appeal, or
  • (b) make such order as it believes is appropriate.
  • (7) In this section “compliance order” means an order made under section 163A.
168A
  • (1) This section applies if the court—
  • (a) is considering whether to make a determination under section 160A of the extent of the defendant's interest in any property, or
  • (b) is deciding what determination to make (if the court has decided to make a determination under that section).

In this section “interested person” means a person (other than the defendant) who the court thinks is or may be a person holding an interest in the property.

  • (2) For the purpose of obtaining information to help it in carrying out its functions under section 160A the court may at any time order an interested person to give it information specified in the order.
  • (3) An order under this section may require all or a specified part of the information to be given in a specified manner and before a specified date.
  • (4) If an interested person fails without reasonable excuse to comply with an order under this section the court may draw such inference as it believes is appropriate.
  • (5) Subsection (4) does not affect any power of the court to deal with the person in respect of a failure to comply with an order under this section.
  • (6) If the prosecutor accepts to any extent an allegation made by an interested person—
  • (a) in giving information required by an order under this section, or
  • (b) in any other statement given to the court in relation to any matter relevant to a determination under section 160A,

the court may treat the acceptance as conclusive of the matters to which it relates.

  • (7) For the purposes of this section an allegation may be accepted in a manner ordered by the court.
  • (8) If the court makes an order under this section it may at any time vary it by making another one.
  • (9) No information given by a person under this section is admissible in evidence in proceedings against that person for an offence.
175A
  • (1) This section applies if—
  • (a) a court has made a confiscation order,
  • (b) the defendant dies while the order is not satisfied, and
  • (c) the prosecutor applies to the Crown Court for the discharge of the order.
  • (2) The court may discharge the order if it appears to the court that—
  • (a) it is not possible to recover anything from the estate of the deceased for the purpose of satisfying the order to any extent, or
  • (b) it would not be reasonable to make any attempt, or further attempt, to recover anything from the estate of the deceased for that purpose.
235A
  • (1) The following rule applies for the purposes of construing any provision of this Part which refers to there being no further possibility of—
  • (a) an appeal against a decision of a court, or
  • (b) an appeal on which an order of a court could be varied or quashed.
  • (2) Any power to extend the time for giving notice of application for leave to appeal, or for applying for leave to appeal, must be ignored.
341A

Where an application under this Part for an order or warrant specifies property that is subject to a civil recovery investigation, references in this Part to the investigation for the purposes of which the order or warrant is sought include investigation into—

  • (a) whether a person who appears to hold or to have held the specified property holds or has held other property,
  • (b) whether the other property is or has been recoverable property or associated property, and
  • (c) the nature, extent or whereabouts of the other property.

“I, A.B., do solemnly declare that I will not disclose any information received by me in carrying out the functions under Part 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 which I may from time to time be assigned by the National Crime Agency to carry out except for the purposes of those functions, or to to that Agency or in accordance with that Agency's instructions, or for the purposes of any prosecution for an offence relating to inland revenue, or in such other cases as may be required or permitted by law.”

3A

An offence under section 1 of the Modern Slavery Act 2015 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour).

“I, A.B., do solemnly declare that I will not disclose any information received by me in carrying out the functions under Part 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 which I may from time to time be assigned by the National Crime Agency to carry out except for the purposes of those functions, or to to that Agency or in accordance with that Agency's instructions, or for the purposes of any prosecution for an offence relating to inland revenue, or in such other cases as may be required or permitted by law.”

97B
  • (1) This section applies where the court makes a confiscation order.
  • (2) The court may make such order in relation to the accused as it believes is appropriate for the purpose of ensuring that the confiscation order is effective (a “compliance order”).
  • (3) The court must consider whether to make a compliance order—
  • (a) on the making of the confiscation order, and
  • (b) if it does not make a compliance order then, at any later time (while the confiscation order is still in effect) on the application of the prosecutor.
  • (4) In considering whether to make a compliance order, the court must, in particular, consider whether any restriction or prohibition on the accused's travel outside the United Kingdom ought to be imposed for the purpose mentioned in subsection (2).
  • (5) The court may discharge or vary a compliance order on an application made by—
  • (a) the prosecutor;
  • (b) the accused.
  • (6) For the purposes of any appeal or review, a compliance order is a sentence.
97C
  • (1) This section applies where—
  • (a) a compliance order has been made in relation to an accused, and
  • (b) it appears to the court that the accused has failed to comply with the compliance order.
  • (2) The court may—
  • (a) issue a warrant for the accused's arrest, or
  • (b) issue a citation to the accused requiring the accused to appear before the court.
  • (3) If the accused fails to appear as required by a citation issued under subsection (2)(b), the court may issue a warrant for the arrest of the accused.
  • (4) The unified citation provisions (as defined in section 307(1) of the Procedure Act) apply in relation to a citation under subsection (2)(b).
  • (5) The court must, before considering the alleged failure—
  • (a) provide the accused with written details of the alleged failure,
  • (b) inform the accused that the accused is entitled to be legally represented, and
  • (c) inform the accused that no answer need be given to the allegation before the accused—
  • (i) has been given an opportunity to take legal advice, or
  • (ii) has indicated that the accused does not wish to take legal advice.
  • (6) If the court is satisfied that the accused has failed without reasonable excuse to comply with the compliance order, the court may—
  • (a) impose on the accused a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale,
  • (b) revoke the compliance order and impose on the accused a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months,
  • (c) vary the compliance order, or
  • (d) both impose a fine under paragraph (a) and vary the order under paragraph (c).
  • (7) The court may vary the compliance order if the court is satisfied—
  • (a) that the accused has failed to comply with the order,
  • (b) that the accused had a reasonable excuse for the failure, and
  • (c) that, having regard to the circumstances which have arisen since the order was imposed, it is in the interests of justice to vary the order.
  • (8) Evidence of one witness is sufficient for the purpose of establishing that an accused has failed without reasonable excuse to comply with a compliance order.
97D

The prosecutor or the accused may appeal against a decision of the court under section 97B(5)—

  • (a) to vary or refuse to vary a compliance order, or
  • (b) to discharge or refuse to discharge a compliance order.
190A
  • (1) A restraint order may include provision authorising the detention of any property to which it applies if the property—
  • (a) is seized by an appropriate officer under a relevant seizure power, or
  • (b) is produced to an appropriate officer in compliance with a production order under section 345.
  • (2) Provision under subsection (1) may, in particular—
  • (a) relate to specified property, to property of a specified description or to all property to which the restraint order applies;
  • (b) relate to property that has already been seized or produced or to property that may be seized or produced in future.
  • (3) “Appropriate officer” means—
  • (a) an accredited financial investigator;
  • (b) a constable;
  • (c) an officer of Revenue and Customs;
  • (ca) an immigration officer;
  • (d) a National Crime Agency officer;
  • (e) a member of staff of the relevant director (within the meaning of section 352(5A)).
  • (4) “Relevant seizure power” means a power to seize property conferred by or by virtue of—
  • (a) section 195C,
  • (b) section 352, or
  • (c) Part 3 or 4 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (including as applied by order under Article 85(1) of that Order).
  • (5) The Secretary of State may by order amend the definition of “relevant seizure power”.
193A
  • (1) This section applies where—
  • (a) a restraint order includes provision under section 190A authorising the detention of property, and
  • (b) the restraint order is discharged under section 191(5) or 192(3)(b).
  • (2) This section also applies where—
  • (a) a restraint order includes provision under section 190A authorising the detention of property, and
  • (b) the restraint order is varied under section 191(5) or 192(3)(b) so as to omit any such provision.
  • (3) The property may be detained until there is no further possibility of an appeal against—
  • (a) the decision to discharge or vary the restraint order, or
  • (b) any decision made on an appeal against that decision.
215A
  • (1) This section applies to personal property which is held by a person and which—
  • (a) has been seized by an appropriate officer under a relevant seizure power, or
  • (b) has been produced to an appropriate officer in compliance with a production order under section 345.
  • (2) This section applies if the following conditions are satisfied—
  • (a) a confiscation order is made against the person by whom the property is held;
  • (b) a receiver has not been appointed under section 198 in relation to the property;
  • (c) any period allowed under section 161 for payment of the amount ordered to be paid under the confiscation order has ended.
  • (3) In such a case a magistrates' court may by order authorise an appropriate officer to realise the property.
  • (4) In this section “appropriate officer” and “relevant seizure power” have the same meaning as in section 190A.
215B
  • (1) This section applies if a magistrates' court makes an order under section 215A.
  • (2) The court may determine an amount which may be recovered by the appropriate officer in respect of reasonable costs incurred in—
  • (a) storing or insuring the property since it was seized or produced as mentioned in subsection (1) of that section;
  • (b) realising the property.
  • (3) If the court makes a determination under this section the appropriate officer is entitled to payment of the amount under section 203(4).
  • (4) A determination under this section may be made on the same occasion as the section 215A order or on any later occasion; and more than one determination may be made in relation to any case.
  • (5) In this section “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 190A.
215C
  • (1) If a magistrates' court decides not to make an order under section 215ZA(3), 215A(3) or 215AA(2), an appropriate officer may appeal to a county court.
  • (2) If a magistrates' court makes an order under section 215ZA(3), 215A(3) or 215AA(2), a person affected by the order may appeal to a county court.
  • (3) But the person mentioned in section 215ZA(2)(a), 215A(2)(a) or 215AA(2)(a) (as applicable) may not appeal.
  • (4) An appropriate officer may appeal to a county court against—
  • (a) a determination made by a magistrates' court under section 215B;
  • (b) a decision by a magistrates' court not to make a determination under that section.
  • (5) In this section “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 190A.
215D
  • (1) This section applies to sums which—
  • (a) are in the hands of an appropriate officer, and
  • (b) are the proceeds of the realisation of property under section 215ZA or 215A.
  • (2) The sums must be applied as follows—
  • (a) first, they must be applied in payment of such expenses incurred by a person acting as an insolvency practitioner as are payable under this subsection by virtue of section 432;
  • (b) second, they must be applied in making any payments directed by the magistrates' court or Crown Court;
  • (c) third, they must be paid to the appropriate chief clerk on account of the amount payable under the confiscation order.
  • (3) If the amount payable under the confiscation order has been fully paid and any sums remain in the appropriate officer's hands, the appropriate officer must distribute them—
  • (a) among such persons who held (or hold) interests in the property represented by the proceeds as the magistrates' court or Crown Court directs, and
  • (b) in such proportions as it directs.
  • (4) Before making a direction under subsection (3) the court must give persons who held (or hold) interests in the property a reasonable opportunity to make representations to it.
  • (5) If the magistrates' court has made a direction under subsection (2)(b) or (3) in respect of the proceeds of realisation of any property, the Crown Court may not make a direction under either of those provisions in respect of the proceeds of realisation of that property; and vice versa.
  • (6) In this section—
  • “appropriate officer” has the same meaning as in section 190A, and
  • “appropriate chief clerk” has the same meaning as in section 202(7).
255G
  • (1) Subsection (2) applies if—
  • (a) the Court of Session makes a prohibitory property order on an application by an enforcement authority, and
  • (b) the authority applies to the court to proceed under subsection (2) (whether as part of the application for the prohibitory property order or at any time afterwards).
  • (2) The Court of Session may by order appoint a person (a “PPO receiver”) in respect of any property to which the prohibitory property order applies.
  • (3) An application for an order under this section may be made without notice if the circumstances are such that notice of the application would prejudice any right of the enforcement authority to obtain a recovery order in respect of any property.
  • (4) In its application for an order under this section, the enforcement authority must nominate a suitably qualified person for appointment as a PPO receiver.
  • (5) Such a person may be a member of staff of the enforcement authority.
  • (6) The enforcement authority may apply a sum received by it under section 280(2) in making payment of the remuneration and expenses of a PPO receiver appointed under this section.
  • (7) Subsection (6) does not apply in relation to the remuneration of the PPO receiver if he is a member of the staff of the enforcement authority (but it does apply in relation to such remuneration if the PPO receiver is a person providing services under arrangements made by the enforcement authority).
255H
  • (1) If the Court of Session appoints a PPO receiver under section 255G on an application by an enforcement authority, the court may act under this section on the application of the authority.
  • (2) The court may by order authorise or require the PPO receiver—
  • (a) to exercise any of the powers mentioned in paragraph 5 of Schedule 6 (management powers) in relation to any property in respect of which the PPO receiver is appointed,
  • (b) to take any other steps the court thinks appropriate in connection with the management of any such property (including securing the detention, custody or preservation of the property in order to manage it).
  • (3) The court may by order require any person in respect of whose property the PPO receiver is appointed—
  • (a) to bring the property to a place in Scotland specified by the PPO receiver or to place it in the custody of the PPO receiver (if, in either case, he is able to do so),
  • (b) to do anything he is reasonably required to do by the PPO receiver for the preservation of the property.
  • (4) The court may by order require any person in respect of whose property the PPO receiver is appointed to bring any documents relating to the property which are in his possession or control to a place in Scotland specified by the PPO receiver or to place them in the custody of the PPO receiver.
  • (5) In subsection (4) “document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded.
  • (6) Any prohibition on dealing with property imposed by a prohibitory property order does not prevent a person from complying with any requirements imposed by virtue of this section.
  • (7) If—
  • (a) the PPO receiver deals with any property which is not property in respect of which he is appointed under section 255G, and
  • (b) at the time he deals with the property the PPO receiver believes on reasonable grounds that he is entitled to do so by virtue of his appointment,

the PPO receiver is not liable to any person in respect of any loss or damage resulting from his dealing with the property except so far as the loss or damage is caused by his negligence.

255I
  • (1) Any of the following persons may at any time apply to the Court of Session for directions as to the exercise of the functions of a PPO receiver—
  • (a) the PPO receiver,
  • (b) any party to the proceedings for the appointment of the PPO receiver or the prohibitory property order concerned,
  • (c) any person affected by any action taken by the PPO receiver,
  • (d) any person who may be affected by any action proposed to be taken by the PPO receiver.
  • (2) Before giving any directions under subsection (1), the court must give an opportunity to be heard to—
  • (a) the PPO receiver,
  • (b) the parties to the proceedings for the appointment of the PPO receiver and for the prohibitory property order concerned,
  • (c) any person who may be interested in the application under subsection (1).
  • (3) The court may at any time vary or recall—
  • (a) an order appointing a PPO receiver,
  • (b) any order under section 255H, or
  • (c) any directions under this section.
  • (4) Before exercising any power under subsection (3), the court must give an opportunity to be heard to—
  • (a) the PPO receiver,
  • (b) the parties to the proceedings for—
  • (i) the appointment of the PPO receiver,
  • (ii) the order under section 255H, or
  • (iii) (as the case may be) the directions under this section,
  • (c) the parties to the proceedings for the prohibitory property order concerned,
  • (d) any person who may be affected by the court's decision.
282CA
  • (1) This section applies if—
  • (a) a prohibitory property order made by the Court of Session has effect in relation to property, and
  • (b) the PPO receiver appointed under section 255G in respect of the property believes that it is in a country outside the United Kingdom (the “receiving country”).
  • (2) The PPO receiver may send a request for assistance in relation to the property to the Secretary of State with a view to it being forwarded under this section.
  • (3) The Secretary of State must forward the request for assistance to the government of the receiving country.
  • (4) A request for assistance under this section is a request to the government of the receiving country—
  • (a) to secure that any person is prohibited from dealing with the property,
  • (b) for assistance in connection with the management of the property, including with securing its detention, custody or preservation.

“I, A.B., do solemnly declare that I will not disclose any information received by me in carrying out the functions under Part 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 which I may from time to time be assigned by the National Crime Agency to carry out except for the purposes of those functions, or to to that Agency or in accordance with that Agency's instructions, or for the purposes of any prosecution for an offence relating to inland revenue, or in such other cases as may be required or permitted by law.”

1A

An offence under any of the following provisions of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016—

  • (a) section 4 (producing a psychoactive substance);
  • (b) section 5 (supplying, or offering to supply, a psychoactive substance);
  • (c) section 7 (possession of psychoactive substance with intent to supply);
  • (d) section 8 (importing or exporting a psychoactive substance).
2A

An offence under any of the following provisions of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016—

  • (a) section 4 (producing a psychoactive substance);
  • (b) section 5 (supplying, or offering to supply, a psychoactive substance);
  • (c) section 7 (possession of psychoactive substance with intent to supply);
  • (d) section 8 (importing or exporting a psychoactive substance).
4A

An offence under section 4 of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Scotland) Act 2015 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour).

1A

An offence under any of the following provisions of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016—

  • (a) section 4 (producing a psychoactive substance);
  • (b) section 5 (supplying, or offering to supply, a psychoactive substance);
  • (c) section 7 (possession of psychoactive substance with intent to supply);
  • (d) section 8 (importing or exporting a psychoactive substance).

“I, A.B., do solemnly declare that I will not disclose any information received by me in carrying out the functions under Part 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 which I may from time to time be assigned by the National Crime Agency to carry out except for the purposes of those functions, or to to that Agency or in accordance with that Agency's instructions, or for the purposes of any prosecution for an offence relating to inland revenue, or in such other cases as may be required or permitted by law.”

Seized moneyEnforcement: money, cryptoassets and personal property

131ZA
  • (1) This section applies to money which—
  • (a) is held by a person, and
  • (b) is held in an account maintained by the person with a bank or building society relevant financial institution.
  • (2) This section also applies to money which is held by a person and which—
  • (a) has been seized under a relevant seizure power by a constable or another person lawfully exercising the power, and
  • (b) is being detained in connection with a criminal investigation or prosecution or with an investigation of a kind mentioned in section 341.
  • (3) But this section applies to money only so far as the money is free property.
  • (4) Subsection (5) applies if—
  • (a) a confiscation order is made against a person holding money to which this section applies, and
  • (b) an administrator has not been appointed under section 128 in relation to the money.
  • (5) The relevant court may order the appropriate person to pay, within such period as the court may specify, the money or a portion of it specified by the court to the appropriate clerk of court on account of the amount payable under the confiscation order.
  • (6) An order under subsection (5) may be made—
  • (a) on the application of the prosecutor, or
  • (b) by the relevant court of its own accord.
  • (7) The Scottish Ministers may by regulations amend this section so that it applies by virtue of subsection (1) not only to money held in an account maintained with a bank or building society relevant financial institution but also to—
  • (a) money held in an account maintained with a financial institution of a specified kind, or
  • (b) money that is represented by, or may be obtained from, a financial instrument or product of a specified kind.
  • (8) Regulations under subsection (7) may amend this section so that it makes provision about realising an instrument or product within subsection (7)(b) or otherwise obtaining money from it.
  • (9) In this section—
  • “appropriate clerk of court”, in relation to a confiscation order, means the sheriff clerk of the sheriff court responsible for enforcing the confiscation order under section 211 of the Procedure Act as applied by section 118(1);
  • “appropriate person” means—in a case where the money is held in an account maintained with a bank or building society, the bank or building society a relevant financial institution, the relevant financial institution ;in any other case, the person on whose authority the money is detained;
  • “bank” means an authorised deposit-taker, other than a building society, that has its head office or a branch in the United Kingdom;
  • “building society” has the same meaning as in the Building Societies Act 1986;
  • “electronic money institution” has the same meaning as in the Electronic Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99) (see regulation 2 of those Regulations);
  • “payment institution” means an authorised payment institution or a small payment institution (each as defined in regulation 2 of the Payment Services Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/752));
  • “relevant court”, in relation to a confiscation order, means—the court which makes the confiscation order, orthe sheriff court responsible for enforcing the confiscation order under section 211 of the Procedure Act as applied by section 118(1);
  • “relevant financial institution” means a bank, a building society, an electronic money institution or a payment institution;
  • “relevant seizure power” means a power to seize money conferred by or by virtue of—a warrant granted under any enactment or rule of law, orany enactment, or rule of law, under which the authority of a warrant is not required.
  • (10) In the definition of “bank” in subsection (9), “authorised deposit-taker” means—
  • (a) a person who has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 to accept deposits;
  • (b) a person who—
  • (i) is specified, or is within a class of persons specified, by an order under section 38 of that Act (exemption orders), and
  • (ii) accepts deposits;
  • (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (11) A reference in subsection (10) to a person ... with permission to accept deposits does not include a person ... with permission to do so only for the purposes of, or in the course of, an activity other than accepting deposits.
241A
  • (1) Conduct constitutes the commission of a gross human rights abuse or violation if each of the following three conditions is met.
  • (2) The first condition is that—
  • (a) the conduct constitutes the torture of a person who has sought—
  • (i) to expose illegal activity carried out by a public official or a person acting in an official capacity, or
  • (ii) to obtain, exercise, defend or promote human rights and fundamental freedoms, or
  • (b) the conduct otherwise involves the cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment of such a person.
  • (3) The second condition is that the conduct is carried out in consequence of that person having sought to do anything falling within subsection (2)(a)(i) or (ii).
  • (4) The third condition is that the conduct is carried out—
  • (a) by a public official, or a person acting in an official capacity, in the performance or purported performance of his or her official duties, or
  • (b) by a person not falling within paragraph (a) at the instigation or with the consent or acquiescence—
  • (i) of a public official, or
  • (ii) of a person acting in an official capacity,

who in instigating the conduct, or in consenting to or acquiescing in it, is acting in the performance or purported performance of his or her official duties.

  • (5) Conduct is connected with the commission of a gross human rights abuse or violation if it is conduct by a person that involves—
  • (a) acting as an agent for another in connection with activities relating to conduct constituting the commission of a gross human rights abuse or violation,
  • (b) directing, or sponsoring, such activities,
  • (c) profiting from such activities, or
  • (d) materially assisting such activities.
  • (6) Conduct that involves the intentional infliction of severe pain or suffering on another person is conduct that constitutes torture for the purposes of subsection (2)(a).
  • (7) It is immaterial whether the pain or suffering is physical or mental and whether it is caused by an act or omission.
  • (8) The cases in which a person materially assists activities for the purposes of subsection (5)(d) include those where the person—
  • (a) provides goods or services in support of the carrying out of the activities, or
  • (b) otherwise provides any financial or technological support in connection with their carrying out.
245ZA
  • (1) This section applies if, in proceedings under this Chapter for a recovery order, the enforcement authority applies under section 266(8ZA) for decree of removing and warrant for ejection in relation to heritable property which consists of or includes a dwellinghouse.
  • (2) The enforcement authority must give notice of the application to the local authority in whose area the dwellinghouse is situated.
  • (3) Notice under subsection (2) must be given in the form and manner prescribed under section 11(3) of the Homelessness etc. (Scotland) Act 2003.
  • (4) In this section—
  • “dwellinghouse” has the meaning given by section 11(8) of the Homelessness etc. (Scotland) Act 2003;
  • “local authority” means a council constituted under section 2 of the Local Government etc. (Scotland) Act 1994; and “area”, in relation to a local authority, means the local government area for which the authority is constituted.
269A
  • (1) This section applies where, in making a recovery order, the Court of Session also grants decree of removing and warrant for ejection under section 266(8ZA) in relation to any persons occupying the heritable property.
  • (2) Any lease under which a person has the right to occupy the heritable property (or part of it) for residential or commercial purposes is terminated on the granting of decree of removing and warrant for ejection.
  • (3) Any other right to occupy the heritable property (or part of it) which subsists immediately before the granting of decree of removing and warrant for ejection is extinguished on the granting of the decree and warrant.
  • (4) Subsection (3) does not apply in relation to a right under a lease to occupy or use the property other than those mentioned in subsection (2).
  • (5) Where the heritable property is vested in the trustee for civil recovery under the recovery order, the following enactments do not apply in relation to the heritable property—
  • (a) sections 34 to 38A of the Sheriff Courts (Scotland) Act 1907 (removings, notice of termination of tenancy and notice of removal);
  • (b) the Tenancy of Shops (Scotland) Act 1949;
  • (c) the Matrimonial Homes (Family Protection) (Scotland) Act 1981;
  • (d) Parts 2 and 3 of the Rent (Scotland) Act 1984 (security of tenure and protection against harassment and unlawful eviction);
  • (e) sections 4 to 7 of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1985 (termination of certain leases);
  • (f) Part 2 of the Housing (Scotland) Act 1988 (rented accommodation: security of tenure etc.);
  • (g) Chapter 3 of Part 3 of the Civil Partnership Act 2004 (occupancy rights and tenancies);
  • (h) Part 5 of the Private Housing (Tenancies) (Scotland) Act 2016 (security of tenure, termination of tenancy and eviction).

CHAPTER 3A — Recovery of listed assets in summary proceedings

Definition of listed asset

303B
  • (1) In this Chapter, a “listed asset” means an item of property that falls within one of the following descriptions of property—
  • (a) precious metals;
  • (b) precious stones;
  • (c) watches;
  • (d) artistic works;
  • (e) face-value vouchers;
  • (f) postage stamps.
  • (2) The Secretary of State may by regulations amend subsection (1)—
  • (a) by removing a description of property;
  • (b) by adding a description of tangible personal (or corporeal moveable) property.
  • (3) The Secretary of State must consult the Scottish Ministers and the Department of Justice before making regulations under subsection (2).
  • (4) In this section—
  • (a) “precious metal” means gold, silver or platinum (whether in an unmanufactured or a manufactured state);
  • (b) “artistic work” means a piece of work falling within section 4(1)(a) of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988;
  • (c) “face-value voucher” means a voucher in physical form that represents a right to receive goods or services to the value of an amount stated on it.

Searches

303C
  • (1) If a relevant officer is lawfully on any premises and has reasonable grounds for suspecting that there is on the premises a seizable listed asset, the relevant officer may search for the listed asset there.
  • (2) The powers conferred by subsection (5) are exercisable by a relevant officer if—
  • (a) the relevant officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that there is a seizable listed asset in a vehicle,
  • (b) it appears to the officer that the vehicle is under the control of a person (the suspect) who is in or in the vicinity of the vehicle, and
  • (c) the vehicle is in a place falling within subsection (3).
  • (3) The places referred to in subsection (2)(c) are—
  • (a) a place to which, at the time of the proposed exercise of the powers, the public or any section of the public has access, on payment or otherwise, as of right or by virtue of express or implied permission, and
  • (b) any other place to which at that time people have ready access but which is not a dwelling.
  • (4) But if the vehicle is in a garden or yard or other land occupied with and used for the purposes of a dwelling, the relevant officer may exercise the powers conferred by subsection (5) only if the relevant officer has reasonable grounds for believing—
  • (a) that the suspect does not reside in the dwelling, and
  • (b) that the vehicle is not in the place in question with the express or implied permission of a person who resides in the dwelling.
  • (5) The powers conferred by this subsection are—
  • (a) power to require the suspect to permit entry to the vehicle;
  • (b) power to require the suspect to permit a search of the vehicle.
  • (6) If a relevant officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a person (the suspect) is carrying a seizable listed asset, the relevant officer may require the suspect—
  • (a) to permit a search of any article the suspect has with him or her;
  • (b) to permit a search of the suspect's person.
  • (7) The powers conferred by subsections (5) and (6) are exercisable only so far as the relevant officer thinks it necessary or expedient.
  • (8) A relevant officer may—
  • (a) in exercising powers conferred by subsection (5), detain the vehicle for so long as is necessary for their exercise;
  • (b) in exercising powers conferred by subsection (6)(b), detain the suspect for so long as is necessary for their exercise.
  • (9) In this Chapter, a “relevant officer” means—
  • (a) an officer of Revenue and Customs,
  • (b) a constable,
  • (c) an SFO officer, or
  • (d) an accredited financial investigator who falls within a description specified in an order made for the purposes of this Chapter by the Secretary of State or the Welsh Ministers under section 453.
  • (10) For the purposes of this section a listed asset is a seizable listed asset if—
  • (a) all or part of it is recoverable property or is intended by any person for use in unlawful conduct, and
  • (b) the value of the asset, or the part of it that falls within paragraph (a), is not less than the minimum value.
  • (11) Where a power conferred by this section is being exercised in respect of more than one seizable listed asset, this section is to apply as if the value of each asset or (as the case may be) part of an asset was equal to the aggregate value of all of those assets or parts.
303D
  • (1) The powers conferred by section 303C—
  • (a) are exercisable only so far as reasonably required for the purpose of finding a listed asset;
  • (b) include the power to carry out (or arrange for the carrying out of) tests on anything found during the course of the search for the purpose of establishing whether it is a listed asset;
  • (c) are exercisable by an officer of Revenue and Customs only if the officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the unlawful conduct in question relates to an assigned matter (within the meaning of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979);
  • (d) are exercisable by an SFO officer or an accredited financial investigator only in relation to the following—
  • (i) premises in England, Wales or Northern Ireland (in the case of section 303C(1));
  • (ii) vehicles and suspects in England, Wales or Northern Ireland (in the case of section 303C(5) and (8)(a));
  • (iii) suspects in England, Wales or Northern Ireland (in the case of section 303C(6) and (8)(b)).
  • (2) Section 303C does not require a person to submit to an intimate search or strip search (within the meaning of section 164 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979).
303E
  • (1) The powers conferred by section 303C may be exercised only with the appropriate approval unless, in the circumstances, it is not practicable to obtain that approval before exercising the power.
  • (2) The appropriate approval means the approval of a judicial officer or (if that is not practicable in any case) the approval of a senior officer.
  • (3) A judicial officer means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales and Northern Ireland, a justice of the peace;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, the sheriff.
  • (4) A senior officer means—
  • (a) in relation to the exercise of a power by an officer of Revenue and Customs, such an officer of a rank designated by the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs as equivalent to that of a senior police officer;
  • (b) in relation to the exercise of a power by a constable, a senior police officer;
  • (c) in relation to the exercise of a power by an SFO officer, the Director of the Serious Fraud Office;
  • (d) in relation to the exercise of a power by a National Crime Agency officer, the Director General of the National Crime Agency or any other National Crime Agency officer authorised by the Director General (whether generally or specifically) for this purpose;
  • (e) in relation to the exercise of a power by an accredited financial investigator who is—
  • (i) a member of the civilian staff of a police force in England and Wales (including the metropolitan police force), within the meaning of Part 1 of the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011,
  • (ii) a member of staff of the City of London police force, or
  • (iii) a member of staff of the Police Service of Northern Ireland,

a senior police officer;

  • (f) in relation to the exercise of a power by an accredited financial investigator who does not fall within any of the preceding paragraphs, an accredited financial investigator who falls within a description specified in an order made for this purpose by the Secretary of State or the Welsh Ministers under section 453.
  • (5) A senior police officer means a police officer of at least the rank of inspector.
  • (6) If the powers are exercised without the approval of a judicial officer in a case where—
  • (a) no property is seized by virtue of section 303J, or
  • (b) any property so seized is not detained for more than 48 hours (calculated in accordance with section 303K(5)),

the relevant officer who exercised the power must give a written report to the appointed person.

  • (7) But the duty in subsection (6) does not apply if, during the course of exercising the powers conferred by section 303C, the relevant officer seizes cash by virtue of section 294 or property by virtue of section 303Z26 or 303Z29 and the cash or property so seized is detained for more than 48 hours (calculated in accordance with section 295(1B) , 303Z27(3) or (as the case may be) 303Z31(3)).
  • (8) A report under subsection (6) must give particulars of the circumstances which led the relevant officer to believe that—
  • (a) the powers were exercisable, and
  • (b) it was not practicable to obtain the approval of a judicial officer.
  • (9) In this section and section 303F, the appointed person means—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales, a person appointed by the Secretary of State;
  • (b) in relation to Scotland, a person appointed by the Scottish Ministers;
  • (c) in relation to Northern Ireland, a person appointed by the Department of Justice.
  • (10) The appointed person must not be a person employed under or for the purposes of a government department or of the Scottish Administration; and the terms and conditions of the person's appointment, including any remuneration or expenses to be paid to the person, are to be determined by the person making the appointment.
303F
  • (1) As soon as possible after the end of each financial year, the appointed person must prepare a report for that year.
  • (2) “Financial year” means—
  • (a) the period beginning with the day on which section 15 of the Criminal Finances Act 2017 (which inserted this section) came into force and ending with the next 31 March (which is the first financial year), and
  • (b) each subsequent period of 12 months beginning with 1 April.
  • (3) The report must give the appointed person's opinion as to the circumstances and manner in which the powers conferred by section 303C are being exercised in cases where the relevant officer who exercised them is required to give a report under section 303E(6).
  • (4) In the report, the appointed person may make any recommendations he or she considers appropriate.
  • (5) The appointed person must send a copy of the report to whichever of the Secretary of State, the Scottish Administration or the Department of Justice appointed the person.
  • (6) The Secretary of State must lay a copy of any report the Secretary of State receives under this section before Parliament and arrange for it to be published.
  • (7) The Scottish Ministers must lay a copy of any report they receive under this section before the Scottish Parliament and arrange for it to be published.
  • (8) The Department of Justice must lay a copy of any report it receives under this section before the Northern Ireland Assembly and arrange for it to be published.
  • (9) Section 41(3) of the Interpretation Act (Northern Ireland) 1954 applies for the purposes of subsection (8) in relation to the laying of a copy of a report as it applies in relation to the laying of a statutory document under an enactment.
303G
  • (1) The Secretary of State must make a code of practice in connection with the exercise by officers of Revenue and Customs, SFO officers and (in relation to England and Wales) constables and accredited financial investigators of the powers conferred by section 303C.
  • (2) Where the Secretary of State proposes to issue a code of practice, the Secretary of State must—
  • (a) publish a draft,
  • (b) consider any representations made about the draft by the Scottish Ministers, the Department of Justice or any other person, and
  • (c) if the Secretary of State thinks it appropriate, modify the draft in the light of any such representations.
  • (3) The Secretary of State must also consult the Attorney General about the draft in its application to the exercise of powers by SFO officers and the Director of the Serious Fraud Office.
  • (4) The Secretary of State must lay a draft of the code before Parliament.
  • (5) When the Secretary of State has laid a draft of the code before Parliament, the Secretary of State may bring it into operation by regulations.
  • (6) The Secretary of State may revise the whole or any part of the code and issue the code as revised; and subsections (2) to (5) apply to such a revised code as they apply to the original code.
  • (7) A failure by an officer of Revenue and Customs, an SFO officer, a constable or an accredited financial investigator to comply with a provision of the code does not of itself make him or her liable to criminal or civil proceedings.
  • (8) The code is admissible in evidence in criminal or civil proceedings and is to be taken into account by a court or tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be relevant.
303H
  • (1) The Scottish Ministers must make a code of practice in connection with the exercise by constables in relation to Scotland of the powers conferred by section 303C.
  • (2) Where the Scottish Ministers propose to issue a code of practice, they must—
  • (a) publish a draft,
  • (b) consider any representations made about the draft, and
  • (c) if they think it appropriate, modify the draft in the light of any such representations.
  • (3) The Scottish Ministers must lay a draft of the code before the Scottish Parliament.
  • (4) When the Scottish Ministers have laid a draft of the code before the Scottish Parliament, they may bring it into operation by order.
  • (5) The Scottish Ministers may revise the whole or any part of the code and issue the code as revised; and subsections (2) to (4) apply to such a revised code as they apply to the original code.
  • (6) A failure by a constable to comply with a provision of the code does not of itself make the constable liable to criminal or civil proceedings.
  • (7) The code is admissible in evidence in criminal or civil proceedings and is to be taken into account by a court or tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be relevant.
303I
  • (1) The Department of Justice must make a code of practice in connection with the exercise by constables and accredited financial investigators, in relation to Northern Ireland, of the powers conferred by section 303C.
  • (2) Where the Department of Justice proposes to issue a code of practice, it must—
  • (a) publish a draft,
  • (b) consider any representations made about the draft, and
  • (c) if the Department of Justice thinks it appropriate, modify the draft in the light of any such representations.
  • (3) The Department of Justice must lay a draft of the code before the Northern Ireland Assembly.
  • (4) When the Department of Justice has laid a draft of the code before the Northern Ireland Assembly, the Department of Justice may bring it into operation by order.
  • (5) Section 41(3) of the Interpretation Act (Northern Ireland) 1954 applies for the purposes of subsections (3) and (4) in relation to the laying of a draft as it applies in relation to the laying of a statutory document under an enactment.
  • (6) The Department of Justice may revise the whole or any part of the code and issue the code as revised; and subsections (2) to (5) apply to such a revised code as they apply to the original code.
  • (7) A failure by a constable or accredited financial investigator to comply with a provision of the code does not of itself make him or her liable to criminal or civil proceedings.
  • (8) The code is admissible in evidence in criminal or civil proceedings and is to be taken into account by a court or tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be relevant.

Seizure and detention

303J
  • (1) A relevant officer may seize any item of property if the relevant officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that—
  • (a) it is a listed asset,
  • (b) it is recoverable property or intended by any person for use in unlawful conduct, and
  • (c) the value of it is not less than the minimum value.
  • (2) A relevant officer may also seize any item of property if—
  • (a) the relevant officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting the item to be a listed asset,
  • (b) the relevant officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that part of the item is recoverable property or intended by any person for use in unlawful conduct,
  • (c) the relevant officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the value of the part to which the suspicion relates is not less than the minimum value, and
  • (d) it is not reasonably practicable to seize only that part.
  • (3) Where the powers conferred by this section are being exercised by a relevant officer in respect of more than one item of property, this section is to apply as if the value of each item was equal to the aggregate value of all of those items.
  • (4) The references in subsection (3) to the value of an item are to be read as including references to the value of part of an item where the power conferred by subsection (2) is being exercised (whether alone or in conjunction with the power conferred by subsection (1)).
  • (5) This section does not authorise the seizure by an SFO officer or an accredited financial investigator of an item of property found in Scotland.
303K
  • (1) Property seized under section 303J may be detained for an initial period of 6 hours.
  • (2) Property seized under section 303J may be detained beyond the initial period of 6 hours only if its continued detention is authorised by a senior officer.
  • (3) If the continued detention of property seized under section 303J is authorised under subsection (2), the property may be detained for a further period of 42 hours.
  • (4) Subsections (1) to (3) authorise the detention of property only for so long as a relevant officer continues to have reasonable grounds for suspicion in relation to that property as described in section 303J(1) or (2) (as the case may be).
  • (5) In calculating a period of hours for the purposes of this section, no account shall be taken of—
  • (a) any Saturday or Sunday,
  • (b) Christmas Day,
  • (c) Good Friday,
  • (d) any day that is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in the part of the United Kingdom within which the property is seized, or
  • (e) any day prescribed under section 8(2) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 as a court holiday in a sheriff court in the sheriff court district within which the property is seized.
  • (6) “Senior officer” has the same meaning in this section as it has in section 303E.
303L
  • (1) The period for which property seized under section 303J, or any part of that property, may be detained may be extended by an order made—
  • (a) in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, by a magistrates' court;
  • (b) in Scotland, by the sheriff.
  • (2) An order under subsection (1) may not authorise the detention of any property—
  • (a) beyond the end of the period of 6 months beginning with the date of the order, and
  • (b) in the case of any further order under this section, beyond the end of the period of 2 years beginning with the date of the first order.
  • (3) A justice of the peace may also exercise the power of a magistrates' court to make the first order under subsection (1) extending a particular period of detention.
  • (4) An application for an order under subsection (1) may be made—
  • (a) in relation to England and Wales and Northern Ireland, by a person specified in subsection (5);

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