Legalize / United Kingdom / Public General Act

Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

Type Public General Act

Publication 2002-07-24

Last updated 2026-03-22

State In force

Department Statute Law Database

Source legislation.gov.uk

articles Not indexed

Reform history JSON API

(a) he is employed by, or is in partnership with, a professional legal adviser or a relevant professional adviser to provide the adviser with assistance or support,

(b) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) comes to the person in connection with the provision of such assistance or support, and

(7C) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) he knows, or believes on reasonable grounds, that the money laundering is occurring in a particular country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and

(b) the money laundering—

(i) is not unlawful under the criminal law applying in that country or territory, and

(ii) is not of a description prescribed in an order made by the Secretary of State.

(7D) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) consists of or includes information that was obtained only in consequence of the carrying out of a status check under section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 or an immigration check under section 40A of that Act or both, and

(b) but for the information so obtained the person would not have reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(7E) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) consists of or includes information that was obtained only in consequence of complying with an eligibility verification notice given to the person under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 3B to the Social Security Administration Act 1992, and

(b) but for the information so obtained the person would not know or suspect, or have reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting, that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(8) In deciding whether a person committed an offence under this section the court must consider whether he followed any relevant guidance which was at the time concerned—

(a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other appropriate body,

(b) approved by the Treasury, and

(c) published in a manner it approved as appropriate in its opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons likely to be affected by it.

(9) A disclosure to a nominated officer is a disclosure which—

(a) is made to a person nominated by the alleged offender’s employer to receive disclosures under this section, and

(b) is made in the course of the alleged offender’s employment ....

(9A) But a disclosure which satisfies paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (9) is not to be taken as a disclosure to a nominated officer if the person making the disclosure—

(a) is a professional legal adviseror ... relevant professional adviser,

(b) makes it for the purpose of obtaining advice about making a disclosure under this section, and

(10) Information or other matter comes to a professional legal adviser or ... relevant professional adviser in privileged circumstances if it is communicated or given to him—

(a) by (or by a representative of) a client of his in connection with the giving by the adviser of legal advice to the client,

(b) by (or by a representative of) a person seeking legal advice from the adviser, or

(11) But subsection (10) does not apply to information or other matter which is communicated or given with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose.

(12) Schedule 9 has effect for the purpose of determining what is—

(a) a business in the regulated sector;

(b) a supervisory authority.

(13) An appropriate body is any body which regulates or is representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by the alleged offender.

(14) A relevant professional adviser is an accountant, auditor or tax adviser who is a member of a professional body which is established for accountants, auditors or tax advisers (as the case may be) and which makes provision for—

(a) testing the competence of those seeking admission to membership of such a body as a condition for such admission; and

(b) imposing and maintaining professional and ethical standards for its members, as well as imposing sanctions for non-compliance with those standards.

Failure to disclose: nominated officers in the regulated sector

331

(1) A person nominated to receive disclosures under section 330 commits an offence if the conditions in subsections (2) to (4) are satisfied.

(2) The first condition is that he—

(a) knows or suspects, or

(b) has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting,

that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(3) The second condition is that the information or other matter—

(a) on which his knowledge or suspicion is based, or

(b) which gives reasonable grounds for such knowledge or suspicion,

came to him in consequence of a disclosure made under section 330.

(3A) The third condition is—

(a) that he knows the identity of the other person mentioned in subsection (2), or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property, in consequence of a disclosure made under section 330,

(b) that that other person, or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property, can be identified from the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3), or

(c) that he believes, or it is reasonable to expect him to believe, that the information or other matter will or may assist in identifying that other person or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property.

(4) The fourth condition is that he does not make the required disclosure to a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by the Director General of the National Crime Agency as soon as is practicable after the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) comes to him.

(5) The required disclosure is a disclosure of—

(a) the identity of the other person mentioned in subsection (2), if disclosed to him under section 330,

(b) the whereabouts of the laundered property, so far as disclosed to him under section 330, and

(5A) The laundered property is the property forming the subject-matter of the money laundering that he knows or suspects, or has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting, that other person to be engaged in.

(6) But he does not commit an offence under this section if he has a reasonable excuse for not making the required disclosure.

(6A) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) he knows, or believes on reasonable grounds, that the money laundering is occurring in a particular country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and

(b) the money laundering—

(i) is not unlawful under the criminal law applying in that country or territory, and

(ii) is not of a description prescribed in an order made by the Secretary of State.

(6B) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) the information or other matter disclosed to the person under section 330 consists of or includes information that was obtained only in consequence of the carrying out of a status check under section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 or an immigration check under section 40A of that Act or both, and

(b) but for the information so obtained the person would not have reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(6C) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) consists of or includes information that was obtained only in consequence of complying with an eligibility verification notice given to the person under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 3B to the Social Security Administration Act 1992, and

(b) but for the information so obtained the person would not know or suspect, or have reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting, that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(7) In deciding whether a person committed an offence under this section the court must consider whether he followed any relevant guidance which was at the time concerned—

(a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other appropriate body,

(b) approved by the Treasury, and

(c) published in a manner it approved as appropriate in its opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons likely to be affected by it.

(8) Schedule 9 has effect for the purpose of determining what is a supervisory authority.

(9) An appropriate body is a body which regulates or is representative of a trade, profession, business or employment.

Failure to disclose: other nominated officers

332

(1) A person nominated to receive disclosures under section 337 or 338 commits an offence if the conditions in subsections (2) to (4) are satisfied.

(2) The first condition is that he knows or suspects that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(3) The second condition is that the information or other matter on which his knowledge or suspicion is based came to him in consequence of a disclosure made under the applicable section.

(3A) The third condition is—

(a) that he knows the identity of the other person mentioned in subsection (2), or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property, in consequence of a disclosure made under the applicable section,

(b) that that other person, or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property, can be identified from the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3), or

(c) that he believes, or it is reasonable to expect him to believe, that the information or other matter will or may assist in identifying that other person or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property.

(4) The fourth condition is that he does not make the required disclosure to a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by the Director General of the National Crime Agency as soon as is practicable after the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) comes to him.

(5) The required disclosure is a disclosure of—

(a) the identity of the other person mentioned in subsection (2), if disclosed to him under the applicable section,

(b) the whereabouts of the laundered property, so far as disclosed to him under the applicable section, and

(5A) The laundered property is the property forming the subject-matter of the money laundering that he knows or suspects that other person to be engaged in.

(5B) The applicable section is section 337 or, as the case may be, section 338.

(6) But he does not commit an offence under this section if he has a reasonable excuse for not making the required disclosure.

(7) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) he knows, or believes on reasonable grounds, that the money laundering is occurring in a particular country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and

(b) the money laundering—

(i) is not unlawful under the criminal law applying in that country or territory, and

(ii) is not of a description prescribed in an order made by the Secretary of State.

Tipping off

333

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Penalties

334

(1) A person guilty of an offence under section 327, 328 or 329 is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both, or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 14 years or to a fine or to both.

(2) A person guilty of an offence under section 330, 331or 332 is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both, or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or to a fine or to both.

(3) A person guilty of an offence under section 339(1A) is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.

335

(1) The appropriate consent is—

(a) the consent of a nominated officer to do a prohibited act if an authorised disclosure is made to the nominated officer;

(b) the consent of a constable to do a prohibited act if an authorised disclosure is made to a constable;

(2) A person must be treated as having the appropriate consent if—

(a) he makes an authorised disclosure to a constable or a customs officer, and

(b) the condition in subsection (3) or the condition in subsection (4) is satisfied.

(3) The condition is that before the end of the notice period he does not receive notice from a constable or customs officer that consent to the doing of the act is refused.

(4) The condition is that—

(a) before the end of the notice period he receives notice from a constable or customs officer that consent to the doing of the act is refused, and

(b) the moratorium period has expired.

(5) The notice period is the period of seven working days starting with the first working day after the person makes the disclosure.

(6) The moratorium period is the period of 31 days starting with the day on which the person receives notice that consent to the doing of the act is refused.

(6A) Subsection (6) is subject to—

(a) section 336A, which enables the moratorium period to be extended by court order in accordance with that section, and

(b) section 336C, which provides for an automatic extension of the moratorium period in certain cases (period extended if it would otherwise end before determination of application or appeal proceedings etc).

(7) A working day is a day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 (c. 80) in the part of the United Kingdom in which the person is when he makes the disclosure.

(8) References to a prohibited act are to an act mentioned in section 327(1), 328(1) or 329(1) (as the case may be).

(8A) Subsection (8) is subject to—

(a) section 336A, which enables the moratorium period to be extended by court order in accordance with that section, and

(b) section 336C, which provides for an automatic extension of the moratorium period in certain cases (period extended if it would otherwise end before determination of application or appeal proceedings etc).

(9) A nominated officer is a person nominated to receive disclosures under section 338.

(10) Subsections (1) to (4) apply for the purposes of this Part.

336

(1) A nominated officer must not give the appropriate consent to the doing of a prohibited act unless the condition in subsection (2), the condition in subsection (3) or the condition in subsection (4) is satisfied.

(2) The condition is that—

(a) he makes a disclosure that property is criminal property to a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by the Director General of the National Crime Agency, and

(b) such a person gives consent to the doing of the act.

(3) The condition is that—

(a) he makes a disclosure that property is criminal property to a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by the Director General of the National Crime Agency, and

(b) before the end of the notice period he does not receive notice from such a person that consent to the doing of the act is refused.

(4) The condition is that—

(a) he makes a disclosure that property is criminal property to a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by the Director General of the National Crime Agency,

(b) before the end of the notice period he receives notice from such a person that consent to the doing of the act is refused, and

(5) A person who is a nominated officer commits an offence if—

(a) he gives consent to a prohibited act in circumstances where none of the conditions in subsections (2), (3) and (4) is satisfied, and

(b) he knows or suspects that the act is a prohibited act.

(6) A person guilty of such an offence is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both, or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or to a fine or to both.

(7) The notice period is the period of seven working days starting with the first working day after the nominated officer makes the disclosure.

(8) The moratorium period is the period of 31 days starting with the day on which the nominated officer is given notice that consent to the doing of the act is refused.

(9) A working day is a day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 (c. 80) in the part of the United Kingdom in which the nominated officer is when he gives the appropriate consent.

(10) References to a prohibited act are to an act mentioned in section 327(1), 328(1) or 329(1) (as the case may be).

(11) A nominated officer is a person nominated to receive disclosures under section 338.

Disclosures

Protected disclosures

337

(1) A disclosure which satisfies the following three conditions is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).

(2) The first condition is that the information or other matter disclosed came to the person making the disclosure (the discloser) in the course of his trade, profession, business or employment.

(3) The second condition is that the information or other matter—

(a) causes the discloser to know or suspect, or

(b) gives him reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting,

that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(4) The third condition is that the disclosure is made to a constable, a customs officer or a nominated officer as soon as is practicable after the information or other matter comes to the discloser.

(4A) Where a disclosure consists of a disclosure protected under subsection (1) and a disclosure of either or both of—

(a) the identity of the other person mentioned in subsection (3), and

(b) the whereabouts of property forming the subject-matter of the money laundering that the discloser knows or suspects, or has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting, that other person to be engaged in,

the disclosure of the thing mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) (as well as the disclosure protected under subsection (1)) is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).

(5) A disclosure to a nominated officer is a disclosure which—

(a) is made to a person nominated by the discloser’s employer to receive disclosures undersection 330 or this section, and

(b) is made in the course of the discloser’s employment ....

Authorised disclosures

338

(1) For the purposes of this Part a disclosure is authorised if—

(a) it is a disclosure to a constable, a customs officer or a nominated officer by the alleged offender that property is criminal property,

(b) ... and

(2) The first condition is that the disclosure is made before the alleged offender does the prohibited act.

(2A) The second condition is that—

(a) the disclosure is made while the alleged offender is doing the prohibited act,

(b) he began to do the act at a time when, because he did not then know or suspect that the property constituted or represented a person's benefit from criminal conduct, the act was not a prohibited act, and

(c) the disclosure is made on his own initiative and as soon as is practicable after he first knows or suspects that the property constitutes or represents a person's benefit from criminal conduct.

(3) The third condition is that—

(a) the disclosure is made after the alleged offender does the prohibited act,

(b) he has a reasonable excuse for his failure to make the disclosure before he did the act, and

(4) An authorised disclosure is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).

(4A) Where an authorised disclosure is made in good faith, no civil liability arises in respect of the disclosure on the part of the person by or on whose behalf it is made.

(5) A disclosure to a nominated officer is a disclosure which—

(a) is made to a person nominated by the alleged offender’s employer to receive authorised disclosures, and

(b) is made in the course of the alleged offender’s employment ....

(6) References to the prohibited act are to an act mentioned in section 327(1), 328(1) or 329(1) (as the case may be).

Form and manner of disclosures

339

(1) The Secretary of State may by order prescribe the form and manner in which a disclosure under section 330, 331, 332 or 338 must be made.

(1A) A person commits an offence if he makes a disclosure under section 330, 331, 332 or 338 otherwise than in the form prescribed under subsection (1) or otherwise than in the manner so prescribed.

(1B) But a person does not commit an offence under subsection (1A) if he has a reasonable excuse for making the disclosure otherwise than in the form prescribed under subsection (1) or (as the case may be) otherwise than in the manner so prescribed.

(2) The power under subsection (1) to prescribe the form in which a disclosure must be made includes power to provide for the form to include a request to a person making a disclosure that the person provide information specified or described in the form if he has not provided it in making the disclosure.

(3) Where under subsection (2) a request is included in a form prescribed under subsection (1), the form must—

(a) state that there is no obligation to comply with the request, and

(b) explain the protection conferred by subsection (4) on a person who complies with the request.

(4) A disclosure made in pursuance of a request under subsection (2) is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).

(5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(7) Subsection (2) does not apply to a disclosure made to a nominated officer.

Interpretation

340

(1) This section applies for the purposes of this Part.

(2) Criminal conduct is conduct which—

(a) constitutes an offence in any part of the United Kingdom, or

(b) would constitute an offence in any part of the United Kingdom if it occurred there.

(3) Property is criminal property if—

(a) it constitutes a person’s benefit from criminal conduct or it represents such a benefit (in whole or part and whether directly or indirectly), and

(b) the alleged offender knows or suspects that it constitutes or represents such a benefit.

(4) It is immaterial—

(a) who carried out the conduct;

(b) who benefited from it;

(5) A person benefits from conduct if he obtains property as a result of or in connection with the conduct.

(6) If a person obtains a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct, he is to be taken to obtain as a result of or in connection with the conduct a sum of money equal to the value of the pecuniary advantage.

(7) References to property or a pecuniary advantage obtained in connection with conduct include references to property or a pecuniary advantage obtained in both that connection and some other.

(8) If a person benefits from conduct his benefit is the property obtained as a result of or in connection with the conduct.

(9) Property is all property wherever situated and includes—

(a) money;

(b) all forms of property, real or personal, heritable or moveable;

(10) The following rules apply in relation to property—

(a) property is obtained by a person if he obtains an interest in it;

(b) references to an interest, in relation to land in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, are to any legal estate or equitable interest or power;

(c) references to an interest, in relation to land in Scotland, are to any estate, interest, servitude or other heritable right in or over land, including a heritable security;

(d) references to an interest, in relation to property other than land, include references to a right (including a right to possession).

(11) Money laundering is an act which—

(a) constitutes an offence under section 327, 328 or 329,

(b) constitutes an attempt, conspiracy or incitement to commit an offence specified in paragraph (a),

(d) would constitute an offence specified in paragraph (a), (b) or (c) if done in the United Kingdom.

(12) For the purposes of a disclosure to a nominated officer—

(a) references to a person’s employer include any body, association or organisation (including a voluntary organisation) in connection with whose activities the person exercises a function (whether or not for gain or reward), and

(b) references to employment must be construed accordingly.

(13) References to a constable include references to a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by the Director General of the National Crime Agency.

(14) “Deposit-taking body” means—

(a) a business which engages in the activity of accepting deposits, ...

(b) the National Savings Bank , or

(14A) In subsection (14)(a)—

(a) the reference to the activity of accepting deposits is a reference to that activity so far as it is, for the time being, a regulated activity for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 by virtue of an order under section 22 of that Act, but

(b) the reference to a business which engages in that activity does not include a person specified, or of a description specified, in regulations made by the Treasury or the Secretary of State.

(14B) Before making regulations under subsection (14A)(b), the Treasury or the Secretary of State (as appropriate) must consult such persons likely to be affected by the regulations, or such representatives of such persons, as they consider appropriate.

(14C) “Electronic money institution” has the same meaning as in the Electronic Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99) (see regulation 2 of those Regulations).

(15) “Information order” means an order made under section 339ZH.

(16) “Payment institution” means an authorised payment institution or a small payment institution (each as defined in regulation 2 of the Payment Services Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/752)).

(17) “Business relationship” means a business, professional or commercial relationship between a person carrying on business in the regulated sector and a customer or client, where the relationship—

(a) arises out of the business of that person, and

(b) is expected by that person, at the time when contact is established, to have an element of duration.

Part 8 — Investigations

Chapter 1 — Introduction

Investigations

341

(1) For the purposes of this Part a confiscation investigation is an investigation into—

(a) whether a person has benefited from his criminal conduct, ...

(b) the extent or whereabouts of his benefit from his criminal conduct , or

(c) the available amount in respect of the person or the extent or whereabouts of realisable property available for satisfying a confiscation order made in respect of him.

(2) For the purposes of this Part a civil recovery investigation is an investigation for the purpose of identifying recoverable property or associated property and includes investigation into—

(a) whether property is or has been recoverable property or associated property,

(b) who holds or has held property,

(d) the nature, extent or whereabouts of property.

(3) But an investigation is not a civil recovery investigation to the extent that it relates to—

(a) property in respect of which proceedings for a recovery order have been started,

(b) property to which an interim receiving order applies,

(d) property detained under section 295 , 303K or 303L. , ...

(e) property held in an account in relation to which an account freezing order made under section 303Z3 has effect. , or

(f) property detained under Chapter 3C or 3F of Part 5 or property held in an account in relation to which a crypto wallet freezing order made under section 303Z37 has effect.

(3A) For the purposes of this Part a detained cash investigation is an investigation for the purposes of Chapter 3 of Part 5 into—

(a) ... the derivation of cash detained under that Chapter or a part of such cash, or

(b) ... whether cash detained under that Chapter, or a part of such cash, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct.

(3B) For the purposes of this Part a detained property investigation is an investigation for the purposes of Chapter 3A of Part 5 into—

(a) the derivation of property detained under that Chapter, or a part of such property, or

(b) whether property detained under that Chapter, or a part of such property, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct.

(3C) For the purposes of this Part a frozen funds investigation is an investigation for the purposes of Chapter 3B of Part 5 into—

(a) the derivation of money held in an account in relation to which an account freezing order made under section 303Z3 has effect (a “frozen account”) or of a part of such money, or

(b) whether money held in a frozen account, or a part of such money, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct.

(3D) For the purposes of this Part a cryptoasset investigation is an investigation for the purposes of Chapter 3C, 3D, 3E or 3F of Part 5 and includes investigation into—

(a) the derivation of cryptoassets detained under Chapter 3C (including where the cryptoassets have been converted into money in accordance with Chapter 3F),

(b) whether cryptoassets or converted cryptoassets detained under Chapter 3C or 3F are intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct,

(c) the derivation of cryptoassets held in a crypto wallet in relation to which a crypto wallet freezing order made under section 303Z37 has effect (including where the cryptoassets have been converted into money in accordance with Chapter 3F), or

(d) whether cryptoassets held in such a wallet are intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct.

(4) For the purposes of this Part a money laundering investigation is an investigation into whether a person has committed a money laundering offence.

(5) For the purposes of this Part an exploitation proceeds investigation is an investigation for the purposes of Part 7 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (criminal memoirs etc) into—

(a) whether a person is a qualifying offender,

(b) whether a person has obtained exploitation proceeds from a relevant offence,

(d) the available amount in respect of a person.

Paragraphs (a) to (d) are to be construed in accordance with that Part of that Act.

Offences of prejudicing investigation

342

(1) This section applies if a person knows or suspects that an appropriate officer or (in Scotland) a proper person is acting (or proposing to act) in connection with a confiscation investigation, a civil recovery investigation , a detained cash investigation , a detained property investigation, a frozen funds investigation , a cryptoasset investigation , an exploitation proceeds investigation or a money laundering investigation which is being or is about to be conducted.

(2) The person commits an offence if—

(a) he makes a disclosure which is likely to prejudice the investigation, or

(b) he falsifies, conceals, destroys or otherwise disposes of, or causes or permits the falsification, concealment, destruction or disposal of, documents which are relevant to the investigation.

(3) A person does not commit an offence under subsection (2)(a) if—

(a) he does not know or suspect that the disclosure is likely to prejudice the investigation,

(b) the disclosure is made in the exercise of a function under this Act or any other enactment relating to criminal conduct or benefit from criminal conduct or in compliance with a requirement imposed under or by virtue of this Act, or

(ba) the disclosure is of a matter within section 333A(2) or (3)(a) (money laundering: tipping off) and the information on which the disclosure is based came to the person in the course of a business in the regulated sector,

(bb) the disclosure is made in the exercise of a function under Part 7 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (criminal memoirs etc) or in compliance with a requirement imposed under or by virtue of that Act,

(4) A disclosure falls within this subsection if it is a disclosure—

(a) to (or to a representative of) a client of the professional legal adviser in connection with the giving by the adviser of legal advice to the client, or

(b) to any person in connection with legal proceedings or contemplated legal proceedings.

(5) But a disclosure does not fall within subsection (4) if it is made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose.

(6) A person does not commit an offence under subsection (2)(b) if—

(a) he does not know or suspect that the documents are relevant to the investigation, or

(b) he does not intend to conceal any facts disclosed by the documents from any appropriate officer or (in Scotland) proper person carrying out the investigation.

(7) A person guilty of an offence under subsection (2) is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both, or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or to a fine or to both.

(8) For the purposes of this section—

(a) “appropriate officer” must be construed in accordance with section 378;

(b) “proper person” must be construed in accordance with section 412.

Chapter 2 — England and Wales and Northern Ireland

Judges and courts

Judges

343

(1) In this Chapter references to a judge in relation to an application must be construed in accordance with this section.

(2) In relation to an application for the purposes of a confiscation investigation , a money laundering investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation a judge is—

(a) in England and Wales, a judge entitled to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court;

(b) in Northern Ireland, a Crown Court judge.

(3) In relation to an application for the purposes of a civil recovery investigation or an exploitation proceeds investigation ... a judge is a judge of the High Court.

Courts

344

In this Chapter references to the court are to—

(a) the Crown Court, in relation to an order for the purposes of a confiscation investigation , a money laundering investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation;

(b) the High Court, in relation to an order for the purposes of a civil recovery investigation or an exploitation proceeds investigation ...

Production orders

345

(1) A judge may, on an application made to him by an appropriate officer, make a production order if he is satisfied that each of the requirements for the making of the order is fulfilled.

(2) The application for a production order must state that—

(a) a person specified in the application is subject to a confiscation investigation , a civil recovery investigation , an exploitation proceeds investigation or a money laundering investigation, or

(b) property specified in the application is subject to a civil recovery investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation.

(3) The application must also state that—

(a) the order is sought for the purposes of the investigation;

(b) the order is sought in relation to material, or material of a description, specified in the application;

(4) A production order is an order either—

(a) requiring the person the application for the order specifies as appearing to be in possession or control of material to produce it to an appropriate officer for him to take away, or

(b) requiring that person to give an appropriate officer access to the material,

within the period stated in the order.

(5) The period stated in a production order must be a period of seven days beginning with the day on which the order is made, unless it appears to the judge by whom the order is made that a longer or shorter period would be appropriate in the particular circumstances.

Requirements for making of production order

346

(1) These are the requirements for the making of a production order.

(2) There must be reasonable grounds for suspecting that—

(a) in the case of a confiscation investigation, the person the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation has benefited from his criminal conduct;

(b) in the case of a civil recovery investigation—

(i) the person the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation holds recoverable property or associated property,

(ii) that person has, at any time, held property that was recoverable property or associated property at the time, or

(iii) the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation is recoverable property or associated property;

(ba) in the case of a detained cash investigation into the derivation of cash, the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation, or a part of it, is recoverable property;

(bb) in the case of a detained cash investigation into the intended use of cash, the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct;

(bc) in the case of a detained property investigation into the derivation of property, the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation, or a part of it, is recoverable property;

(bd) in the case of a detained property investigation into the intended use of property, the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct;

(be) in the case of a frozen funds investigation into the derivation of money held in an account in relation to which an account freezing order made under section 303Z3 has effect (a “frozen account”), the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation, or a part of it, is recoverable property;

(bf) in the case of a frozen funds investigation into the intended use of money held in a frozen account, the property the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct;

(bg) in the case of a cryptoasset investigation into the derivation of cryptoassets, the cryptoassets the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation (or, if the cryptoassets have been converted into money in accordance with Chapter 3F of Part 5, the converted cryptoassets) are recoverable property;

(bh) in the case of a cryptoasset investigation into the intended use of cryptoassets, the cryptoassets the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation (or, if the cryptoassets have been converted into money in accordance with Chapter 3F of Part 5, the converted cryptoassets) are intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct.

(c) in the case of a money laundering investigation, the person the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation has committed a money laundering offence.

(d) in the case of an exploitation proceeds investigation, the person the application for the order specifies as being subject to the investigation is within subsection (2A).

(2A) A person is within this subsection if, for the purposes of Part 7 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (criminal memoirs etc), exploitation proceeds have been obtained by the person from a relevant offence by reason of any benefit derived by the person.

This subsection is to be construed in accordance with that Part.

(3) There must be reasonable grounds for believing that the person the application specifies as appearing to be in possession or control of the material so specified is in possession or control of it.

(4) There must be reasonable grounds for believing that the material is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the order is sought.

(5) There must be reasonable grounds for believing that it is in the public interest for the material to be produced or for access to it to be given, having regard to—

(a) the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the material is obtained;

(b) the circumstances under which the person the application specifies as appearing to be in possession or control of the material holds it.

Order to grant entry

347

(1) This section applies if a judge makes a production order requiring a person to give an appropriate officer access to material on any premises.

(2) The judge may, on an application made to him by an appropriate officer and specifying the premises, make an order to grant entry in relation to the premises.

(3) An order to grant entry is an order requiring any person who appears to an appropriate officer to be entitled to grant entry to the premises to allow him to enter the premises to obtain access to the material.

Further provisions

348

(1) A production order does not require a person to produce, or give access to, privileged material.

(2) Privileged material is any material which the person would be entitled to refuse to produce on grounds of legal professional privilege in proceedings in the High Court.

(3) A production order does not require a person to produce, or give access to, excluded material.

(4) A production order has effect in spite of any restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).

(5) An appropriate officer may take copies of any material which is produced, or to which access is given, in compliance with a production order.

(6) Material produced in compliance with a production order may be retained for so long as it is necessary to retain it (as opposed to copies of it) in connection with the investigation for the purposes of which the order was made.

(7) But if an appropriate officer has reasonable grounds for believing that—

(a) the material may need to be produced for the purposes of any legal proceedings, and

(b) it might otherwise be unavailable for those purposes,

it may be retained until the proceedings are concluded.

Computer information

349

(1) This section applies if any of the material specified in an application for a production order consists of information contained in a computer.

(2) If the order is an order requiring a person to produce the material to an appropriate officer for him to take away, it has effect as an order to produce the material in a form in which it can be taken away by him and in which it is visible and legible.

(3) If the order is an order requiring a person to give an appropriate officer access to the material, it has effect as an order to give him access to the material in a form in which it is visible and legible.

Government departments

350

(1) A production order may be made in relation to material in the possession or control of an authorised government department.

(2) An order so made may require any officer of the department (whether named in the order or not) who may for the time being be in possession or control of the material to comply with it.

(3) An order containing such a requirement must be served as if the proceedings were civil proceedings against the department.

(4) If an order contains such a requirement—

(a) the person on whom it is served must take all reasonable steps to bring it to the attention of the officer concerned;

(b) any other officer of the department who is in receipt of the order must also take all reasonable steps to bring it to the attention of the officer concerned.

(5) If the order is not brought to the attention of the officer concerned within the period stated in the order (in pursuance of section 345(4)) the person on whom it is served must report the reasons for the failure to—

(a) a judge entitled to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court or (in Northern Ireland) a Crown Court judge, in the case of an order made for the purposes of a confiscation investigation or a money laundering investigation , a money laundering investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation;

(b) a High Court judge, in the case of an order made for the purposes of a civil recovery investigation or an exploitation proceeds investigation ...

(6) An authorised government department is a government department, or a Northern Ireland department, which is an authorised department for the purposes of the Crown Proceedings Act 1947 (c. 44).

Supplementary

351

(1) An application for a production order or an order to grant entry may be made ex parte to a judge in chambers.

(2) Rules of court may make provision as to the practice and procedure to be followed in connection with proceedings relating to production orders and orders to grant entry.

(3) An application to discharge or vary a production order or an order to grant entry may be made to the court by—

(a) the person who applied for the order;

(b) any person affected by the order.

(4) The court—

(a) may discharge the order;

(b) may vary the order.

(5) An application to discharge or vary a production order or an order to grant entry need not be made by the same appropriate officer that applied for the order (but must be made by an appropriate officer of the same description).

(5A) If the application for the order was, by virtue of an order under section 453, made by an accredited financial investigator of a particular description, the reference in subsection (5) to an appropriate officer of the same description is to another accredited financial investigator of that description.

(6) References to a person who applied for a production order or an order to grant entry must be construed accordingly.

(7) Production orders and orders to grant entry have effect as if they were orders of the court.

(8) Subsections (2) to (7) do not apply to orders made in England and Wales for the purposes of a civil recovery investigation or an exploitation proceeds investigation ....

Search and seizure warrants

352

(1) A judge may, on an application made to him by an appropriate officer, issue a search and seizure warrant if he is satisfied that either of the requirements for the issuing of the warrant is fulfilled.

(2) The application for a search and seizure warrant must state that—

(a) a person specified in the application is subject to a confiscation investigation , a civil recovery investigation , an exploitation proceeds investigation or a money laundering investigation, or

(b) property specified in the application is subject to a civil recovery investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation.

(3) The application must also state—

(a) that the warrant is sought for the purposes of the investigation;

(b) that the warrant is sought in relation to the premises specified in the application;

(c) that the warrant is sought in relation to material specified in the application, or that there are reasonable grounds for believing that there is material falling within section 353(6), (7) , (7A), (7B) , (7C), (7D), (7E), (7F), (7G), (7H) or (8) on the premises.

(4) A search and seizure warrant is a warrant authorising an appropriate person—

(a) to enter and search the premises specified in the application for the warrant, and

(b) to seize and retain any material found there which is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the application is made.

(5) An appropriate person is—

(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(b) a Financial Conduct Authority officer, a National Crime Agency officer , an officer of Revenue and Customs or a member of the staff of the relevant Director, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a civil recovery investigation.

(c) a constable an SFO officer, , an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs or an immigration officer, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a detained cash investigation , a confiscation investigation or a money laundering investigation.

(ca) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a detained property investigation;

(cb) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a frozen funds investigation;

(cc) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a cryptoasset investigation;

(d) a National Crime Agency officer, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of an exploitation proceeds investigation.

(5A) In this Part “relevant Director”—

(a) in relation to England and Wales, means the Director of Public Prosecutions ... or the Director of the Serious Fraud Office; and

(b) in relation to Northern Ireland, means the Director of the Serious Fraud Office or the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.

(6) The requirements for the issue of a search and seizure warrant are—

(a) that a production order made in relation to material has not been complied with and there are reasonable grounds for believing that the material is on the premises specified in the application for the warrant, or

(b) that section 353 is satisfied in relation to the warrant.

(7) The reference in paragraph ... (c) paragraphs (c), (ca) , (cb) and (cc) of subsection (5) to an accredited financial investigator is a reference to an accredited financial investigator who falls within a description specified in an order made for the purposes of that paragraph by the Secretary of State or the Welsh Ministers under section 453.

(8) Criminal Procedure Rules may make provision about proceedings under this section on an application to a judge entitled to exercise the jurisdiction of the Crown Court in England and Wales.

Requirements where production order not available

353

(1) This section is satisfied in relation to a search and seizure warrant if—

(a) subsection (2) applies, and

(b) either the first or the second set of conditions is complied with.

(2) This subsection applies if there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that—

(a) in the case of a confiscation investigation, the person specified in the application for the warrant has benefited from his criminal conduct;

(b) in the case of a civil recovery investigation—

(i) the person specified in the application for the warrant holds recoverable property or associated property,

(ii) that person has, at any time, held property that was recoverable property or associated property at the time, or

(iii) the property specified in the application for the warrant is recoverable property or associated property;

(ba) in the case of a detained cash investigation into the derivation of cash, the property specified in the application for the warrant, or a part of it, is recoverable property;

(bb) in the case of a detained cash investigation into the intended use of cash, the property specified in the application for the warrant, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct;

(bc) in the case of a detained property investigation into the derivation of property, the property specified in the application for the warrant, or a part of it, is recoverable property;

(bd) in the case of a detained property investigation into the intended use of property, the property specified in the application for the warrant, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct;

(be) in the case of a frozen funds investigation into the derivation of money held in an account in relation to which an account freezing order made under section 303Z3 has effect (a “frozen account”), the property specified in the application for the warrant, or a part of it, is recoverable property;

(bf) in the case of a frozen funds investigation into the intended use of money held in a frozen account, the property specified in the application for the warrant, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct;

(bg) in the case of a cryptoasset investigation into the derivation of cryptoassets, the cryptoassets specfied in the application for the warrant (or, if the cryptoassets have been converted into money in accordance with Chapter 3F of Part 5, the converted cryptoassets) are recoverable property;

(bh) in the case of a cryptoasset investigation into the intended use of cryptoassets, the cryptoassets specified in the application for the warrant (or, if the cryptoassets have been converted into money in accordance with Chapter 3F of Part 5, the converted cryptoassets) are intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct.

(c) in the case of a money laundering investigation, the person specified in the application for the warrant has committed a money laundering offence.

(d) in the case of an exploitation proceeds investigation, the person specified in the application for the warrant is within section 346(2A).

(3) The first set of conditions is that there are reasonable grounds for believing that—

(a) any material on the premises specified in the application for the warrant is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought,

(b) it is in the public interest for the material to be obtained, having regard to the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the material is obtained, and

(4) The reasons are—

(a) that it is not practicable to communicate with any person against whom the production order could be made;

(b) that it is not practicable to communicate with any person who would be required to comply with an order to grant entry to the premises;

(c) that the investigation might be seriously prejudiced unless an appropriate person is able to secure immediate access to the material.

(5) The second set of conditions is that—

(a) there are reasonable grounds for believing that there is material on the premises specified in the application for the warrant and that the material falls within subsection (6), (7) , (7A), (7B) , (7C), (7D), (7E), (7F) , (7G), (7H), (8) or (8A),

(b) there are reasonable grounds for believing that it is in the public interest for the material to be obtained, having regard to the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the material is obtained, and

(6) In the case of a confiscation investigation, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the person specified in the application, the question whether he has benefited from his criminal conduct or of realisable property available for satisfying a confiscation order made in respect of him or any question as to the extent or whereabouts of his benefit from his criminal conduct, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7) In the case of a civil recovery investigation, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the person or property specified in the application or to any of the questions listed in subsection (7ZA), and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7ZA) Those questions are—

(a) where a person is specified in the application, any question as to—

(i) what property the person holds or has held,

(ii) whether the property is or has been recoverable property or associated property, or

(iii) the nature, extent or whereabouts of the property, and

(b) where property is specified in the application, any question as to—

(i) whether the property is or has been recoverable property or associated property,

(ii) who holds it or has held it,

(iii) whether a person who appears to hold or to have held it holds or has held other property,

(iv) whether the other property is or has been recoverable property or associated property, or

(v) the nature, extent or whereabouts of the specified property or the other property.

(7A) In the case of a detained cash investigation into the derivation of cash, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application, the question whether the property, or a part of it, is recoverable property or any other question as to its derivation, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7B) In the case of a detained cash investigation into the intended use of cash, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application or the question whether the property, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7C) In the case of a detained property investigation into the derivation of property, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application, the question whether the property, or a part of it, is recoverable property or any other question as to its derivation, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7D) In the case of a detained property investigation into the intended use of property, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application or the question whether the property, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7E) In the case of a frozen funds investigation into the derivation of money held in a frozen account, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application, the question whether the property, or a part of it, is recoverable property or any other question as to its derivation, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7F) In the case of a frozen funds investigation into the intended use of money held in a frozen account, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application or the question whether the property, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7G) In the case of a cryptoasset investigation into the derivation of cryptoassets or converted cryptoassets, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the property specified in the application, the question whether the property, or a part of it, is recoverable property or any other question as to its derivation, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(7H) In the case of a cryptoasset investigation into the intended use of cryptoassets or converted cryptoassets, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to property specified in the application or the question whether the property, or a part of it, is intended by any person to be used in unlawful conduct, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(8) In the case of a money laundering investigation, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the person specified in the application or the question whether he has committed a money laundering offence, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

(8A) In the case of an exploitation proceeds investigation, material falls within this subsection if it cannot be identified at the time of the application but it—

(a) relates to the person specified in the application, the question whether exploitation proceeds have been obtained from a relevant offence in relation to that person, any question as to the extent or whereabouts of any benefit as a result of which exploitation proceeds are obtained or any question about the person's available amount, and

(b) is likely to be of substantial value (whether or not by itself) to the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant is sought.

This subsection is to be construed in accordance with Part 7 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (criminal memoirs etc).

(9) The requirements are—

(a) that it is not practicable to communicate with any person entitled to grant entry to the premises;

(b) that entry to the premises will not be granted unless a warrant is produced;

(c) that the investigation might be seriously prejudiced unless an appropriate person arriving at the premises is able to secure immediate entry to them.

(10) An appropriate person is—

(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(b) a Financial Conduct Authority officer, a National Crime Agency officer , an officer of Revenue and Customs or a member of the staff of the relevant Director, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a civil recovery investigation.

(c) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator, an officer of Revenue and Customs or an immigration officer, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a detained cash investigation , a confiscation investigation or a money laundering investigation.

(ca) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a detained property investigation;

(cb) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a frozen funds investigation;

(cc) a constable, an SFO officer, an accredited financial investigator or an officer of Revenue and Customs, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of a cryptoasset investigation;

(d) a National Crime Agency officer, if the warrant is sought for the purposes of an exploitation proceeds investigation.

(11) The reference in paragraphs (c), (ca) , (cb) and (cc) of subsection (10) to an accredited financial investigator is a reference to an accredited financial investigator who falls within a description specified in an order made for the purposes of that paragraph by the Secretary of State or the Welsh Ministers under section 453.

Further provisions: general

354

(1) A search and seizure warrant does not confer the right to seize privileged material.

(2) Privileged material is any material which a person would be entitled to refuse to produce on grounds of legal professional privilege in proceedings in the High Court.

(3) A search and seizure warrant does not confer the right to seize excluded material.

Further provisions: confiscation and money laundering

355

(1) This section applies to—

(a) search and seizure warrants sought for the purposes of a confiscation investigation , a money laundering investigation , a detained cash investigation, a detained property investigation , a frozen funds investigation or a cryptoasset investigation, and

(b) powers of seizure under them.

(2) In relation to such warrants and powers, the Secretary of State may make an order which applies , in relation to England and Wales, the provisions to which subsection (3) applies subject to any specified modifications.

(3) This subsection applies to the following provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)—

(a) section 15 (search warrants -safeguards);

(b) section 16 (execution of warrants);

(d) section 22 (retention).

(3A) In relation to such warrants and powers, the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland may make an order which applies, in relation to Northern Ireland, the provisions to which subsection (4) applies subject to any specified modifications.

(4) This subsection applies to the following provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12))—

(a) Article 17 (search warrants -safeguards);

(b) Article 18 (execution of warrants);

(d) Article 24 (retention).

Further provisions: civil recovery

356

(1) This section applies to search and seizure warrants sought for the purposes of civil recovery investigations or exploitation proceeds investigations ....

(2) An application for a warrant may be made ex parte to a judge in chambers.

(3) A warrant may be issued subject to conditions.

(4) A warrant continues in force until the end of the period of one month starting with the day on which it is issued.

(5) A warrant authorises the person it names to require any information which is held in a computer and is accessible from the premises specified in the application for the warrant, and which the named person believes relates to any matter relevant to the investigation, to be produced in a form—

(a) in which it can be taken away, and

(b) in which it is visible and legible.

(6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(7) A warrant may include provision authorising a person who is exercising powers under it to do other things which—

(a) are specified in the warrant, and

(b) need to be done in order to give effect to it.

(8) Copies may be taken of any material seized under a warrant.

(9) Material seized under a warrant may be retained for so long as it is necessary to retain it (as opposed to copies of it) in connection with the investigation for the purposes of which the warrant was issued.

(10) But if an appropriate officer has reasonable grounds for believing that—

(a) the material may need to be produced for the purposes of any legal proceedings, and

(b) it might otherwise be unavailable for those purposes,

it may be retained until the proceedings are concluded.

(11) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(12) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Disclosure orders

357

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Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

Failure to disclose: nominated officers in the regulated sector

331

Failure to disclose: other nominated officers

332

Tipping off

333

Penalties

334

Consent

Appropriate consent

335

Nominated officer: consent

336

Disclosures

Protected disclosures

337

Authorised disclosures

338

Form and manner of disclosures

339

Interpretation

Interpretation

340

Part 8 — Investigations

Chapter 1 — Introduction

Investigations

341

Offences of prejudicing investigation

342

Chapter 2 — England and Wales and Northern Ireland

Judges and courts

Judges

343

Courts

344

Production orders

Production orders

345

Requirements for making of production order

346

Order to grant entry

347

Further provisions

348

Computer information

349

Government departments

350

Supplementary

351

Search and seizure warrants

Search and seizure warrants

352

Requirements where production order not available

353

Further provisions: general

354

Further provisions: confiscation and money laundering

355

Further provisions: civil recovery

356

Disclosure orders

Disclosure orders

357