Companies Act 2006
- (2) A person holds a right “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in a legal entity and that entity—
- (a) holds that right, or
- (b) is part of a chain of legal entities—
- (i) each of which (other than the last) has a majority stake in the entity immediately below it in the chain, and
- (ii) the last of which holds that right.
- (3) For these purposes, A has a “majority stake” in B if—
- (a) A holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
- (b) A is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of B,
- (c) A is a member of B and controls alone, pursuant to an agreement with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights in B, or
- (d) A has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence or control over B.
- (4) In the application of this paragraph to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors, a legal entity is to be treated as having the right to appoint a director if—
- (a) a person's appointment as director follows necessarily from that person's appointment as director of the legal entity, or
- (b) the directorship is held by the legal entity itself.
Shares held by nominees
19
A share held by a person as nominee for another is to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by the other (and not by the nominee).
Rights treated as held by person who controls their exercise
20
- (1) Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that person also controls it).
- (2) A person “controls” a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that person and others, the right is exercisable only—
- (a) by that person,
- (b) in accordance with that person's directions or instructions, or
- (c) with that person's consent or concurrence.
21
- (1) “Arrangement” includes—
- (a) any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally enforceable, and
- (b) any convention, custom or practice of any kind.
- (2) But something does not count as an arrangement unless there is at least some degree of stability about it (whether by its nature or terms, the time it has been in existence or otherwise).
Rights exercisable only in certain circumstances etc
22
- (1) Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken into account only—
- (a) when the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they continue to obtain, or
- (b) when the circumstances are within the control of the person having the rights.
- (2) But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a legal entity is in relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account even while the entity is in those proceedings.
- (3) “Relevant insolvency proceedings” means—
- (a) administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986,
- (b) administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I. 19)), or
- (c) proceedings under the insolvency law of another country or territory during which an entity's assets and affairs are subject to the control or supervision of a third party or creditor.
- (4) Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise are to continue to be taken into account.
Rights attached to shares held by way of security
23
Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person are to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person—
- (a) where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in accordance with that person's instructions, and
- (b) where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person's interests.
Significant influence or control
24
- (1) The Secretary of State must issue guidance about the meaning of “significant influence or control” for the purposes of this Schedule.
- (2) Regard must be had to that guidance in interpreting references in this Schedule to “significant influence or control”.
- (3) Before issuing guidance under this paragraph the Secretary of State must lay a draft of it before Parliament.
- (4) If, within the 40-day period, either House of Parliament resolves not to approve the draft guidance, the Secretary of State must take no further steps in relation to it.
- (5) If no such resolution is made within that period, the Secretary of State must issue and publish the guidance in the form of the draft.
- (6) Sub-paragraph (4) does not prevent a new draft of proposed guidance from being laid before Parliament.
- (7) In this section “the 40-day period”, in relation to draft guidance, means the period of 40 days beginning with the day on which the draft is laid before Parliament (or, if it is not laid before each House on the same day, the later of the days on which it is laid).
- (8) In calculating the 40-day period, no account is to be taken of any period during which—
- (a) Parliament is dissolved or prorogued, or
- (b) both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
- (9) The Secretary of State may revise guidance issued under this paragraph, and a reference in this paragraph to guidance includes a reference to revised guidance.
Limited partnerships
25
- (1) An individual does not meet the specified condition in paragraph 2, 3 or 4 in relation to a company by virtue only of being a limited partner.
- (2) An individual does not meet the specified condition in paragraph 2, 3 or 4 in relation to a company by virtue only of, directly or indirectly—
- (a) holding shares, or
- (b) holding a right,
in or in relation to a limited partner which (in its capacity as such) would meet the condition if it were an individual.
- (3) Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply for the purposes of determining whether the requirement set out in paragraph (a) of the specified condition in paragraph 6 is met.
- (4) In this paragraph “ limited partner ” means—
- (a) a limited partner in a limited partnership registered under the Limited Partnerships Act 1907 (other than one who takes part in the management of the partnership business), or
- (b) a foreign limited partner.
- (5) In this paragraph “ foreign limited partner ” means an individual who—
- (a) participates in arrangements established under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and
- (b) has the characteristics prescribed by regulations made by the Secretary of State.
- (6) Regulations under this paragraph may, in particular, prescribe characteristics by reference to—
- (a) the nature of arrangements;
- (b) the nature of an individual's participation in the arrangements.
- (7) Regulations under this paragraph are subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
PART 4 — Power to amend thresholds etc
26
- (1) The Secretary of State may by regulations amend this Schedule for a permitted purpose.
- (2) The permitted purposes are—
- (a) to replace any or all references in this Schedule to a percentage figure with references to some other (larger or smaller) percentage figure;
- (b) to change or supplement the specified conditions in Part 1 of this Schedule so as to include circumstances (for example, circumstances involving more complex structures) that give individuals a level of control over company Y broadly similar to the level of control given by the other specified conditions;
- (c) in consequence of any provision made by virtue of paragraph (b), to change or supplement Part 2 of this Schedule so that circumstances specified in that Part in which a person is to be regarded as holding an interest in a company correspond to any of the specified conditions, or would do so but for the extent of the interest.
- (3) Regulations under this paragraph are subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
SCHEDULE 1B — Enforcement of disclosure requirements
Right to issue restrictions notice
1
- (1) This paragraph applies if—
- (a) a notice under section 790D , 790DA, 790E or 790EA is served by a company on a person who has a relevant interest in the company, and
- (b) the person fails to comply with that notice within the time specified in it.
- (2) The company may give the person a notice under this paragraph (a “warning notice”) informing the person that it is proposing to issue the person with a notice (a “restrictions notice”) with respect to the relevant interest.
- (3) The company may issue the restrictions notice if, by the end of the period of one month beginning with the date on which the warning notice was given—
- (a) the person has not complied with the notice served under section 790D , 790DA, 790E or 790EA, and
- (b) the company has not been provided with a valid reason sufficient to justify the person's failure to comply with the notice served under that section.
- (4) A restrictions notice is issued on a person by sending the notice to the person.
- (5) The effect of a restrictions notice is set out in paragraph 3.
- (6) In deciding whether to issue a restrictions notice, the company must have regard to the effect of the notice on the rights of third parties in respect of the relevant interest.
Relevant interests
2
- (1) For the purposes of this Schedule, a person has a relevant interest in a company if the person—
- (a) holds any shares in the company,
- (b) holds any voting rights in the company, or
- (c) holds the right to appoint or remove any member of the board of directors of the company.
- (2) References to “the relevant interest” are to the shares or right in question.
- (3) Part 3 of Schedule 1A applies for the interpretation of sub-paragraph (1) save that, where the relevant interest is by virtue of paragraph 19 or 20 of that Schedule treated for the purposes of that Schedule as held by a person other than the person who in fact holds the interest, both the holder and the other person are to be regarded for the purposes of this Schedule as having the relevant interest.
Effect of restrictions notice
3
- (1) The effect of a restrictions notice issued under paragraph 1 with respect to a relevant interest is as follows—
- (a) any transfer of the interest is void,
- (b) no rights are exercisable in respect of the interest,
- (c) no shares may be issued in right of the interest or in pursuance of an offer made to the interest-holder,
- (d) except in a liquidation, no payment may be made of sums due from the company in respect of the interest, whether in respect of capital or otherwise.
- (2) An agreement to transfer an interest that is subject to the restriction in sub-paragraph (1)(a) is void.
- (3) Sub-paragraph (2) does not apply to an agreement to transfer the interest on the making of an order under paragraph 8 made by virtue of sub-paragraph (3)(b) of that paragraph (removal of restrictions in case of court-approved transfer).
- (4) An agreement to transfer any associated right (otherwise than in a liquidation) is void.
- (5) Sub-paragraph (4) does not apply to an agreement to transfer any such right on the making of an order under paragraph 8 made by virtue of sub-paragraph (3)(b) of that paragraph (removal of restrictions in case of court-approved transfer).
- (6) An “ associated right ”, in relation to a relevant interest, is—
- (a) a right to be issued with any shares issued in right of the relevant interest, or
- (b) a right to receive payment of any sums due from the company in respect of the relevant interest.
- (7) The provisions of this section are subject to any directions given under paragraph 4.
Protection of third party rights
4
- (1) The court may give a direction under this paragraph if, on application by any person aggrieved, the court is satisfied that a restrictions notice issued by the company under paragraph 1 unfairly affects the rights of third parties in respect of the relevant interest.
- (2) The direction is given for the purpose of protecting those third party rights.
- (3) The direction is a direction that certain acts will not constitute a breach of the restrictions placed on the relevant interest by the restrictions notice.
- (4) An order containing a direction under this paragraph—
- (a) must specify the acts that will not constitute a breach of the restrictions, and
- (b) may confine the direction to cases where those acts are done by persons, or for purposes, described in the order.
- (5) The direction may be given subject to such terms as the court thinks fit.
Breach of restrictions
5
- (1) A person commits an offence if the person does anything listed in sub-paragraph (2) knowing that the interest is subject to restrictions.
- (2) The things are—
- (a) exercising or purporting to exercise any right to dispose of a relevant interest,
- (b) exercising or purporting to exercise any right to dispose of any right to be issued with a relevant interest, or
- (c) voting in respect of a relevant interest (whether as holder of the interest or as proxy) or appointing a proxy to vote in respect of a relevant interest.
- (3) A person who has a relevant interest that the person knows to be subject to restrictions commits an offence if the person—
- (a) knows a person to be entitled (apart from the restrictions) to vote in respect of the interest, whether as holder or as proxy,
- (b) does not know the person to be aware of the fact that the interest is subject to restrictions, and
- (c) fails to notify the person of that fact.
- (4) A person commits an offence if the person—
- (a) either has a relevant interest that the person knows to be subject to restrictions or is entitled to an associated right, and
- (b) enters in that capacity into an agreement that is void by virtue of paragraph 3(2) or (4).
- (5) References in this Schedule to an interest being “subject to restrictions” are to an interest being subject to restrictions by virtue of a restrictions notice under paragraph 1.
6
If shares in a company are issued in contravention of a restriction imposed by virtue of a restrictions notice under paragraph 1, an offence is committed by—
- (a) the company, and
- (b) every officer of the company who is in default.
7
- (1) A person guilty of an offence under paragraph 5 or 6 is liable—
- (a) on conviction on indictment, to a fine;
- (b) on summary conviction—
- (i) in England and Wales, to a fine,
- (ii) in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum.
- (2) The provisions of those paragraphs are subject to any direction given under paragraph 4 or 8.
Relaxation of restrictions
8
- (1) An application may be made to the court for an order directing that the relevant interest cease to be subject to restrictions.
- (2) An application for an order under this paragraph may be made by the company in question or by any person aggrieved.
- (3) The court must not make an order under this paragraph unless—
- (a) it is satisfied that the information required by the notice served under section 790D , 790DA, 790E or 790EA has been disclosed to the company and no unfair advantage has accrued to any person as a result of the earlier failure to make that disclosure, or
- (b) the relevant interest is to be transferred for valuable consideration and the court approves the transfer.
- (4) An order under this paragraph made by virtue of sub-paragraph (3)(b) may continue, in whole or in part, the restrictions mentioned in paragraph 3(1)(c) and (d) so far as they relate to a right acquired or offer made before the transfer.
- (5) Where any restrictions continue in force under sub-paragraph (4)—
- (a) an application may be made under this paragraph for an order directing that the relevant interest cease to be subject to those restrictions, and
- (b) sub-paragraph (3) does not apply in relation to the making of such an order.
Orders for sale
9
- (1) The court may order that the relevant interest subject to restrictions be sold subject to the court's approval as to the sale.
- (2) An application for an order under sub-paragraph (1) may only be made by the company in question.
- (3) If the court makes an order under this paragraph, it may make such further order relating to the sale or transfer of the interest as it thinks fit.
- (4) An application for an order under sub-paragraph (3) may be made—
- (a) by the company in question,
- (b) by the person appointed by or in pursuance of the order to effect the sale, or
- (c) by any person with an interest in the relevant interest.
- (5) On making an order under sub-paragraph (1) or (3), the court may order that the applicant's costs (in Scotland, expenses) be paid out of the proceeds of sale.
10
- (1) If a relevant interest is sold in pursuance of an order under paragraph 9, the proceeds of the sale, less the costs of the sale, must be paid into court for the benefit of those who are beneficially interested in the relevant interest.
- (2) A person who is beneficially interested in the relevant interest may apply to the court for the whole or part of those proceeds to be paid to that person.
- (3) On such an application, the court must order the payment to the applicant of—
- (a) the whole of the proceeds of sale together with any interest on the proceeds, or
- (b) if another person was also beneficially interested in the relevant interest at the time of the sale, such proportion of the proceeds (and any interest) as the value of the applicant's interest bears to the total value of the relevant interest.
- (4) If the court has ordered under paragraph 9 that the costs (in Scotland, expenses) of an applicant under that paragraph are to be paid out of the proceeds of sale, the applicant is entitled to payment of those costs (or expenses) out of the proceeds before any person receives any part of the proceeds under this paragraph.
Company's power to withdraw restrictions notice
11
A company that issues a person with a restrictions notice under paragraph 1 must by notice withdraw the restrictions notice if—
- (a) it is satisfied that there is a valid reason sufficient to justify the person's failure to comply with the notice served under section 790D , 790DA, 790E or 790EA,
- (b) the notice served under section 790D , 790DA, 790E or 790EA is complied with, or
- (c) it discovers that the rights of a third party in respect of the relevant interest are being unfairly affected by the restrictions notice.
Supplementary provision
12
- (1) The Secretary of State may by regulations make provision about the procedure to be followed by companies in issuing and withdrawing restrictions notices.
- (2) The regulations may in particular make provision about—
- (a) the form and content of warning notices and restrictions notices, and the manner in which they must be given,
- (b) the factors to be taken into account in deciding what counts as a “valid reason” sufficient to justify a person's failure to comply with a notice under section 790D , 790DA, 790E or 790EA, and
- (c) the effect of withdrawing a restrictions notice on matters that are pending with respect to the relevant interest when the notice is withdrawn.
- (3) Regulations under this paragraph are subject to negative resolution procedure.
Offence of failing to comply with notices
13
- (1) A person to whom a notice under section 790D, 790DA, 790E or 790EA is addressed commits an offence if the person fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with the notice.
- (2) Where the person is a legal entity, the offence is also committed by every officer of the entity who is in default.
- (3) A person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—
- (a) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction—
- (i) in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (ii) in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (iii) in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).
Offence of failing to provide information
14
- (1) A person commits an offence if the person fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with a duty under section 790G, 790H or 790HA.
- (2) Where the person is a legal entity, the offence is also committed by every officer of the entity who is in default.
- (3) A person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—
- (a) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction—
- (i) in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (ii) in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (iii) in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).
False statements: basic offence
14A
- (1) A person commits an offence if, in purported compliance with a notice under section 790D, 790DA, 790E or 790EA or in purported compliance with a duty imposed by section 790G, 790H or 790HA, and without reasonable excuse, the person makes a statement that is misleading, false or deceptive in a material particular.
- (2) Where the person is a legal entity, the offence is also committed by every officer of the entity who is in default.
- (3) A person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction—
- (a) in England and Wales, to a fine;
- (b) in Scotland, to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale;
- (c) in Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
False statements: aggravated offence
14B
- (1) A person commits an offence if, in purported compliance with a notice under section 790D, 790DA, 790E or 790EA or in purported compliance with a duty imposed by section 790G, 790H or 790HA, the person makes a statement that the person knows is misleading, false or deceptive in a material particular.
- (2) Where the person is a legal entity, the offence is also committed by every officer of the entity who is in default.
- (3) A person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—
- (a) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction—
- (i) in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or to a fine (or both);
- (ii) in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding twelve months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (iii) in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).
SCHEDULE 1C — Rules of the Takeover Panel: general principles and other provision
PART 1 — General principles
1
- (1) All holders of the securities of an offeree company of the same class must be afforded equivalent treatment.
- (2) If a person acquires control of a company, the other holders of securities must be protected.
2
- (1) The holders of the securities of an offeree company must have sufficient time and information to enable them to reach a properly informed decision on the takeover bid.
- (2) Where it advises the holders of securities, the board of directors of the offeree company must give its views on the effects of implementation of the takeover bid on—
- (a) employment,
- (b) conditions of employment, and
- (c) the locations of the company’s places of business.
3
The board of directors of an offeree company must act in the interests of the company as a whole and must not deny the holders of securities the opportunity to decide on the merits of the takeover bid.
4
False markets must not be created in the securities of—
- (a) the offeree company,
- (b) if the offeror is a company, that company, or
- (c) any other company concerned by the takeover bid,
5
An offeror must announce a takeover bid only after—
- (a) ensuring that the offeror can fulfil in full any cash consideration, if such is offered, and
- (b) taking all reasonable measures to secure the implementation of any other type of consideration.
6
An offeree company must not be hindered in the conduct of its affairs for longer than is reasonable by a takeover bid for its securities.
PART2 — Other provision
7
- (1) Rules must ensure that a person (“P”) is required to make a takeover bid (“a mandatory takeover bid”) where—
- (a) P, or any person acting in concert with P, has acquired securities in a company, and
- (b) the acquired securities, when added to any existing securities held by P or by persons acting in concert with P, directly or indirectly give P control of that company.
- (2) Rules must ensure that the mandatory takeover bid must be addressed at the earliest opportunity to all of the holders of those securities for all their holdings at the equitable price.
- (3) Rules must ensure that where control has been acquired following a voluntary takeover bid to all the holders of securities for all their holdings, the obligation referred to in sub-paragraph (1) to make a mandatory takeover bid no longer applies.
8
- (1) For the purposes of paragraph 7, “the equitable price” is the highest price paid for the same securities by the offeror, or by persons acting in concert with the offeror, over a period, determined by rules, of not less than 6 and not more than 12 months before the mandatory takeover bid is announced.
- (2) Rules must ensure that if, after the mandatory takeover bid has been made public and before the offer closes for acceptance, the offeror or any person acting in concert with the offeror purchases securities at a price higher than the offer price, the offeror must increase the offer consideration so that it is not less than the highest price paid for the securities so acquired.
- (3) Rules may confer power on the Panel to adjust the equitable price in circumstances and in accordance with criteria that are clearly determined.
- (4) Rules must ensure that any decision by the Panel to adjust the equitable price must be substantiated and made public.
9
- (1) Rules must ensure that the offeror may offer by way of consideration for the securities which are the subject of the mandatory takeover bid—
- (a) securities,
- (b) cash, or
- (c) a combination of both.
- (2) Rules must ensure that cash must be offered—
- (a) as an alternative where the consideration offered does not consist of liquid securities admitted to trading on a UK regulated market, and
- (b) at least as an alternative where the securities purchased for cash over a relevant period by the offeror or by persons acting in concert with the offeror, taken together, carry 5% or more of the voting rights in the offeree company.
- (3) “A relevant period” is a period—
- (a) beginning at the same time as the period determined in accordance with paragraph 8(1), and
- (b) ending when the offer closes for acceptance.
- (4) Rules may require that cash must be offered, at least as an alternative, in all cases.
10
Any rules that make provision to protect the interests of the holders of securities that goes beyond the provision referred to in paragraphs 7 to 9 must not hinder the normal course of a takeover bid.
11
- (1) Rules must ensure that a decision to make a takeover bid must be made public without delay and the Panel must be informed of the bid.
- (2) Rules may require that the Panel is informed before such a decision is made public.
- (3) Rules must ensure that, as soon as the takeover bid has been made public, the boards of directors of the offeree company and of the offeror must inform—
- (a) the representatives of their respective employees, or
- (b) where there are no such representatives, the employees themselves.
12
- (1) Rules must ensure that an offeror must draw up and make public in good time an offer document containing the information necessary to enable the holders of the offeree company’s securities to reach a properly informed decision on the takeover bid.
- (2) Rules must ensure that, before the offer document is made public, the offeror must provide a copy to the Panel.
- (3) Rules must ensure that, when the offer document is made public, the boards of directors of the offeree company and of the offeror must communicate it—
- (a) to the representatives of their respective employees, or
- (b) where there are no such representatives, to the employees themselves.
- (4) Rules must ensure that the offer document must state at least—
- (a) the terms of the takeover bid,
- (b) the identity of the offeror and, where the offeror is a company, the company’s type, name and registered office,
- (c) the securities or, where appropriate, the class or classes of securities for which the takeover bid is made,
- (d) the consideration offered for each security or class of securities and, in the case of a mandatory takeover bid, the method employed in determining it, with particulars of the way in which that consideration is to be paid,
- (e) the compensation offered for the rights which might be removed as a result of a company’s opting-in resolution under Chapter 2, with particulars of the way in which that compensation is to be paid and the method employed in determining it,
- (f) the maximum and minimum percentages or quantities of securities which the offeror undertakes to acquire,
- (g) details of any existing holdings of the offeror, and of any person acting in concert with the offeror, in the offeree company,
- (h) all the conditions to which the takeover bid is subject,
- (i) the offeror’s intentions with regard to the future business of the offeree company,
- (j) the offeror’s intentions with regard to the safeguarding of the jobs of the employees and management of the offeree company, including any material change in the conditions of employment,
- (k) the offeror’s strategic plans for the offeree company, and their likely repercussions on employment and the locations of the company’s places of business,
- (l) if the offeror is a company and in so far as it is affected by the takeover bid—
- (i) the offeror’s intentions with regard to its future business,
- (ii) the offeror’s intentions with regard to the safeguarding of the jobs of its employees and management, including any material change in the conditions of employment, and
- (iii) the offeror’s strategic plans for itself, and their likely repercussions on employment and the locations of its places of business,
- (m) the time allowed for acceptance of the takeover bid,
- (n) where the consideration offered includes securities of any kind, information concerning those securities,
- (o) information concerning the financing for the takeover bid,
- (p) the identity of persons acting in concert with the offeror or with the offeree company and, in the case of companies, the types, names, registered offices and relationships with the offeror and, where possible, with the offeree company, and
- (q) the national law which will govern contracts concluded between the offeror and the holders of the offeree company’s securities as a result of the takeover bid and the competent courts.
13
- (1) Rules must ensure that, subject to any provision made in accordance with paragraph 14, the time allowed for the acceptance of a takeover bid must not be less than the period of two weeks nor more than the period of 10 weeks beginning with the day after the date of publication of the offer document.
- (2) Rules may provide that the maximum period allowed for acceptance of a takeover bid may be extended on the condition that the offeror gives at least two weeks’ notice of the offeror’s intention to close the takeover bid.
14
- (1) Rules may contain provision changing the time allowed for the acceptance of a takeover bid in specific cases.
- (2) Rules may confer power on the Panel to grant a derogation from the time allowed for the acceptance of a takeover bid in order to allow the offeree company to call a general meeting of the company to consider the takeover bid.
15
Rules must ensure that a takeover bid must be made public in such a way as to ensure market transparency and integrity for the securities of—
- (a) the offeree company,
- (b) if the offeror is a company, that company, or
- (c) any other company affected by the takeover bid,
16
Rules must ensure that all information and documents required by provision made in accordance with paragraphs 11 and 12 must be disclosed in such a manner as to ensure that they are both readily and promptly available—
- (a) to the holders of securities admitted to trading on a UK regulated market who are located in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) to the representatives of the employees of the offeree company and of the offeror, or where there are no such representatives, to the employees themselves.
17
- (1) Rules must ensure that, during the relevant period, the board of directors of the offeree company must obtain the prior authorisation of a general meeting of the company given for this purpose—
- (a) before taking any action, other than seeking alternative takeover bids, which may result in the frustration of the bid, and
- (b) in particular, before issuing any shares which may result in a lasting impediment to the offeror’s acquiring control of the offeree company.
- (2) “The relevant period”—
- (a) begins when the board of directors of the offeree company receives the information that a decision to make a takeover bid has been made public, or at such earlier stage as rules may determine, and
- (b) ends when the result of the bid is made public or the bid lapses.
- (3) Rules must ensure that, with regard to decisions taken before the beginning of the relevant period and not yet partly or fully implemented, a general meeting of the company must approve or confirm any decision—
- (a) which does not form part of the normal course of the company’s business, and
- (b) the implementation of which may result in the frustration of the takeover bid.
- (4) For the purposes of this paragraph, where a company has a two-tier board structure, “board of directors” means both the management board and the supervisory board.
18
- (1) Rules must ensure that the board of directors of the offeree company must draw up and make public a document setting out its opinion of the takeover bid and the reasons for the opinion, including its views on—
- (a) the effects of implementation of the takeover bid on all the company’s interests and specifically employment, and
- (b) the offeror’s strategic plans for the offeree company and their likely repercussions on employment and the locations of the company’s places of business as set out in the offer document in accordance with paragraph 12(4)(k).
- (2) Rules must ensure that the board of directors of the offeree company must at the same time communicate that opinion—
- (a) to the representatives of its employees, or
- (b) where there are no such representatives, to the employees themselves.
- (3) Rules must ensure that, where the board of directors of the offeree company receives in good time a separate opinion from the representatives of its employees on the effects of the takeover bid on employment, that opinion must be appended to the document.
19
Rules must make provision governing the conduct of takeover bids which must address at least—
- (a) the lapsing of takeover bids,
- (b) the revision of takeover bids,
- (c) competing takeover bids,
- (d) the disclosure of the results of takeover bids, and
- (e) the irrevocability of takeover bids and the conditions permitted.
20
- (1) In this Schedule—
- “offer document” means a document required to be published by rules made in accordance with paragraph 12;
- “offeree company” means a company, the securities of which are the subject of a takeover bid;
- “offeror”, in relation to a takeover bid, means the person making the bid;
- “rules” means rules made by the Panel under section 943(1);
- “securities” means transferable securities carrying voting rights in a company;
- “takeover bid” means a public offer made to the holders of the securities of a company to acquire some or all of those securities, whether mandatory or voluntary, which follows or has as its objective the acquisition of control of that company, but does not include cases where the offer is made by the company itself;
- “voting rights” means rights to vote at general meetings of the company in question.
- (2) For the purposes of this Schedule, securities are of one class if the rights attached to them are in all respects uniform; and for that purpose the rights attached to securities are not regarded as different from those attached to other securities by reason only that they do not carry the same rights to dividends in the twelve months immediately following their allotment.
- (3) In this Schedule, “persons acting in concert” means persons who co-operate with the offeror or the offeree company on the basis of an agreement or understanding aimed at—
- (a) acquiring control of the offeree company, or
- (b) frustrating the successful outcome of a takeover bid.
- (4) For the purposes of this Schedule, where a person (“A”) is a subsidiary undertaking of another person (“B”) within the meaning of section 420 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (but disregarding subsections (2)(b) and (3) of that section, and subsections (2)(c) and (4)(b) of section 1162 of the Companies Act 2006)—
- (a) A is deemed to be acting in concert with B and with any other subsidiary undertakings of B, and
- (b) B and those subsidiary undertakings are deemed to be acting in concert with A.
21
- (1) In this Schedule, other than in the listed provisions, “company” means a company that has securities admitted to trading on a UK regulated market.
- (2) The listed provisions are—
- paragraph 4(b) and (c);
- paragraph 12(4)(b), (l) and (p);
- paragraph 15(b) and (c).
- (3) Section 1 (meaning of “company”) does not apply for the purposes of the listed provisions.
SCHEDULE 2 — Specified persons, descriptions of disclosures etc for the purposes of section 948
PART 1 — SPECIFIED PERSONS
(A) UNITED KINGDOM
1
The Secretary of State.
2
The Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment for Northern Ireland.
3
The Treasury.
4
The Bank of England.
5
The Financial Conduct Authority.
6
The Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs.
7
The Lord Advocate.
8
The Director of Public Prosecutions.
9
The Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
10
A constable.
11
A procurator fiscal.
12
The Scottish Ministers.
(B) JERSEY
1
The Minister for Economic Development.
2
The Minister for Treasury and Resources.
3
The Jersey Financial Services Commission.
4
The Comptroller of Income Tax.
5
The Agent of the Impôts.
6
Her Majesty's Attorney General for Jersey.
7
The Viscount.
8
A police officer (within the meaning of the Interpretation (Jersey) Law 1954: see Part 1 of the Schedule to that Law).
(C) GUERNSEY
1
The Commerce and Employment Department.
2
The Treasury and Resources Department.
3
The Guernsey Financial Services Commission.
4
The Director of Income Tax.
5
The Chief Officer of Customs and Excise.
6
Her Majesty's Procureur.
7
A police officer (within the meaning of the Companies (Guernsey) Law 2008: see section 532 of that Law).
(D) ISLE OF MAN
1
- (1) The members and officers of each of the Departments constituted by section 1(1) of the Government Departments Act 1987 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 13).
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ member ” has the same meaning as it has by virtue of section 7(1) of that Act.
2
The Treasury of the Isle of Man.
3
The Financial Supervision Commission of the Isle of Man.
4
Her Majesty's Attorney General of the Isle of Man.
5
A constable (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1976 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 11): see section 3 of that Act).
PART 2 — SPECIFIED DESCRIPTIONS OF DISCLOSURES
(A) UNITED KINGDOM
1
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person authorised under section 457 of this Act (revision of defective accounts: persons authorised to apply to court) to exercise their functions.
2
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an inspector appointed under Part 14 of the Companies Act 1985 (c. 6) (investigation of companies and their affairs, etc ) to exercise their functions.
3
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person authorised under section 447 of the Companies Act 1985 (power to require production of documents) or section 84 of the Companies Act 1989 (c. 40) (exercise of powers by officer etc ) to exercise their functions.
4
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 167 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) (general investigations) to conduct an investigation to exercise their functions.
5
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 168 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigations in particular cases) to conduct an investigation to exercise their functions.
6
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 169(1)(b) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigation in support of overseas regulator) to conduct an investigation to exercise their functions.
7
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the body corporate responsible for administering the scheme referred to in section 225 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the ombudsman scheme) to exercise its functions.
8
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under paragraph 4 or 5 of Schedule 17 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the panel of ombudsmen or the Chief Ombudsman) to exercise their functions.
9
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under regulations made under section 262(1) and (2)(k) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigations into open-ended investment companies) to conduct an investigation to exercise their functions.
10
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 284 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigations into affairs of certain collective investment schemes) to conduct an investigation to exercise their functions.
11
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the investigator appointed under section 84 of the Financial Services Act 2012 (arrangements for investigation of complaints) to exercise their functions.
12
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed by the Treasury to hold an inquiry into matters relating to financial services (including an inquiry under section 69 of the Financial Services Act 2012) to exercise their functions.
13
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Secretary of State or the Treasury to exercise any of their functions under any of the following—
- (a) the Companies Acts;
- (b) the Insolvency Act 1986 (c. 45);
- (c) the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 (c. 46);
- (d) Part 3 (investigations and powers to obtain information) or 7 (financial markets and insolvency) of the Companies Act 1989 (c. 40);
- (e) Part 5 of the Criminal Justice Act 1993 (c. 36) (insider dealing);
- (f) the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000;
- (g) Part 42 of this Act (statutory auditors).
14
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Scottish Ministers to exercise their functions under the enactments relating to insolvency.
15
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment for Northern Ireland to exercise any powers conferred on it by the enactments relating to companies or insolvency.
16
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed or authorised by the Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment for Northern Ireland under the enactments relating to companies or insolvency to exercise their functions.
17
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an official receiver (including the Accountant in Bankruptcy in Scotland and the Official Assignee in Northern Ireland) to exercise their functions under the enactments relating to insolvency.
18
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
19
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body that is for the time being a recognised professional body for the purposes of section 391 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (recognised professional bodies) to exercise its functions as such.
20
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Pensions Regulator to exercise the functions conferred on it by or by virtue of any of the following—
- (a) the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (c. 48);
- (b) the Pensions Act 1995 (c. 26);
- (c) the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (c. 30);
- (d) the Pensions Act 2004 (c. 35);
- (e) any enactment in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to any of those enactments.
21
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Board of the Pension Protection Fund to exercise the functions conferred on it by or by virtue of Part 2 of the Pensions Act 2004 or any enactment in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to that Part.
22
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Bank of England to exercise its functions.
23
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs to exercise their functions.
24
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting organs of the Society of Lloyd's (being organs constituted by or under the Lloyd's Act 1982 (c. xiv)) to exercise their functions under or by virtue of the Lloyd's Acts 1871 to 1982.
25
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Competition and Markets Authority to exercise its functions under any of the following—
- (a) the Fair Trading Act 1973 (c. 41);
- (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (d) the Competition Act 1980 (c. 21);
- (e) the Competition Act 1998 (c. 41);
- (f) the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8);
- (g) the Enterprise Act 2002 (c. 40);
- (h) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (i) the Business Protection from Misleading Marketing Regulations 2008 (S.I. 2008/1276);
- (j) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (k) Parts 3 and 4 of the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013;
- (l) Schedule 3 to the Consumer Rights Act 2015
- (m) the following provisions of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024—
- (i) Part 3;
- (ii) Chapter 1 of Part 4;
- (iii) Chapter 2 of Part 5.
26
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
27
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings before the Competition Appeal Tribunal.
28
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an enforcer under Chapter 3 or 4 of Part 3 of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024 (enforcement of consumer legislation) to exercise their functions under that Chapter.
29
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Charity Commission to exercise its functions.
30
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Attorney General to exercise their functions in connection with charities.
31
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Gambling Commission to exercise its functions under sections 5 to 10 and 15 of the National Lottery etc. Act 1993 (c. 39) (licensing and power of Secretary of State to require information).
32
A disclosure by the Gambling Commission to the Comptroller and Auditor General for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Comptroller and Auditor General to carry out an examination under Part 2 of the National Audit Act 1983 (c. 44) into the economy, effectiveness and efficiency with which the Gambling Commission has used its resources in discharging its functions under sections 5 to 10 of the National Lottery etc. Act 1993.
33
A disclosure for the purposes of enabling or assisting a regulator under Schedule 3 to the Consumer Rights Act 2015 other than the Competition and Markets Authority to exercise its functions under that Schedule.
34
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an enforcement authority under the Consumer Contracts (Information, Cancellation and Additional Charges) Regulations 2013 to exercise its functions under those Regulations.
35
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an enforcement authority under the Financial Services (Distance Marketing) Regulations 2004 ( S.I. 2004/2095) to exercise its functions under those Regulations.
36
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a local weights and measures authority in England and Wales to exercise its functions under section 171(2) of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024.
36A
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the lead enforcement authority (as defined in section 33(1) of the Estate Agents Act 1979) to exercise its functions under the Estate Agents Act 1979.
37
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Financial Conduct Authority or the Prudential Regulation Authority to exercise its functions under any of the following—
- (a) the legislation relating to friendly societies ...;
- (aa) the Consumer Credit Act 1974;
- (ab) the Credit Unions Act 1979;
- (b) the Building Societies Act 1986 (c. 53);
- (c) Part 7 of the Companies Act 1989 (c. 40) (financial markets and insolvency);
- (d) the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8).
- (e) the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014.
38
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
39
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body corporate established in accordance with section 212(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (compensation scheme manager) to exercise its functions.
40
- (1) A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a recognised investment exchange , a recognised clearing house or a recognised CSD to exercise its functions as such.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ recognised investment exchange ” , “recognised clearing house” and “recognised CSD” ” have the same meaning as in section 285 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
41
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person who is an operator of a relevant system for the purposes of the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3755) to exercise their functions.
42
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body designated under section 326(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (designated professional bodies) to exercise its functions in its capacity as a body designated under that section.
43
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, civil proceedings arising under or by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
44
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body designated by order under section 1252 of this Act (delegation of functions of Secretary of State) to exercise its functions under Part 42 of this Act (statutory auditors).
45
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a recognised supervisory or qualifying body, within the meaning of Part 42 of this Act, to exercise its functions as such.
46
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Regulator of Community Interest Companies to exercise functions under the Companies (Audit, Investigations and Community Enterprise) Act 2004 (c. 27).
47
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person authorised by the Secretary of State under Part 2, 3 or 4 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29) to exercise their functions.
48
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings on an application under section 6, 7 or 8 of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 (c. 46) (disqualification for unfitness).
49
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings before the Upper Tribunal in respect of—
- (a) a decision of the Financial Services Authority;
- (aa) a decision of the Prudential Regulation Authority;
- (b) a decision of the Bank of England; or
- (c) a decision of a person relating to the assessment of any compensation or consideration under the Banking (Special Provisions) Act 2008 , the Banking Act 2009 or the Financial Services and Markets Act 2023.
50
A disclosure for the purposes of proceedings before a tribunal in relation to a decision of the Pensions Regulator
51
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body appointed under section 14 of the Companies (Audit, Investigations and Community Enterprise) Act 2004 (supervision of periodic accounts and reports of issuers of listed securities) to exercise functions mentioned in subsection (2) of that section.
52
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a lawyer, auditor, accountant, valuer or actuary of their professional duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ lawyer ” means—
- (a) a person who for the purposes of the Legal Services Act 2007 (c. 29) is an authorised person in relation to an activity that constitutes a reserved legal activity (within the meaning of that Act),
- (b) a solicitor or barrister in Northern Ireland,
- (c) a solicitor or advocate in Scotland, or
- (d) a person who is a member, and entitled to practise as such, of a legal profession regulated in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom.
- (3) Until the coming into force of section 18 of the Legal Services Act 2007, the following is substituted for paragraph (a) of sub-paragraph (2) above—
- (a) a solicitor or barrister in England and Wales,
.
53
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a public servant of their duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ public servant ” means—
- (a) an officer or employee of the Crown, or
- (b) an officer or employee of any public or other authority for the time being designated for the purposes of this paragraph by the Secretary of State by order subject to negative resolution procedure.
(B) JERSEY
1
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an inspector appointed under Part 19 of the Companies (Jersey) Law 1991 to exercise their functions.
2
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under Article 33 of the Financial Services (Jersey) Law 1998 to exercise their functions.
3
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an inspector appointed under Article 22 of the Collective Investment Funds (Jersey) Law 1988 to exercise their functions.
4
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Minister for Economic Development to exercise functions under any of the following—
- (a) the Bankruptcy Désastre (Jersey) Law 1990;
- (b) the Companies (Jersey) Law 1991;
- (c) the Financial Services (Jersey) Law 1998.
5
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Comptroller of Income Tax to exercise their functions.
6
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Agent of the Impôts to exercise their functions.
7
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Jersey Competition Regulatory Authority to exercise its functions.
8
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting Her Majesty's Attorney General for Jersey to exercise their functions in connection with charities.
9
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting Her Majesty's Attorney General for Jersey to exercise their functions under the Distance Selling (Jersey) Law 2007.
10
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Viscount to exercise their functions in relation to désastre or in relation to Part 2 of the Proceeds of Crime (Jersey) Law 1999.
11
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings on an application under Article 78 of the Companies (Jersey) Law 1991 (disqualification orders).
12
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a solicitor, advocate, foreign lawyer, auditor, accountant, valuer or actuary of their professional duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1)—
- (a) “ solicitor ” means a person who has been admitted as a solicitor under the Advocates and Solicitors (Jersey) Law 1997;
- (b) “ advocate ” means a person who has been admitted to the Bar under that Law; and
- (c) “ foreign lawyer ” means a person who has not been admitted as mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) but is a member, and entitled to practise as such, of a legal profession regulated within a jurisdiction outside Jersey.
13
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a public servant of their duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ public servant ” means—
- (a) an individual who holds office under, or is employed by, the Crown,
- (b) a member, officer or employee of the States of Jersey or an officer or employee in an administration of the States of Jersey,
- (c) a member, officer or employee of the Jersey Financial Services Commission, or
- (d) any person exercising public functions who is declared by Order of the Minister for Economic Development to be a public servant for the purposes of paragraph 25 of the Schedule to the Companies (Takeovers and Mergers Panel) (Jersey) Law 2009.
(C) GUERNSEY
1
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Registrar of Companies appointed under the Companies (Guernsey) Law 2008 to exercise their functions under that Law.
2
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under—
- (a) section 27E or 41I of the Protection of Investors (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 1987,
- (b) section 27 of the Banking Supervision (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 1994,
- (c) section 10 of the Company Securities (Insider Dealing) (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 1996,
- (d) section 24 of the Regulation of Fiduciaries, Administration Businesses and Company Directors (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 2000,
- (e) section 69 of the Insurance Business (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 2002,
- (f) section 46 of the Insurance Managers and Insurance Intermediaries (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 2002,
- (g) section 19 of the Registration of Non-Regulated Financial Services Business (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 2008,
to exercise their functions.
3
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting Her Majesty's Procureur to exercise their functions in connection with charities.
4
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Guernsey Banking Deposit Compensation Scheme, established under section 46 of the Banking Supervision (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Law 1987 by the Banking Deposit Compensation Scheme (Bailiwick of Guernsey) Ordinance 2008, to exercise its functions.
5
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting any supervisory body or professional oversight body to exercise its functions under Part XVIA of the Companies (Guernsey) Law 2008 (regulation of auditors).
6
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings on an application under Part XXV of the Companies (Guernsey) Law 2008 (disqualification orders).
7
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by an Advocate of the Royal Court, foreign lawyer, auditor, accountant, valuer or actuary of their professional duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ foreign lawyer ” means a person who has not been admitted as an Advocate of the Royal Court, but is a member, and entitled to practise as such, of a legal profession regulated within a jurisdiction outside Guernsey.
8
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a public servant of their duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ public servant ” means—
- (a) an officer or employee of the Crown,
- (b) a member, officer or employee of the States of Guernsey,
- (c) a member, officer or employee of the Guernsey Financial Services Commission, or
- (d) any person exercising public functions who is declared by regulations of the Commerce and Employment Department to be a public servant for the purposes of paragraph 17 of Schedule 6 to the Companies (Guernsey) Law 2008.
(D) ISLE OF MAN
1
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an inspector appointed by the High Court of the Isle of Man under the enactments of the Isle of Man relating to companies to discharge their functions.
2
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person conducting an investigation under—
- (a) section 16 of the Collective Investment Schemes Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 7);
- (b) Schedule 2 to the Financial Services Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 8); or
- (c) Schedule 5 to the Insurance Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 16),
to exercise their functions.
3
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Financial Supervision Commission of the Isle of Man to exercise any of its functions.
4
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an auditor of a permitted person (within the meaning of the Financial Services Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald)) to exercise their functions.
5
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Office of Fair Trading of the Isle of Man to exercise its functions under Schedule 4 to the Financial Services Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald) in relation to a financial services dispute within the meaning of paragraph 1(1) of that Schedule.
6
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an adjudicator appointed under paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the Financial Services Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald) to exercise their functions.
7
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the body administering a scheme under section 25 of the Financial Services Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald) (compensation schemes) to exercise its functions under the scheme.
8
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, civil proceedings arising under or by virtue of the Financial Services Act 2008 (an Act of Tynwald).
9
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting—
- (a) the Insurance and Pensions Authority of the Isle of Man; or
- (b) the Retirement Benefits Schemes Supervisor of the Isle of Man,
to exercise its functions under the Retirement Benefits Schemes Act 2000 (an Act of Tynwald: c 14).
10
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Assessor of Income Tax to exercise their functions under enactments of the Isle of Man relating to income tax.
11
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Office of Fair Trading of the Isle of Man to exercise its functions under any of the following—
- (a) the Unsolicited Goods and Services (Isle of Man) Act 1974 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 5);
- (b) the Moneylenders Act 1991 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 6);
- (c) the Consumer Protection Act 1991 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 11);
- (d) the Fair Trading Act 1996 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 15).
12
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Department of Local Government and the Environment of the Isle of Man to exercise its functions under the Estate Agents Act 1975 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 6) or the Estate Agents Act 1999 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 7).
13
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting Her Majesty's Attorney General of the Isle of Man to exercise their functions in connection with charities.
14
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Treasury of the Isle of Man to exercise its functions under the enactments of the Isle of Man relating to companies, insurance companies or insolvency.
15
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an official receiver appointed in the Isle of Man to exercise their functions under the enactments of the Isle of Man relating to insolvency.
16
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by an advocate, registered legal practitioner, auditor, accountant, valuer or actuary of their professional duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1)—
- “ advocate ” means a person who is qualified to act as an advocate in any court in the Island in accordance with section 7 of the Advocates Act 1976 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 27);
- “ registered legal practitioner ” means a legal practitioner within the meaning of section 10 of the Legal Practitioners Registration Act 1986 (an Act of Tynwald: c. 15) who is registered within the meaning of that Act.
17
- (1) A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a public servant of their duties.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ public servant ” means—
- (a) an officer or employee of the Crown, or
- (b) an officer or employee of any public or other authority for the time being designated for the purposes of this paragraph by order made by the Council of Ministers of the Isle of Man.
(E) GENERAL
1
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting—
- (a) the European Central Bank, or
- (b) the central bank of any country or territory outside the British Islands,
to exercise its functions.
2
- (1) A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an overseas regulatory authority to exercise its regulatory functions.
- (2) In sub-paragraph (1) “ overseas regulatory authority ” and “ regulatory functions ” have the same meaning as in section 82 of the Companies Act 1989 (assistance for overseas regulatory authorities).
3
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, criminal proceedings in the British Islands or elsewhere.
4
A disclosure for the purpose of the provision of a summary or collection of information framed in such a way as not to enable the identity of any person to whom the information relates to be ascertained.
5
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
PART 3 — OVERSEAS REGULATORY BODIES
1
- (1) A disclosure is made in accordance with this Part of this Schedule if—
- (a) it is made to a person or body exercising relevant functions under legislation in a country or territory outside the British Islands, and
- (b) it is made for the purpose of enabling or assisting that person or body to exercise those functions.
- (2) “Relevant functions” for this purpose are functions of a public nature that appear to the Panel to be similar to its own functions or those of the Financial Conduct Authority or the Prudential Regulation Authority or similar to the regulatory functions of the Bank of England.
2
In determining whether to disclose information to a person or body in accordance with this Part of this Schedule, the Panel must have regard to the following considerations—
- (a) whether the use that the person or body is likely to make of the information is sufficiently important to justify making the disclosure;
- (b) whether the person or body has adequate arrangements to prevent the information from being used or further disclosed, otherwise than—
- (i) for the purposes of carrying out the functions mentioned in paragraph 1(1)(a), or
- (ii) for other purposes substantially similar to those for which information disclosed to the Panel could be used or further disclosed.
SCHEDULE 3 — Amendments of remaining provisions of the Companies Act 1985 relating to offences
Failure to give information about interests in shares etc
1
- (1) In subsection (3) of section 444 of the Companies Act 1985 (c. 6) (failure to give information requested by Secretary of State relating to interests in shares etc) for “is liable to imprisonment or a fine, or both” substitute “ commits an offence ”.
- (2) At the end of that section add—
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