Companies Act 2006
- (b) any rule of law relating to the confidentiality of information received in the course of statutory audit work by persons appointed as statutory auditors is complied with; ...
- (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (3A) The rules and practices mentioned in sub-paragraphs (1) and (3) must include provision requiring compliance with standards for the time being determined by the competent authority under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016.
- (4) The rules referred to in sub-paragraphs (1A) and (3)(b) must apply to persons who are no longer members of the body as they apply to members and any fine imposed in the enforcement of those rules shall be recoverable by the body as a debt due to it from the person obliged to pay it.
- (5) An auditor is not to be regarded as an officer of the audited person for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1A) (a) and (b).
Technical standards
10
- (1) The body must have rules and practices as to—
- (a) the technical standards to be applied in statutory audit work, and
- (b) the manner in which those standards are to be applied in practice.
- (2) The rules and practices mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) must include provision requiring compliance with any standards for the time being determined by the competent authority under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016.
Technical standards for group audits
10A
- (1) The body must have rules and practices as to technical standards ensuring that group auditors—
- (a) review for the purposes of a group audit the audit work conducted by other persons, and
- (b) record that review.
- (2) The rules and practices mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) must include provision requiring compliance with any standards for the time being determined by the competent authority under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016.
- (3) The body must have rules and practices ensuring that group auditors retain copies of any documents necessary for the purposes of any review in accordance with those standards.
- (4) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (7) In this paragraph—
- “ group auditor ” means a person appointed as statutory auditor to conduct an audit of group accounts;
- “ group ” has the same meaning as in Part 15 of this Act (see section 474).
Public interest entity reporting requirements
10B
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Public interest entity independence requirements
10C
- (1) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (3) The body must have adequate rules and practices designed to ensure that—
- (a) an individual who has been appointed as statutory auditor of a public interest entity may not be appointed as a director or other officer of the entity or be concerned in the management of the entity during a period of not less than two years to be determined in standards set by the competent authority and commencing on the date on which the individual’s appointment as statutory auditor ended;
- (b) a key audit partner of a firm which has been appointed as statutory auditor of a public interest entity may not be appointed as a director or other officer or be concerned in the management of the entity during a period of not less than two years to be determined in standards set by the competent authority and commencing on the date on which the firm’s appointment as statutory auditor ended.
- (4) The rules referred to in sub-paragraph (3) must apply to persons who are no longer members of the body as they apply to members and any fine imposed in the enforcement of those rules shall be recoverable by the body as a debt due to it from the person obliged to pay it.
- (5) An auditor of a public interest entity is not to be regarded as an officer of the entity for the purposes of sub-paragraph (3)(a) and (b).
- (6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Procedures for maintaining competence
11
The body must have rules and practices designed to ensure that persons eligible for appointment as statutory auditors take part in appropriate programmes of continuing education in order to maintain their theoretical knowledge, professional skills and values at a sufficiently high level.
Monitoring and enforcement
12
- (1) The body must—
- (a) have adequate resources for the effective monitoring and enforcement of compliance with its rules, and
- (b) ensure that those resources may not be influenced improperly by the persons monitored.
- (1A) The body must—
- (a) have adequate arrangements for the effective monitoring and enforcement of compliance with its rules, and
- (b) ensure that those arrangements operate independently of the persons monitored.
- (2) The arrangements for monitoring must make provision for that function to be performed by the competent authority or any body to whom that authority has delegated tasks in accordance with regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016.
- (3) The arrangements for enforcement must—
- (a) make provision for that function to be performed by the competent authority or any body to whom that authority has delegated tasks in accordance with regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016;
- (b) include provision for sanctions which include—
- (i) the withdrawal of eligibility for appointment as a statutory auditor;
- (ii) a notice requiring the person responsible for any breach to cease the conduct amounting to a breach and to abstain from repeating such conduct;
- (iii) a public statement identifying the person responsible for any breach and the nature of the breach (which may take the form of a reprimand or a severe reprimand);
- (iv) a temporary prohibition preventing a person responsible for any breach from carrying out statutory audits or signing audit reports;
- (v) a temporary prohibition of up to three years preventing a person responsible for any breach from exercising specified functions in a firm that is eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor or in a public interest entity;
- (vi) a declaration that the audit report does not satisfy the audit reporting requirements and, where appropriate, a declaration as to the proportion of the audit fee that is not payable as a result;
- (vii) an appropriate financial penalty;
- (viii) a requirement to take action to mitigate the effect or prevent the recurrence of the contravention;
- (ix) exclusion from membership of the body; and
- (c) include provision for the body to make available to the public information relating to the steps it has taken to ensure the effective enforcement of its rules.
- (4) The sanctions referred to in sub-paragraph (3)(b)(v) must apply to persons who are no longer members of the body as they apply to members.
- (5) The information to be made available to the public under sub-paragraph (3)(c) must include the following information (which the body must continue to make available in accordance with sub-paragraph (7)) in relation to sanctions the body imposes—
- (a) information concerning the type of contravention and its nature;
- (b) the identity of the person sanctioned, unless any of the circumstances mentioned in sub-paragraph (6) applies; and
- (c) where a sanction is subject to appeal, information concerning the status and outcome of any appeal.
- (6) The circumstances in which the identity of the person sanctioned must not be made available to the public are—
- (a) where that person is an individual and the body considers the publication of personal data would be disproportionate;
- (b) where publication would jeopardise the stability of financial markets;
- (c) where publication would jeopardise an ongoing criminal investigation; and
- (d) where publication would cause disproportionate damage to any institution or individual involved.
- (7) Information in relation to sanctions mentioned in sub-paragraph (3) must continue to be made available for a proportionate period and must be published on the body’s website for at least five years after the relevant date.
- (8) In sub-paragraph (7), “the relevant date” means—
- (a) where the body imposes a sanction and that decision is appealed, the date on which the appeal is determined;
- (b) where the body imposes a sanction and that decision is not appealed, the date by which any appeal was required to be lodged.
Monitoring of audits
13
- (1) The body must—
- (a) have adequate arrangements for enabling the performance by its members of statutory audit functions to be monitored by means of inspections, where functions relating to the monitoring of the audits are the subject of a delegation of tasks to the body under regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016;
- (b) in the case of members of the body who perform any statutory audit functions in respect of audits where functions relating to the monitoring of the audits are not the subject of such a delegation—
- (i) have arrangements for the monitoring of those audits by the competent authority in accordance with those Regulations and, in respect of public interest entities, Article 26 of the EU Audit Regulation ; and
- (ii) have rules and practices designed to ensure that a sanction imposed by the competent authority in accordance with those Regulations is to be treated as if it were a sanction which the body had determined under arrangements for enforcement within paragraph 12;
- (c) in the case of members of the body who perform any third country audit functions—
- (i) have arrangements for the monitoring of those audits by the competent authority in accordance with the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016; and
- (ii) have rules and practices designed to ensure that a sanction imposed by the competent authority in accordance with those Regulations is to be treated as if it were a sanction which the body had determined under arrangements for enforcement within paragraph 12; and
- (d) have rules designed to ensure that members of the body take such steps as may reasonably be required of them to enable their performance of any statutory audit functions or third country audit functions to be monitored by means of inspections.
- (2) Any monitoring of members of the body under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016 or Article 26 of the EU Audit Regulation is to be regarded (so far as their performance of statutory audit functions, or of third country audit functions, is concerned) as monitoring of compliance with the body’s rules for the purposes of paragraph 12(1) and (1A).
- (3) The arrangements referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(a) must—
- (a) make provision for inspections to be conducted by the competent authority or any recognised supervisory body to whom that authority has delegated tasks in accordance with regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016; and
- (b) include an inspection which is conducted in relation to each person eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor—
- (i) at such frequency as the body considers appropriate given the risks arising from the statutory audit work undertaken by the person eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor; and
- (ii) at least once every six years in the case of a person who, during any of the previous five years, has carried out a statutory audit of an entity not subject to the small companies regime (see section 381).
- (4) The arrangements must provide that the determination by the body of the frequency of inspections under sub-paragraph (3)(b)(i) is subject to any direction by the competent authority.
- (5) The inspection must be conducted by persons who—
- (a) have an appropriate professional education;
- (b) have experience of—
- (i) statutory audit work, ...
- (ii) equivalent work, for the purposes of an appointment of a person to conduct inspections made prior to IP completion day, on the audit of accounts under the law of an EEA State, or part of an EEA State, or
- (iii) equivalent work, for the purpose of an appointment of a person to conduct inspections, on the audit of accounts under the law of—
- (aa) an equivalent third country or part of an equivalent third country, or
- (bb) a transitional third country or part of a transitional third country;
- (c) have received adequate training in the conduct of inspections;
- (d) have declared that they do not have any interests likely to conflict with the proper conduct of the inspection;
- (e) have not been an employee or partner or member of the management body of the person subject to inspection and have not been otherwise associated with that person for at least three years before the inspection.
- (6) The inspection must review one or more statutory audits in which the person to whom the inspection relates has participated.
- (7) The inspection must include an assessment of—
- (a) the person’s compliance with the standards set by the competent authority under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016;
- (b) the resources allocated by the person to statutory audit work;
- (c) in the case of an inspection in relation to a firm, its internal quality control system;
- (d) the remuneration received by the person in respect of statutory audit work.
- (8) The inspection must be appropriate and proportionate in view of the scale and complexity of the statutory audit work of the person subject to inspection.
- (9) Where undertaking inspections of statutory audits of undertakings that qualify as small (see sections 382 and 383) or medium sized (see sections 465 and 466) the body must take account of the fact that the standards determined by the competent authority under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016 are designed to be applied in a manner that is proportionate to the scale and complexity of the business of the audited person.
- (10) An inspection conducted in relation to a firm may be treated as an inspection of all individuals responsible for statutory audit work on behalf of that firm, if the firm has a common quality assurance policy with which each such individual is required to comply.
- (11) The main conclusions of the inspection must be recorded in a report which is made available to—
- (a) the person to whom the inspection relates, and
- (b) the body.
- (12) The body must, at least once in every calendar year, deliver to the Secretary of State a summary of the results of inspections conducted under this paragraph.
Membership, eligibility and enforcement
14
The rules and practices of the body relating to—
- (a) the admission and expulsion of members,
- (b) the grant and withdrawal of eligibility for appointment as a statutory auditor by the body, where this task has been delegated to the body by the competent authority under regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016, and
- (c) the enforcement action the body takes in respect of its members, where tasks related to the competent authority’s responsibility for imposing and enforcing sanctions have been delegated to the body under that regulation,
must be fair and reasonable and include adequate provision for appeals.
Investigation of complaints
15
- (1) The body must have effective arrangements for the investigation of complaints against—
- (a) persons who are eligible under its rules for appointment as a statutory auditor, and
- (b) the body in respect of matters arising out of its functions as a supervisory body.
- (2) The arrangements mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) must make provision for the whole or part of the function of investigating those complaints to be performed by the competent authority under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016.
Independent investigation for enforcement purposes
16
- (1) The body must have rules and practices designed to ensure that, where the competent authority has decided that any particular enforcement action should be taken against a member of the body following the conclusion of an investigation under the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016, that decision is to be treated as if it were a decision made by the body in enforcement proceedings against the member.
- (2) The body must have adequate arrangements as part of its rules and practices—
- (a) to facilitate the conduct of investigations into non-delegated cases by the competent authority in connection with the performance of statutory audit functions or third country audit functions by members of the body;
- (b) for the holding by the competent authority of hearings relating to members of the body in accordance with the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016, where necessary following those investigations; and
- (c) for making decisions by the competent authority following those investigations as to whether (and, if so, what) enforcement action should be taken against members of the body.
- (3) “Non-delegated cases” means matters relating to tasks which have not been delegated to the body by the competent authority under regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016.
Transfer of papers to third countries
16A
- (1) The body must have adequate rules and practices designed to ensure that a person eligible under its rules for appointment as a statutory auditor transfers audit working papers and investigation reports to a third country competent authority only in accordance with the requirements of—
- (a) paragraph 16AA (transfer to approved third country competent authority), or
- (b) paragraph 16AB (transfer for purposes of investigation).
- (2) The body must also have adequate rules and practices designed to ensure that a person eligible under its rules for appointment as a statutory auditor must refuse to transfer audit working papers and investigation reports to a third country competent authority if the Secretary of State directs under section 1253E(6) that such a transfer should not take place.
Transfer to approved third country competent authority
16AA
The requirements of this paragraph are that—
- (a) the transfer is to an approved third country competent authority, and
- (b) ... the Secretary of State has approved the transfer.
Transfer for purposes of investigation of auditor
16AB
- (1) The requirements of this paragraph are that—
- (a) the transfer to the third country competent authority is made for the purposes of an investigation of an auditor or audit firm, and
- (b) the following conditions are met.
- (2) The first condition is that the authority has requested the audit working papers and investigation reports for the purposes of an investigation which has been initiated by itself or another third country competent authority established in the same third country.
- (3) The second condition is that the audit working papers and investigation reports relate to audits of companies that—
- (a) have issued securities in that third country, or
- (b) form part of a group issuing statutory consolidated accounts in that third country.
- (4) The third condition is that, where the authority has made the request for the audit working papers and investigation reports directly to the statutory auditor, the authority has given the Secretary of State advance notice of the request, indicating the reasons for it.
- (5) The fourth condition is that the authority has entered into arrangements with the Secretary of State in accordance with section 1253E.
Meeting of claims arising out of audit work
17
- (1) The body must have adequate rules or arrangements designed to ensure that persons eligible under its rules for appointment as a statutory auditor take such steps as may reasonably be expected of them to secure that they are able to meet claims against them arising out of statutory audit work.
- (2) This may be achieved by professional indemnity insurance or other appropriate arrangements.
Register of auditors and other information to be made available
18
The body must have rules requiring persons eligible under its rules for appointment as a statutory auditor to comply with any obligations imposed on them by—
- (a) requirements under section 1224 (Secretary of State's power to call for information);
- (b) regulations under section 1239 (the register of auditors);
- (c) regulations under section 1240 (information to be made available to the public).
Taking account of costs of compliance
19
The body must have satisfactory arrangements for taking account, in framing its rules, of the cost to those to whom the rules would apply of complying with those rules and any other controls to which they are subject.
Promotion and maintenance of standards
20
The body must be able and willing—
- (a) to promote and maintain high standards of integrity in the conduct of statutory audit work, and
- (b) to co-operate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the Secretary of State and any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the qualification, supervision or regulation of auditors.
Supplementary: funding of arrangements
20ZA
- (1) This paragraph applies where, under regulation 3 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016, the competent authority has delegated the task of approving persons as eligible for appointment as statutory auditors to a body (“B”).
- (2) B must pay the costs incurred by—
- (a) the competent authority in carrying out activities mentioned in paragraphs 9 to 10C, 12, 13 and 16, or
- (b) another recognised supervisory body, in carrying out those activities as a result of the competent authority delegating a task to the other body,
in relation to any statutory auditor bound by B’s rules.
Interpretation
20A
- (1) In this Part of this Schedule—
- “the Audit Directive” means Directive 2006/43/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on statutory audits of annual accounts and consolidated accounts, amending Council Directives 78/660/EEC and 83/349/EEC and repealing Council Directive 84/253/EEC;
- “audit reporting requirements” has the meaning given by regulation 2 of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016 as amended from time to time;
- “EEA auditor” means an individual or firm approved in accordance with the Audit Directive by an EEA competent authority to carry out audits of annual accounts or consolidated accounts required by European Union law;
- “EEA competent authority” means a competent authority within the meaning of Article 2(10) of the Audit Directive of an EEA State;
- “issuer” has the same meaning as in Part 6 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (see section 102A(6));
- “key audit partner” means—an individual who is eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor and who is designated by an audit firm for a particular audit engagement as being primarily responsible for carrying out the statutory audit on behalf of the audit firm;in the case of a group audit, any of the following—an individual who is eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor and who is designated by an audit firm as being primarily responsible for carrying out the statutory audit of the consolidated accounts of the group on behalf of the audit firm;an individual who is eligible to conduct the audit of the accounts of any material subsidiary undertaking and who is designated as being primarily responsible for that audit; oran individual who is eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor and who signs the audit report.
- “public interest entity” means—an issuer whose transferable securities are admitted to trading on a UK regulated market; a credit institution within the meaning given by Article 4(1)(1) of Regulation (EU) No. 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council, which is a CRR firm within the meaning of Article 4(1)(2A) of that Regulation; a person who would be an insurance undertaking as defined in Article 2(1) of Council Directive 91/674/EEC of 19 December 1991 of the European Parliament and of the Council on the annual accounts and consolidated accounts of insurance undertakings as that Article had effect immediately before IP completion day, were the United Kingdom a member State;
- “specified state” means one of the states specified in Schedule 1 to the Recognition of Professional Qualifications and Implementation of International Recognition Agreements (Amendment) Regulations 2023;
- “specified state auditor” means an individual who is eligible to conduct audits of the accounts of bodies corporate that are incorporated or formed under the law of a specified state in accordance with the law of that state;
- ...
- “statutory audit function” means any function performed as a statutory auditor;
- “third country audit function” means any function related to the audit of a UK-traded third country company or of a body corporate whose transferable securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in an equivalent third country or transitional third country; and
- ...
- (2) For the purposes of this Schedule, Gibraltar is to be treated as if it were an EEA State and subject to the Audit Directive.
Part 3 — Arrangements in which recognised supervisory bodies are required to participate
Arrangements for setting standards relating to professional integrity and independence
21
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for setting technical standards
22
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for setting standards relating to public interest entity reporting requirements
22A
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for setting standards relating to public interest entity independence requirements
22B
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for independent monitoring of audits of listed companies and other major bodies
23
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for independent monitoring of third country audits
23A
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for independent investigation for disciplinary purposes of public interest cases
24
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Supplementary: arrangements to operate independently of body
25
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Supplementary: funding of arrangements
26
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Supplementary: scope of arrangement
27
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
SCHEDULE 11 — Recognised professional qualifications
Part 1 — Grant and revocation of recognition of a professional qualification
Application for recognition of professional qualification
1
- (1) A qualifying body may apply to the Secretary of State for an order declaring a qualification offered by it to be a recognised professional qualification for the purposes of this Part of this Act (“a recognition order”).
- (2) In this Part of this Act “a recognised qualifying body” means a qualifying body offering a recognised professional qualification.
- (3) Any application must be—
- (a) made in such manner as the Secretary of State may direct, and
- (b) accompanied by such information as the Secretary of State may reasonably require for the purpose of determining the application.
- (4) At any time after receiving an application and before determining it the Secretary of State may require the applicant to furnish additional information.
- (5) The directions and requirements given or imposed under sub-paragraphs (3) and (4) may differ as between different applications.
- (6) The Secretary of State may require any information to be furnished under this paragraph to be in such form or verified in such manner as he may specify.
- (7) In the case of examination standards, the verification required may include independent moderation of the examinations over such a period as the Secretary of State considers necessary.
- (8) Every application must be accompanied by—
- (a) a copy of the applicant's rules, and
- (b) a copy of any guidance issued by the applicant in writing.
- (9) The reference in sub-paragraph (8)(b) to guidance issued by the applicant is a reference to any guidance or recommendation—
- (a) issued or made by it to all or any class of persons holding or seeking to hold a qualification, or approved or seeking to be approved by the body for the purposes of giving practical training,
- (b) relevant for the purposes of this Part of this Act, and
- (c) intended to have continuing effect,
including any guidance or recommendation relating to a matter within sub-paragraph (10).
- (10) The matters within this sub-paragraph are—
- (a) admission to or expulsion from a course of study leading to a qualification,
- (b) the award or deprivation of a qualification, and
- (c) the approval of a person for the purposes of giving practical training or the withdrawal of such an approval,
so far as relevant for the purposes of this Part of this Act.
Grant and refusal of recognition
2
- (1) The Secretary of State may, on an application duly made in accordance with paragraph 1 and after being furnished with all such information as he may require under that paragraph, make or refuse to make a recognition order in respect of the qualification in relation to which the application was made.
- (2) The Secretary of State may make a recognition order only if it appears to him, from the information furnished by the applicant and having regard to any other information in his possession, that the requirements of Part 2 of this Schedule are satisfied in relation to the qualification.
- (3) Where the Secretary of State refuses an application for a recognition order he must give the applicant a written notice to that effect specifying which requirements, in his opinion, are not satisfied.
- (4) A recognition order must state the date on which it takes effect.
Revocation of recognition
3
- (1) A recognition order may be revoked by a further order made by the Secretary of State if at any time it appears to him—
- (a) that any requirement of Part 2 of this Schedule is not satisfied in relation to the qualification to which the recognition order relates, or
- (b) that the qualifying body has failed to comply with any obligation imposed on it by or by virtue of this Part of this Act.
- (2) An order revoking a recognition order must state the date on which it takes effect, which must be after the period of three months beginning with the date on which the revocation order is made.
- (3) Before revoking a recognition order the Secretary of State must—
- (a) give written notice of his intention to do so to the qualifying body,
- (b) take such steps as he considers reasonably practicable for bringing the notice to the attention of persons holding the qualification or in the course of studying for it, and
- (c) publish the notice in such manner as he thinks appropriate for bringing it to the attention of any other persons who are in his opinion likely to be affected.
- (4) A notice under sub-paragraph (3) must—
- (a) state the reasons for which the Secretary of State proposes to act, and
- (b) give particulars of the rights conferred by sub-paragraph (5).
- (5) A person within sub-paragraph (6) may, within the period of three months beginning with the date of service or publication or such longer period as the Secretary of State may allow, make written representations to the Secretary of State and, if desired, oral representations to a person appointed for that purpose by the Secretary of State.
- (6) The persons within this sub-paragraph are—
- (a) the qualifying body on which a notice is served under sub-paragraph (3),
- (b) any person holding the qualification or in the course of studying for it, and
- (c) any other person who appears to the Secretary of State to be affected.
- (7) The Secretary of State must have regard to any representations made in accordance with sub-paragraph (5) in determining whether to revoke the recognition order.
- (8) If in any case the Secretary of State considers it essential to do so in the public interest he may revoke a recognition order without regard to the restriction imposed by sub-paragraph (2), even if—
- (a) no notice has been given or published under sub-paragraph (3), or
- (b) the period of time for making representations in pursuance of such a notice has not expired.
- (9) An order revoking a recognition order may contain such transitional provision as the Secretary of State thinks necessary or expedient.
- (10) A recognition order may be revoked at the request or with the consent of the qualifying body and any such revocation is not subject to—
- (a) the restrictions imposed by sub-paragraphs (1) and (2), or
- (b) the requirements of sub-paragraphs (3) to (5) and (7).
- (11) On making an order revoking a recognition order the Secretary of State must—
- (a) give written notice of the making of the order to the qualifying body,
- (b) take such steps as he considers reasonably practicable for bringing the making of the order to the attention of persons holding the qualification or in the course of studying for it, and
- (c) publish a notice of the making of the order in such manner as he thinks appropriate for bringing it to the attention of any other persons who are in his opinion likely to be affected.
Transitional provision
4
A recognition order made and not revoked under—
- (a) paragraph 2(1) of Schedule 12 to the Companies Act 1989 (c. 40), or
- (b) paragraph 2(1) of Schedule 12 to the Companies (Northern Ireland) Order 1990 (S.I. 1990/593 (N.I. 5)),
before the commencement of this Chapter of this Part of this Act is to have effect after the commencement of this Chapter as a recognition order made under paragraph 2(1) of this Schedule.
Orders not statutory instruments
5
Orders under this Part of this Schedule shall not be made by statutory instrument.
Part 2 — Requirements for recognition of a professional qualification
Entry requirements
6
- (1) The qualification must only be open to persons who—
- (a) have attained university entrance level, or
- (b) have a sufficient period of professional experience.
- (2) In relation to a person who has not been admitted to a university or other similar establishment in the United Kingdom, “attaining university entrance level” means—
- (a) being educated to such a standard as would entitle him to be considered for such admission on the basis of—
- (i) academic or professional qualifications obtained in the United Kingdom and recognised by the Secretary of State to be of an appropriate standard, or
- (ii) academic or professional qualifications obtained outside the United Kingdom which the Secretary of State considers to be of an equivalent standard, or
- (b) being assessed, on the basis of written tests of a kind appearing to the Secretary of State to be adequate for the purpose (with or without oral examination), as of such a standard of ability as would entitle him to be considered for such admission.
- (3) The assessment, tests and oral examination referred to in sub-paragraph (2)(b) may be conducted by—
- (a) the qualifying body, or
- (b) some other body approved by the Secretary of State.
- (4) The reference in sub-paragraph (1)(b) to “a sufficient period of professional experience” is to not less than seven years' experience in a professional capacity in the fields of finance, law and accountancy.
Requirement for theoretical instruction or professional experience
7
- (1) The qualification must be restricted to persons who—
- (a) have completed a course of theoretical instruction in the subjects prescribed for the purposes of paragraph 8, or
- (b) have a sufficient period of professional experience.
- (2) The reference in sub-paragraph (1)(b) to “a sufficient period of professional experience” is to not less than seven years' experience in a professional capacity in the fields of finance, law and accountancy.
Examination
8
- (1) The qualification must be restricted to persons who have passed an examination (at least part of which is in writing) testing—
- (a) theoretical knowledge of the subjects prescribed for the purposes of this paragraph by regulations made by the Secretary of State, and
- (b) ability to apply that knowledge in practice,
and requiring a standard of attainment at least equivalent to that required to obtain a degree from a university or similar establishment in the United Kingdom.
- (2) The qualification may be awarded to a person without his theoretical knowledge of a subject being tested by examination if he has passed a university or other examination of equivalent standard in that subject or holds a university degree or equivalent qualification in it.
- (3) The qualification may be awarded to a person without his ability to apply his theoretical knowledge of a subject in practice being tested by examination if he has received practical training in that subject which is attested by an examination or diploma recognised by the Secretary of State for the purposes of this paragraph.
- (4) Regulations under this paragraph are subject to negative resolution procedure.
Practical training
9
- (1) The qualification must be restricted to persons who have completed at least three years' practical training of which—
- (a) part was spent being trained in statutory audit work, and
- (b) a substantial part was spent being trained in statutory audit work or other audit work of a description approved by the Secretary of State as being similar to statutory audit work.
- (2) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (1) “statutory audit work” includes the work of a person appointed as the auditor of a person under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom where it appears to the Secretary of State that the law and practice with respect to the audit of accounts is similar to that in the United Kingdom.
- (3) The training must be given by persons approved by the body offering the qualification as persons whom the body is satisfied, in the light of undertakings given by them and the supervision to which they are subject (whether by the body itself or some other body or organisation), will provide adequate training.
- (4) At least two-thirds of the training must be given by a person—
- (a) eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor, or
- (b) eligible for a corresponding appointment as an auditor under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, where the conditions in sub-paragraph (4A) are met in relation to that person. ....
- (4A) Those conditions are that—
- (a) the Secretary of State has determined for the purposes of sub-paragraph (2) that the law and practice with respect to the audit of accounts in the country or territory outside the United Kingdom is similar to that in the United Kingdom,
- (b) the body offering the qualification is satisfied that the person has been approved by the body or organisation responsible for approving a person as being eligible under the law of the country or territory outside of the United Kingdom for appointment as an auditor of accounts, and
- (c) the body offering the qualification is satisfied that the approval corresponds to the approval of a person as being eligible for appointment as a statutory auditor in the United Kingdom.
- (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Supplementary provision with respect to a sufficient period of professional experience
10
- (1) Periods of theoretical instruction in the fields of finance, law and accountancy may be deducted from the required period of professional experience, provided the instruction—
- (a) lasted at least one year, and
- (b) is attested by an examination recognised by the Secretary of State for the purposes of this paragraph;
but the period of professional experience may not be so reduced by more than four years.
- (2) The period of professional experience together with the practical training required in the case of persons satisfying the requirement in paragraph 7 by virtue of having a sufficient period of professional experience must not be shorter than the course of theoretical instruction referred to in that paragraph and the practical training required in the case of persons satisfying the requirement of that paragraph by virtue of having completed such a course.
The body offering the qualification
11
- (1) The body offering the qualification must have—
- (a) rules and arrangements adequate to ensure compliance with the requirements of paragraphs 6 to 10, and
- (b) adequate arrangements for the effective monitoring of its continued compliance with those requirements.
- (2) The arrangements must include arrangements for monitoring—
- (a) the standard of the body's examinations, and
- (b) the adequacy of the practical training given by the persons approved by it for that purpose.
SCHEDULE 11A — Specified persons, descriptions, disclosures etc for the purposes of section 1224A
PART 1 — Specified persons
1
The Secretary of State.
2
The Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment for Northern Ireland.
3
The Treasury.
4
The Bank of England.
5
The Financial Conduct Authority.
5A
The Prudential Regulation Authority.
6
The Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs.
7
The Lord Advocate.
8
The Director of Public Prosecutions.
9
The Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
10
A constable.
11
A procurator fiscal.
12
The Scottish Ministers.
13
A body designated by the Secretary of State under section 1252 (delegation of the Secretary of State's functions).
14
A recognised supervisory body.
15
A recognised qualifying body.
16
The competent authority.
17
The Independent Supervisor.
17A
A recognised supervisory body as defined in section 1217(4) and Schedule 10 as they have effect by virtue of Schedule 5 to the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014.
17B
A recognised qualifying body as defined in section 1219(13) as it has effect by virtue of that Schedule.
17C
A body designated by the Secretary of State under section 1252 (delegation of the Secretary of State's functions) as it has effect by virtue of that Schedule.
17D
A body with which a recognised supervisory body within the meaning of that Act is participating in arrangements for the purposes of paragraph 23 (independent monitoring of certain audits) or 24 (independent investigation of public interest cases) of Schedule 10 as it has effect by virtue of that Schedule.
PART 2 — Specified descriptions of disclosures
18
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person authorised under section 457 of this Act (persons authorised to apply to court) to exercise his functions.
19
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an inspector appointed under Part 14 of the Companies Act 1985 (investigation of companies and their affairs, etc ) to exercise his functions.
20
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person authorised under section 447 of the Companies Act 1985 (power to require production of documents) or section 84 of the Companies Act 1989 (c.40) (exercise of powers by officer etc ) to exercise his functions.
21
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 167 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c.8) (general investigations) to conduct an investigation to exercise his functions.
22
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 168 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigations in particular cases) to conduct an investigation to exercise his functions.
23
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 169(1)(b) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigation in support of overseas regulator) to conduct an investigation to exercise his functions.
24
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the body corporate responsible for administering the scheme referred to in section 225 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the ombudsman scheme) to exercise its functions.
25
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under paragraph 4 (the panel of ombudsmen) or 5 (the Chief Ombudsman) of Schedule 17 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 to exercise his functions.
26
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under regulations made under section 262(1) and (2)(k) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigations into open-ended investment companies) to conduct an investigation to exercise his functions.
27
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed under section 284 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (investigations into affairs of certain collective investment schemes) to conduct an investigation to exercise his functions.
28
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the investigator appointed under section 84 of the Financial Services Act 2012 (arrangements for investigation of complaints) to exercise his functions.
29
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed by the Treasury to hold an inquiry into matters relating to financial services (including an inquiry under section 69 of the Financial Services Act 2012) to exercise his functions.
30
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Secretary of State or the Treasury to exercise any of their functions under any of the following—
- (a) the Companies Acts;
- (b) Part 5 of the Criminal Justice Act 1993 (c.36) (insider dealing);
- (c) the Insolvency Act 1986 (c.45);
- (d) the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 (c.46);
- (e) Part 42 of this Act (statutory auditors)
- (f) Part 3 (investigations and powers to obtain information) or 7 (financial markets and insolvency) of the Companies Act 1989 (c.40);
- (g) the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
31
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Scottish Ministers to exercise their functions under the enactments relating to insolvency.
32
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment for Northern Ireland to exercise any powers conferred on it by the enactments relating to companies or insolvency.
33
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person appointed or authorised by the Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment for Northern Ireland under the enactments relating to companies or insolvency to exercise his functions.
34
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Pensions Regulator to exercise the functions conferred on it by or by virtue of any of the following—
- (a) the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (c.48);
- (b) the Pensions Act 1995 (c.26);
- (c) the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999 (c.30);
- (d) the Pensions Act 2004 (c.35);
- (e) any enactment in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to any of those enactments.
35
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Board of the Pension Protection Fund to exercise the functions conferred on it by or by virtue of Part 2 of the Pensions Act 2004 or any enactment in force in Northern Ireland corresponding to that Part.
36
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting—
- (a) the Bank of England,
- (b) the European Central Bank, or
- (c) the central bank of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom, to exercise its functions.
37
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs to exercise their functions.
38
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting organs of the Society of Lloyd's (being organs constituted by or under the Lloyd's Act 1982 (c.xiv)) to exercise their functions under or by virtue of the Lloyd's Acts 1871 to 1982.
39
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Competition and Markets Authority to exercise its functions under any of the following—
- (a) the Fair Trading Act 1973 (c.41);
- (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (c) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (d) the Competition Act 1980 (c.21);
- (e) the Competition Act 1998 (c.41);
- (f) the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c.8);
- (g) the Enterprise Act 2002 (c.40);
- (h) the Control of Misleading Advertisements Regulations 1988 ( S.I. 1988/915);
- (i) Schedule 3 to the Consumer Rights Act 2015
- (j) Parts 3 and 4 of the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013.
40
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
41
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings before the Competition Appeal Tribunal.
42
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an enforcer under Chapter 3 or 4 of Part 3 of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024 (enforcement of consumer protection law).
43
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Takeover Panel to perform any of its functions under Part 28 of this Act (takeovers etc ).
44
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Charity Commission to exercise its functions.
45
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Attorney General to exercise his functions in connection with charities.
46
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Gambling Commission to exercise its functions under sections 5 to 10 (licensing) and 15 (power of Secretary of State to require information) of the National Lottery etc. Act 1993 (c.39).
47
A disclosure by the Gambling Commission to the Comptroller and Auditor General for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Comptroller and Auditor General to carry out an examination under Part 2 of the National Audit Act 1983 (c.44) into the economy, effectiveness and efficiency with which the Gambling Commission has used its resources in discharging its functions under sections 5 to 10 of the National Lottery etc. Act 1993.
48
A disclosure for the purposes of enabling or assisting a regulator under Schedule 3 to the Consumer Rights Act 2015 other than the Competition and Markets Authority to exercise its functions under that Schedule.
49
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an enforcement authority under the Consumer Contracts (Information, Cancellation and Additional Charges) Regulations 2013 to exercise its functions under those Regulations.
50
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an enforcement authority under the Financial Services (Distance Marketing) Regulations 2004 ( S.I. 2004/2095) to exercise its functions under those Regulations.
51
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a local weights and measures authority in England and Wales to exercise its functions under section 171(2) of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024 (notice of intention to prosecute etc).
51A
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the lead enforcement authority (as defined in section 33(1) of the Estate Agents Act 1979) to exercise its functions under the Estate Agents Act 1979.
52
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Financial Conduct Authority or the Prudential Regulation Authority to exercise its functions under any of the following—
- (a) the legislation relating to friendly societies ...;
- (aa) the Consumer Credit Act 1974;
- (ab) the Credit Unions Act 1979;
- (b) the Building Societies Act 1986 (c.53);
- (c) Part 7 of the Companies Act 1989 (c.40) (financial markets and insolvency);
- (d) the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c.8).
- (e) the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014.
53
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
54
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body corporate established in accordance with section 212(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (compensation scheme manager) to exercise its functions.
55
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a recognised investment exchange , a recognised clearing house or a recognised CSD to exercise its functions as such.“ Recognised investment exchange ” , “recognised clearing house” and “recognised CSD” have the same meaning as in section 285 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
56
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person who is an operator of a relevant system for the purposes of the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3755) to exercise his functions.
57
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body designated under section 326(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (designated professional bodies) to exercise its functions in its capacity as a body designated under that section.
58
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, civil proceedings arising under or by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
59
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body designated by order under section 1252 of this Act (delegation of functions of Secretary of State) to exercise its functions under Part 42 of this Act (statutory auditors).
60
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a recognised supervisory or qualifying body, within the meaning of Part 42 of this Act, to exercise its functions as such.
61
A disclosure for the purpose of making available to an audited person information relating to a statutory audit of that person's accounts.
62
A disclosure for the purpose of making available to the public information relating to inspections carried out under regulation 9 (monitoring of audits by the competent authority) of the Statutory Auditors and Third Country Auditors Regulations 2016 (S.I. 2016/649), provided such information does not identify any audited person.
63
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an official receiver (including the Accountant in Bankruptcy in Scotland and the Official Assignee in Northern Ireland) to exercise his functions under the enactments relating to insolvency.
64
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
65
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body that is for the time being a recognised professional body for the purposes of section 391 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (recognised professional bodies) to exercise its functions as such.
66
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting an overseas regulatory authority to exercise its regulatory functions.“ Overseas regulatory authority ” and “ regulatory functions ” have the same meaning as in section 82 of the Companies Act 1989.
67
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Regulator of Community Interest Companies to exercise functions under the Companies (Audit, Investigations and Community Enterprise) Act 2004 (c.27).
68
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, criminal proceedings.
69
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a person authorised by the Secretary of State under Part 2, 3 or 4 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c.29) to exercise his functions.
70
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings on an application under section 6, 7 or 8 of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 (c.46) (disqualification for unfitness).
71
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, proceedings before the Upper Tribunal in respect of—
- (a) a decision of the Financial Conduct Authority;
- (aa) a decision of the Prudential Regulation Authority;
- (b) a decision of the Bank of England; or
- (c) a decision of a person relating to the assessment of any compensation or consideration under the Banking (Special Provisions) Act 2008 , the Banking Act 2009 or the Financial Services and Markets Act 2023.
72
A disclosure for the purposes of proceedings before the Financial Services Tribunal by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Transitional Provisions) (Partly Completed Procedures) Order 2001 ( S.I. 2001/3592).
73
A disclosure for the purposes of proceedings before a tribunal in relation to a decision of the Pensions Regulator.
74
A disclosure for the purpose of enabling or assisting a body appointed under section 14 of the Companies (Audit, Investigations and Community Enterprise) Act 2004 (supervision of periodic accounts and reports of issuers of listed securities) to exercise functions mentioned in subsection (2) of that section.
75
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a relevant lawyer, foreign lawyer, auditor, accountant, valuer or actuary of his professional duties. In this paragraph—
- “ foreign lawyer ” means a person (other than a relevant lawyer) who is a foreign lawyer within the meaning of section 89(9) of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990;
- “ relevant lawyer ” means— a person who, for the purposes of the Legal Services Act 2007, is an authorised person in relation to an activity which constitutes a reserved legal activity (within the meaning of that Act),a solicitor or barrister in Northern Ireland, ora solicitor or advocate in Scotland.
76
A disclosure with a view to the institution of, or otherwise for the purposes of, disciplinary proceedings relating to the performance by a public servant of his duties.“ Public servant ” means an officer or employee of the Crown.
77
A disclosure for the purpose of the provision of a summary or collection of information framed in such a way as not to enable the identity of any person to whom the information relates to be ascertained.
78
A disclosure in pursuance of any assimilated obligation.
PART 3 — Overseas regulatory bodies
79
A disclosure is made in accordance with this Part of this Schedule if it is made to an approved third country competent authority in accordance with section 1253B (requests from approved third country competent authorities).
80
A disclosure is made in accordance with this Part of this Schedule if it is—
- (a) a transfer of audit working papers and investigation reports to a third country competent authority in accordance with rules imposed under paragraph 16A of Schedule 10 (transfer of papers to third countries), or
- (b) a disclosure other than a transfer of audit working papers and investigation reports made to a third country competent authority for the purpose of enabling or assisting the authority to exercise its functions.
SCHEDULE 12 — Arrangements in which registered third country auditors are required to participate
Arrangements for independent monitoring of audits of UK-traded third country companies
1
- (1) The arrangements referred to in section 1242(1)(a) are appropriate arrangements—
- (a) for enabling the performance by the registered third country auditor of functions related to the audit of UK-traded third country companies to be monitored by means of inspections carried out under the arrangements, and
- (b) for ensuring that the carrying out of such monitoring and inspections is done independently of the registered third country auditor.
- (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arrangements for independent investigations for disciplinary purposes
2
- (1) The arrangements referred to in section 1242(1)(b) are appropriate arrangements—
- (a) for the carrying out of investigations into matters arising in connection with the performance of functions related to the audit of UK-traded third country companies by the registered third country auditor,
- (b) where it appears to be desirable following the conclusion of such investigations—
- (i) for the holding, subject to sub-paragraph (1A), of disciplinary hearings relating to the registered third country auditor,
- (ii) unless the interests of justice otherwise require, for any such hearings to be held in public, and
- (iii) for decisions to be made as to whether (and, if so, what) disciplinary action should be taken against the registered third country auditor, and
- (c) for ensuring that the carrying out of those investigations, the holding of those hearings and the making of those decisions are done independently of the registered third country auditor.
- (1A) The arrangements may provide that decisions to take disciplinary action, and decisions as to what that action should be, may be made in respect of a registered third country auditor without the holding of a disciplinary hearing relating to that registered third country auditor where the registered third country auditor agrees in writing that such a hearing need not be held.
- (2) In this paragraph—
- “disciplinary action” includes the imposition of a fine; and
- . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Supplementary: arrangements to operate independently of third country auditor
3
- (1) This paragraph applies for the purposes of—
- (a) paragraph 1(1)(b), or
- (b) paragraph 2(1)(c).
- (2) Arrangements are not to be regarded as appropriate for the purpose of ensuring that a thing is done independently of the registered third country auditor unless they are designed to ensure that the registered third country auditor—
- (a) will have no involvement in the appointment or selection of any of the persons who are to be responsible for doing that thing, and
- (b) will not otherwise be involved in the doing of that thing.
- (3) Sub-paragraph (2) imposes a minimum requirement and does not preclude the possibility that additional criteria may need to be satisfied in order for the arrangements to be regarded as appropriate for the purpose in question.
Supplementary: funding of arrangements
4
- (1) The registered third country auditor must pay any of the costs of maintaining any relevant arrangements which the arrangements provide are to be paid by it.
- (2) For this purpose “relevant arrangements” are arrangements within paragraph 1 or 2 in which the registered third country auditor is obliged to participate.
Supplementary: scope of arrangements
5
Arrangements may qualify as arrangements within either of paragraphs 1 and 2 even though the matters for which they provide are more extensive in any respect than those mentioned in the applicable paragraph.
Specification of particular arrangements by the Secretary of State
6
- (1) If there exist two or more sets of arrangements within paragraph 1 or within paragraph 2, the obligation of a registered third country auditor under section 1242(1)(a) or (b), as the case may be, is to participate in such set of arrangements as the Secretary of State may by order specify.
- (2) An order under sub-paragraph (1) is subject to negative resolution procedure.
SCHEDULE 13 — Supplementary provisions with respect to delegation order
Operation of this Schedule
1
- (1) This Schedule has effect in relation to a body designated by a delegation order under section 1252 as follows—
- (a) paragraphs 2 to 12 have effect in relation to the body where it is established by the order;
- (b) paragraphs 2 and 6 to 11 have effect in relation to the body where it is an existing body;
- (c) paragraph 13 has effect in relation to the body where it is an existing body that is an unincorporated association.
- (2) In their operation in accordance with sub-paragraph (1)(b), paragraphs 2 and 6 apply only in relation to—
- (a) things done by or in relation to the body in or in connection with the exercise of functions transferred to it by the delegation order, and
- (b) functions of the body which are functions so transferred.
- (3) Any power conferred by this Schedule to make provision by order is a power to make provision by an order under section 1252.
Status
2
The body is not to be regarded as acting on behalf of the Crown and its members, officers and employees are not to be regarded as Crown servants.
Name, members and chairman
3
- (1) The body is to be known by such name as may be specified in the delegation order.
- (2) The body is to consist of such persons (not being less than eight) as the Secretary of State may appoint after such consultation as he thinks appropriate.
- (3) The chairman of the body is to be such person as the Secretary of State may appoint from among its members.
- (4) The Secretary of State may make provision by order as to—
- (a) the terms on which the members of the body are to hold and vacate office;
- (b) the terms on which a person appointed as chairman is to hold and vacate the office of chairman.
Financial provisions
4
- (1) The body must pay to its chairman and members such remuneration, and such allowances in respect of expenses properly incurred by them in the performance of their duties, as the Secretary of State may determine.
- (2) As regards any chairman or member in whose case the Secretary of State so determines, the body must pay or make provision for the payment of—
- (a) such pension, allowance or gratuity to or in respect of that person on his retirement or death, or
- (b) such contributions or other payment towards the provision of such a pension, allowance or gratuity,
as the Secretary of State may determine.
- (3) Where—
- (a) a person ceases to be a member of the body otherwise than on the expiry of his term of office, and
- (b) it appears to the Secretary of State that there are special circumstances which make it right for that person to receive compensation,
the body must make a payment to him by way of compensation of such amount as the Secretary of State may determine.
Proceedings
5
- (1) The delegation order may contain such provision as the Secretary of State considers appropriate with respect to the proceedings of the body.
- (2) The delegation order may, in particular—
- (a) authorise the body to discharge any functions by means of committees consisting wholly or partly of members of the body;
- (b) provide that the validity of proceedings of the body, or of any such committee, is not affected by any vacancy among the members or any defect in the appointment of any member.
Fees
6
- (1) The body may retain fees payable to it.
- (2) The fees must be applied for—
- (a) meeting the expenses of the body in discharging its functions, and
- (b) any purposes incidental to those functions.
- (3) Those expenses include any expenses incurred by the body on such staff, accommodation, services and other facilities as appear to it to be necessary or expedient for the proper performance of its functions.
- (4) In prescribing the amount of fees in the exercise of the functions transferred to it the body must prescribe such fees as appear to it sufficient to defray those expenses, taking one year with another.
- (5) Any exercise by the body of the power to prescribe fees requires the approval of the Secretary of State.
- (6) The Secretary of State may, after consultation with the body, by order vary or revoke any regulations prescribing fees made by the body.
Legislative functions
7
- (1) Regulations or an order made by the body in the exercise of the functions transferred to it must be made by instrument in writing, but not by statutory instrument.
- (2) The instrument must specify the provision of this Part of this Act under which it is made.
- (3) The Secretary of State may by order impose such requirements as he thinks necessary or expedient as to the circumstances and manner in which the body must consult on any regulations or order it proposes to make.
- (4) Nothing in this Part applies to make regulations or an order made by the body subject to negative resolution procedure or affirmative resolution procedure.
8
- (1) Immediately after an instrument is made it must be printed and made available to the public with or without payment.
- (2) A person is not to be taken to have contravened any regulation or order if he shows that at the time of the alleged contravention the instrument containing the regulation or order had not been made available as required by this paragraph.
9
- (1) The production of a printed copy of an instrument purporting to be made by the body on which is endorsed a certificate signed by an officer of the body authorised by it for the purpose and stating—
- (a) that the instrument was made by the body,
- (b) that the copy is a true copy of the instrument, and
- (c) that on a specified date the instrument was made available to the public as required by paragraph 8,
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