Reform history

This Regulation lays down detailed rules for:

Non-JAR-compliant licences shall be converted into Part-FCL licences and associated ratings or certificates in accordance with:

The conversion report shall:

A Member State may authorise student pilots who follow a LAPL training course to exercise limited privileges without supervision before they meet all the requirements necessary for the issuance of a LAPL, subject to the following conditions:

Until  8 September 2021, a Member State may issue an authorisation to a pilot to exercise specified limited privileges to fly aeroplanes under instrument flight rules before the pilot complies with all of the requirements necessary for the issue of an instrument rating in accordance with this Regulation, subject to the following conditions:

A pilot shall be granted PBN privileges where he or she fulfils all of the following requirements:

Upset prevention and recovery training shall become a mandatory part of a training course for a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL), an integrated training course for airline transport pilots for aeroplanes (ATP(A)), a training course for a commercial pilot licence for aeroplanes (CPL(A)) and training courses for a class or type rating for:

For training courses referred to in paragraph 1 that commence before 20 December 2019 at an approved training organisation (ATO), upset prevention and recovery training shall not be mandatory provided that:

Up to and including 8 September 2022, holders of an en route instrument rating (‘EIR’) set out in point FCL.825 of Annex I (Part-FCL) shall:

The credit report shall:

Organisations shall, in accordance with Article 24(2) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, be entitled to provide training to pilots involved in the operation of aircraft referred to in points (b)(i) and (ii) of Article (2)(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 only where those organisations have been issued by the competent authority with an approval confirming that they comply with the essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and with the requirements of Annex VII to this Regulation.

Cabin crew members involved in commercial operations of helicopters on the date of application of this Regulation:

If a Member State designates more than one entity as competent authority:

Personnel authorised by the competent authority to carry out certification and/or oversight tasks shall be empowered to perform at least the following tasks:

(g) Training completed in aircraft or in FSTDs in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 shall be taken into account for the experience and revalidation requirements established in this Annex (Part-FCL).

(4) If applicants for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL) or a private pilot licence (PPL) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts or have failed to pass all papers within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.

(4)All hours flown in aeroplanes or TMGs that are subject to a decision of a Member State taken in accordance with points (a) or (c) of Article 2(8) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 or that fall within the scope of Annex I to that Regulation shall be credited in full towards fulfilling the flight time requirements of point FCL.140.A(a)(1) and point FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) of this Annex, provided that the following conditions are met:

(i) the aeroplane or TMG concerned is of the same category and class as the Part-FCL aircraft in respect of which the hours flown are to be credited;

(ii) in case of training flights with an instructor, the aeroplane or TMG used is subject to an authorisation specified in point ORA.ATO.135 of Annex VII (Part-ORA) or point DTO.GEN.240 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO).

(5)Notwithstanding point (b)(3), the holder of an IR(A) who has completed a competency-based modular IR(A) course or the holder of an EIR shall only be credited in full towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft when also having passed the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the IFR part of the course required in accordance with  FCL.720.A.(a)(2)(ii)(A).

(a) Through the completion of a skill test, applicants for a PPL shall demonstrate the ability to perform as PIC on the appropriate aircraft category the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted.

(4) Applicants for the revalidation of an IR shall receive full credits for the proficiency check as required in this Subpart when they complete EBT practical assessment in accordance with Appendix 10 related to the IR at an EBT operator.

(1) in order to determine whether refresher training is necessary for the applicant to reach the level of proficiency needed to pass the instrument element of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9, they shall undergo an assessment at either of the following organisations:

(i) at an ATO;

(ii) at an EBT operator that is specifically approved for such refresher training;

(2) if deemed necessary by the organisation providing the assessment in accordance with point (1), they shall complete refresher training at that organisation;

(3) after complying with point (1) and, as applicable, point (2), they shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 or complete EBT practical assessment in accordance with Appendix 10 in the relevant aircraft category. That EBT practical assessment may be combined with the refresher training specified in point (2);

(4) they shall hold the relevant class or type rating unless specified otherwise in this Annex.

(e)Holders of a valid IR on a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention shall be exempted from complying with the requirements in points (c)(1), (c)(2) and (d) when renewing the IR privileges contained in licences issued in accordance with this Annex.

(f)The proficiency check specified in point (c)(3) may be combined with a proficiency check performed for the renewal of the relevant class or type rating.

(a) Validity

(1) The validity period of class and type ratings shall be 1 year, except for single-pilot single-engine class ratings for which the validity period shall be 2 years, unless otherwise determined in the OSD. If pilots choose to fulfil the revalidation requirements earlier than prescribed in points FCL.740.A, FCL.740.H, FCL.740.PL and FCL.740.As, the new validity period shall commence from the date of the proficiency check.

(2) Applicants for the revalidation of a class or type rating shall receive full credits for the proficiency check as required in this Subpart when they complete EBT practical assessment in accordance with Appendix 10 at an operator that has implemented EBT for the relevant class or type rating.

(b) Renewal

For the renewal of a class or type rating, applicants shall comply with all of the following:

(1) in order to determine whether refresher training is necessary for the applicant to reach the level of proficiency to safely operate the aircraft, they shall undergo an assessment at one of the following:

(i) at an ATO;

(ii) at a DTO or at an ATO, if the expired rating concerned a non-high-performance single-engine piston class rating, a TMG class rating or a single-engine type rating for helicopters referred to in point DTO.GEN.110(a)(2)(c) of Annex VIII;

(iii) at a DTO, at an ATO or with an instructor, if the rating expired no more than 3 years ago and the rating concerned a non-high-performance single-engine piston class rating or a TMG class rating;

(iv) at an EBT operator that is specifically approved for such refresher training;

(2) if deemed necessary by the organisation or the instructor providing the assessment as per point (1), they shall complete refresher training at that organisation or with that instructor;

(3) after complying with point (1) and, as applicable, point (2), they shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 or complete EBT practical assessment in accordance with Appendix 10. That EBT practical assessment may be combined with the refresher training specified in point (2).

By way of derogation from points (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(3), pilots holding a flight test rating issued in accordance with point FCL.820 who were involved in the development, certification or production flight tests for an aircraft type and have completed either 50 hours of total flight time or 10 hours of flight time as PIC in test flights in that type during the year prior to the date of their application, shall be entitled to apply for the revalidation or renewal of the relevant type rating.

Applicants shall be exempted from the requirement in points (b)(1) and (b)(2) if they hold a valid rating for the same class or type of aircraft on a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention and if they are entitled to exercise the privileges of that rating.

(c) Pilots who leave an operator’s EBT programme after having failed to demonstrate an acceptable level of competence in accordance with that EBT programme shall not exercise the privileges of that type rating until they have complied with one of the following:

(1) they have completed EBT practical assessment in accordance with Appendix 10;

(2) they have passed a proficiency check in accordance with point FCL.625(c)(3) or point FCL.740(b)(3), as applicable. In such a case, point FCL.625(b)(4) and point FCL.740(a)(2) shall not apply.

Applicants for the initial issue of privileges to operate a single-pilot aeroplane in multi-pilot operations, either when applying for the issue of a class or type rating or when extending the privileges of a class or type rating already held to multi-pilot operation, shall meet the requirements in point (b)(4) and, before starting the relevant training course, point (b)(5).

(3) Single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes

Applicants for the issue of a type rating for a complex single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high-performance aeroplane shall, in addition to meeting the requirements in point (2), comply with all of the following:

Applicants for the issue of the first type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be student pilots currently undergoing training on an MPL training course or shall, before starting the type rating training course, comply with the following requirements:

(5) have completed the training course specified in point FCL.745.A, unless they comply with any of the following:

(i) they completed, within the preceding 3 years, the training and checking in accordance with points ORO.FC.220 and ORO.FC.230 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;

(ii) they have completed the training specified in point FCL.915(e)(1)(ii).

(a) The privileges of a TRI are to instruct for:

(1) the revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided the TRI holds a valid IR;

(2) the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that the holder meets all of the following conditions:

(i) has at least 50 hours of instructional experience as a TRI or SFI in accordance with this Regulation or Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;

(ii) has conducted the flight instruction syllabus of the relevant part of the TRI training course in accordance with point FCL.930.TRI(a)(3) to the satisfaction of the head of training of an ATO;

(3) in the case of the TRI for single-pilot aeroplanes:

(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes provided that the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.

The privileges of the TRI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that the TRI meets any of the following conditions:

(A) holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(B) has at least 500 hours on aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations and completed an MCCI training course in accordance with point FCL.930.MCCI;

(ii) the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that he or she has the privileges extended to multi-pilot operations and holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(4) in the case of the TRI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:

(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:

(A) multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(B) single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(ii) MCC training;

(iii) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, he or she holds or has held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate;

(5) in the case of the TRI for helicopters:

(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;

(ii) MCC training, provided he or she holds a multi-pilot helicopter type rating;

(iii) the extension of the single-engine IR(H) to multi-engine IR(H);

(6) in the case of the TRI for powered-lift aircraft:

(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings;

(ii) MCC training.

(b) The privileges of a TRI include privileges to conduct EBT practical assessment at an EBT operator, provided that the instructor complies with the requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 for EBT instructor standardisation at that EBT operator.

(iii) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935. Applicants who have complied with point FCL.910.TRI (b)(3) shall be deemed to comply with this requirement.

(e)The privileges of an SFI include privileges to conduct EBT practical assessment at an EBT operator, provided that the instructor complies with the requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 for EBT instructor standardisation at that EBT operator.

(a) An applicant for an examiner certificate shall undertake a standardisation course which is provided by the competent authority or which is provided by an ATO and approved by the competent authority.

(1) before the expiry date of the certificate, have conducted at least six skill tests, proficiency checks, assessments of competence, or EBT evaluation phases during an EBT module referred to in point ORO.FC.231 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;

(2) in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the certificate, have completed an examiner refresher course which is provided by the competent authority or which is provided by an ATO and approved by the competent authority;

(3) one of the skill tests, proficiency checks, assessments of competence or EBT evaluation phases conducted in accordance with point (1) shall take place in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the examiner certificate and shall:

(ii) hold an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable type of aeroplane; and

(ii) hold an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable class or type of aeroplane; and

#### A. **CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE ISSUE OF A PILOT LICENCE — BRIDGE INSTRUCTION AND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS**

#### A. ATP integrated course — Aeroplanes

(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;

#### B. ATP modular course — Aeroplanes

#### C. CPL/IR integrated course — Aeroplanes

#### D. CPL integrated course — Aeroplanes

#### E. CPL modular course — Aeroplanes

#### F. ATP/IR integrated course — Helicopters

#### G. ATP integrated course — Helicopters

#### H. ATP modular course — Helicopters

#### I. CPL/IR integrated course — Helicopters

#### J. CPL integrated course — Helicopters

#### K. CPL modular course — Helicopters

#### L. CPL/IR integrated course — Airships

#### M. CPL integrated course — Airships

#### N. CPL modular course — Airships

#### A. General

#### B. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Aeroplanes

#### C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL — Helicopters

#### D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Airships

#### A. IR(A) — Modular flying training course

#### Aa.   IR(A) — Competency-based modular flying training course

#### B. IR(H) — Modular flying training course

#### C. IR(As) — Modular flying training course

| (¹) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments. (^*1) May be performed in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II. (²) May be performed in either Section 4 or Section 5. (³) To establish PBN privileges, one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. | |

| (¹) To establish PBN privileges, one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. (^*1) To be performed in Section 4 or Section 5. (^*2) Multi-engine helicopter only. (^*3) Only one item to be tested. | |

#### A. **Aeroplanes**

| (^*1) Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicants have flown at least three IFR departures and approaches exercising PBN privileges, including at least one RNP APCH approach on an SP class or type of aeroplane in SP operations, or, for multi-engine, other than HP complex aeroplanes, the applicants have passed Section 6 of the skill test for SP, other than HP complex aeroplanes flown solely by reference to instruments in SP operations. | |

#### B. **Helicopters**

| (^*1) Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least three IFR departures and approaches exercising PBN privileges, including one RNP APCH approach (could be a Point in Space (PinS) approach), have been performed on a SP type of helicopter in SP operations. | |

#### A. General

#### B. Specific requirements for the aeroplane category

| 5. | Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise, an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (---->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A = aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred (*) items of Section 3B and, for multi-engine, Section 6, shall be flown solely by reference to instruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or proficiency check. If the starred (*) items are not flown solely by reference to instruments during the skill test or proficiency check, and when there is no crediting of IR privileges, the class or type rating will be restricted to VFR only. (d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where the required experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. Section 3A is not required if Section 3B is completed. (e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears. (f) An FSTD shall be used for practical training for type or ME class ratings if they form part of an approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); (ii) the qualifications of the instructors; (iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course; and (iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (g) If privileges for multi-pilot operation are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for single-pilot operations shall: (1) complete a bridge course containing manoeuvres and procedures including MCC as well as the exercises of Section 7 using tthreat and error management (TEM), CRM and human factors at an ATO; and (2) pass a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations. (h) If privileges for single-pilot operations are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for multi-pilot operations shall be trained at an ATO and checked for the following additional manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operations: (1) for SE aeroplanes, 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B;and (2) for ME aeroplanes, 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B. (i) Pilots holding privileges for both single-pilot and multi-pilot operations in accordance with points (g) and (h) may revalidate privileges for both types of operations by completing a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations in addition to the exercises referred to in points (h)(1) or (h)(2), as applicable, in single-pilot operations. (j) If a skill test or a proficiency check is completed in multi-pilot operations only, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. The restriction shall be removed when pilots comply with point (h). (k) The training, testing and checking shall follow the table mentioned below. (1) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for single-pilot privileges (2) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for multi-pilot privileges (3) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding single-pilot privileges seeking multi-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (4) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding multi-pilot privileges seeking single-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (5) Training at an ATO and checking requirements for combined revalidation and renewal of single and multi-pilot privileges **(1)** **(2)** **(3)** **(4)** **(5)** *Type of operation* *Type of aircraft* **SP** **MP** **SP → MP (initial)** **MP → SP (initial)** **SP** **+** **MP** *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training, testing and checking (SE aeroplanes)* *Training, testing and checking (ME aeroplanes)* *SE aeroplanes* *ME aeroplanes* **Initial issue** All (except SP complex) Sections 1-6 Sections 1-6 MCC CRM Human factors TEM Sections 1-7 Sections 1-6 MCC CRM Human factors TEM Section 7 Sections 1-6 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B SP complex 1-7 1-6 **Revalidation** All n/a Sections 1-6 n/a Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Section 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Sections 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B **Renewal** All FCL.740 Sections 1-6 FCL.740 Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation (l) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. By way of derogation from the subparagraph above, in cases where a proficiency check for revalidation of PBN privileges does not include an RNP APCH exercise, the PBN privileges of the pilot shall not include RNP APCH.The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise. TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A Instructor initials when training completed Tested or checked in FSTD or A Examiner initials when test or check completed SECTION 1 1 1.1 Departure Preflight including: — documentation; — mass and balance; — weather briefing; and — NOTAM. OTD 1.2 Pre-start checks 1.2.1 External OTD P# P M 1.2.2 Internal OTD P# P M 1.3 Engine starting: normal malfunctions. P----> ----> M 1.4 Taxiing P----> ----> M 1.5 Pre-departure checks: engine run-up (if applicable) P----> ----> M 1.6 Take-off procedure: — normal with flight manual flap settings; and — crosswind (if conditions are available). P----> ----> M 1.7 Climbing: — Vx/Vy; — turns onto headings; and — level off. P----> ----> M 1.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> M SECTION 2 2 2.1 Airwork (visual meteorological conditions (VMC)) Straight and level flight at various airspeeds including flight at critically low airspeed with and without flaps (including approach to V Vmca when applicable) P----> ----> 2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank) P----> ----> M 2.3 Stalls and recovery: (i) clean stall; (ii) approach to stall in descending turn with bank with approach configuration and power; (iii) approach to stall in landing configuration and power; and (iv) approach to stall, climbing turn with take-off flap and climb power (single-engine aeroplanes only) P----> ----> M 2.4 Handling using autopilot and flight director (may be conducted in Section 3), if applicable P----> ----> M 2.5 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 3A 3A 3A.1 En route procedures VFR (see B.5 (c) and (d)) Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading P----> ----> 3A.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed P----> ----> 3A.3 Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs P----> ----> 3A.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable) P----> ----> 3A.5 Flight management (flight log, routine checks including fuel, systems and icing) P----> ----> 3A.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> SECTION 3B 3B 3B.1* Instrument flight Departure IFR P----> ----> M 3B.2* En route IFR P----> ----> M 3B.3* Holding procedures P----> ----> M 3B.4* 3D operations to decision height/altitude (DH/A) of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure (autopilot may be used to the final approach segment vertical path intercept) P----> ----> M 3B.5* 2D operations to minimum descent height/altitude (MDH/A) P----> ----> M 3B.6* Flight exercises including simulated failure of the compass and attitude indicator: — rate 1 turns; and — recoveries from unusual attitudes. P----> ----> M 3B.7* Failure of localiser or glideslope P----> ----> 3B.8* ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M Intentionally left blank SECTION 4 4 4.1 Arrival and landings Aerodrome arrival procedure P----> ----> M 4.2 Normal landing P----> ----> M 4.3 Flapless landing P----> ----> M 4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) P----> ----> 4.5 Approach and landing with idle power from up to 2 000 ft above the runway (single-engine aeroplanes only) P----> ----> 4.6 Go-around from minimum height P----> ----> M 4.7 Night go-around and landing (if applicable) P----> ----> 4.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 5 5 Abnormal and emergency procedures (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4.) 5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed P----> ----> M 5.2 Simulated engine failure after take-off (single-engine aeroplanes only) P M 5.3 Simulated forced landing without power (single-engine aeroplanes only) P M 5.4 Simulated emergencies: (i) fire or smoke in flight; and (ii) systems' malfunctions as appropriate P----> ----> 5.5 ME aeroplanes and TMG training only: engine shutdown and restart (at a safe altitude if performed in the aircraft) P----> ----> 5.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 6 6.1* Simulated asymmetric flight (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5.) Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II) P----> --->X M 6.2* Asymmetric approach and go-around P----> ----> M 6.3* Asymmetric approach and full-stop landing P----> ----> M 6.4 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 7 7 UPRT 7.1 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 7.1.1 Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 7.1.1.1 At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD training envelope. P-----> ----> 7.1.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 7.1.1.3 Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 7.1.1.4 Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, and visual approach P-----> ----> 7.2 7.2.1 Upset recovery training Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration P-----> ----> 7.2.2 The following upset exercises: — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles. P X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise 7.3 Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P---> -----> 7.4 Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH 15 m (50 ft) above the runway threshold — after touchdown (baulked landing) — In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. P-----> -----> | | | | | | | | | |

| | *Type of operation* | | | | | | | | | |

| *Type of aircraft* | **SP** | **MP** | **SP → MP (initial)** | **MP → SP (initial)** | **SP** **+** **MP** | | | | | |

| **Initial issue** | | | | | | | | | | |

| All (except SP complex) | Sections 1-6 | Sections 1-6 | MCC CRM Human factors TEM Sections 1-7 | Sections 1-6 | MCC CRM Human factors TEM Section 7 | Sections 1-6 | 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B | 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B | | |

| SP complex | 1-7 | 1-6 | | | | | | | | |

| **Revalidation** | | | | | | | | | | |

| All | n/a | Sections 1-6 | n/a | Sections 1-6 | n/a | n/a | n/a | n/a | MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Section 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B | MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Sections 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B |

| **Renewal** | | | | | | | | | | |

| All | FCL.740 | Sections 1-6 | FCL.740 | Sections 1-6 | n/a | n/a | n/a | n/a | Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation | Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation |

| 6. | Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable. OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (----->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A = aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. (d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears. (e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualifications of the instructors; (ii) the qualification and the amount of training provided on the course in an FSTD; and (iii) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations. (g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in single-pilot operations. (h) In the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, when a skill test or proficiency check is performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. If privileges of single-pilot are sought, the manoeuvres/procedures in 2.5, 3.8.3.4, 4.4, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure from Section 3.4 have to be completed in addition as single-pilot. (i) In the case of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with  FCL.720.A(c), applicants shall fulfil the same requirements as other applicants for the type rating except for the practical exercises relating to the take-off and landing phases. (j) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. By way of derogation from the subparagraph above, in cases where a proficiency check for revalidation of PBN privileges does not include an RNP APCH exercise, the PBN privileges of the pilot shall not include RNP APCH. The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise. MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR PROF. CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A Instructor initials when training completed Tested or checked in FSTD or A Examiner initials when test or check completed SECTION 1 1 Flight preparation 1.1.  Performance calculation OTD P 1.2.  Aeroplane external visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection OTD P# P 1.3.  Cockpit inspection P-----> -----> 1.4.  Use of checklist prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies P-----> -----> M 1.5.  Taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions or instructions of instructor P-----> -----> 1.6.  Before take-off checks P-----> -----> M SECTION 2 2 Take-offs 2.1.  Normal take-offs with different flap settings, including expedited take-off P-----> -----> 2.2*  Instrument take-off; transition to instrument flight is required during rotation or immediately after becoming airborne P-----> -----> 2.3.  Crosswind take-off P-----> -----> 2.4.  Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P-----> -----> 2.5.  Take-offs with simulated engine failure: 2.5.1*  shortly after reaching V2 P-----> -----> (In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category or commuter category aeroplanes, the engine failure shall not be simulated until reaching a minimum height of 500 ft above the runway end. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure shortly after reaching V2) 2.5.2*  between V1 and V2 P X M FFS only 2.6.  Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed before reaching V1 P-----> ---->X M SECTION 3 3 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 3.1.  Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 3.1.1.  At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD training envelope P-----> ----> 3.1.2.  Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 3.1.3.  Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 3.1.4.  Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, and visual approach P-----> ----> 3.2.  Tuck under and Mach buffets (if applicable), and other specific flight characteristics of the aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) P-----> ---->X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 3.3.  Normal operation of systems and controls engineer's panel (if applicable) OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.  Normal and abnormal operations of following systems: M A mandatory minimum of 3 abnormal items shall be selected from 3.4.0 to 3.4.14 inclusive 3.4.0.  Engine (if necessary propeller) OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.1.  Pressurisation and air conditioning OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.2.  Pitot/static system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.3.  Fuel system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.4.  Electrical system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.5.  Hydraulic system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.6.  Flight control and trim system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.7.  Anti-icing/de-icing system, glare shield heating OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.8.  Autopilot/flight director OTD P-----> -----> M (single pilot only) 3.4.9.  Stall warning devices or stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.10.  Ground proximity warning system, weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P-----> -----> 3.4.11.  Radios, navigation equipment, instruments, FMS OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.12.  Landing gear and brake OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.13.  Slat and flap system OTD -----> 3.4.14.  Auxiliary power unit (APU) OTD P-----> -----> Intentionally left blank 3.6.  Abnormal and emergency procedures: M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.6.1 to 3.6.9 inclusive 3.6.1.  Fire drills, e.g. engine, APU, cabin, cargo compartment, flight deck, wing and electrical fires including evacuation P-----> -----> 3.6.2.  Smoke control and removal P-----> -----> 3.6.3.  Engine failures, shutdown and restart at a safe height P-----> -----> 3.6.4.  Fuel dumping (simulated) P-----> -----> 3.6.5.  Wind shear at take-off/landing P X FFS only 3.6.6.  Simulated cabin pressure failure/emergency descent P-----> -----> 3.6.7.  Incapacitation of flight crew member P-----> -----> 3.6.8.  Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate aeroplane flight manual (AFM) P-----> -----> 3.6.9.  TCAS event OTD P-----> An aeroplane shall not be used FFS only 3.7.  Upset recovery training 3.7.1.  Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration. P FFS qualified for the training task only X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise 3.7.2.  The following upset exercises: — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles P FFS qualified for the training task only X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 3.8.  Instrument flight procedures 3.8.1*  Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions P-----> -----> M 3.8.2*  Holding procedures P-----> -----> 3.8.3*  3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure *Note:* According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taking into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 3.8.3.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). 3.8.3.1*  Manually, without flight director P-----> -----> M (skill test only) 3.8.3.2*  Manually, with flight director P-----> -----> 3.8.3.3*  With autopilot P-----> -----> 3.8.3.4*  Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative during final approach, either until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure (as applicable), starting: (i) before passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level; and (ii) after passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level. In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the 2D approach in accordance with 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height/altitude (OCH/A); however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with exercise 3.8.3.4. P —-> —-> M ————— 3.8.4*  2D operations down to the MDH/A P*---> -----> M 3.8.5.  Circling approach under the following conditions: (a)*  approach to the authorised minimum circling approach altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by: (b) circling approach to another runway at least 90° off centreline from the final approach used in item (a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude. *Remark:* If (a) and (b) are not possible due to ATC reasons, a simulated low visibility pattern may be performed. P*---> -----> 3.8.6.  Visual approaches P----> -----> SECTION 4 4 Missed approach procedures 4.1.  Go-around with all engines operating* during a 3D operation on reaching decision height P*---> -----> 4.2.  Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P*---> -----> 4.3.  Other missed approach procedures P*---> -----> 4.4*  Manual go-around with the critical engine simulated inoperative after an instrument approach on reaching DH, MDH or MAPt P*-----> -----> M 4.5.  Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH; — after touchdown (baulked landing) In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. P-----> -----> SECTION 5 5 Landings 5.1.  Normal landings* with visual reference established when reaching DA/H following an instrument approach operation P 5.2.  Landing with simulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position P-----> An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 5.3.  Crosswind landings (aircraft, if practicable) P-----> -----> 5.4.  Traffic pattern and landing without extended or with partly extended flaps and slats P-----> -----> 5.5.  Landing with critical engine simulated inoperative P-----> -----> M 5.6.  Landing with two engines inoperative: — aeroplanes with three engines: the centre engine and one outboard engine as far as practicable according to data of the AFM; and — aeroplanes with four engines: two engines at one side P X M FFS only (skill test only) *General remarks:* Special requirements for the extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m), i.e. CAT II/III operations. SECTION 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures, all aeroplane equipment required for type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 6.1*  Rejected take-off at minimum authorised runway visual range (RVR) P*-----> ---->X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise M* 6.2*  CAT II/III approaches: in simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH, using flight guidance system. Standard procedures of crew coordination (task sharing, call-out procedures, mutual surveillance, information exchange and support) shall be observed. P-----> -----> M 6.3*  Go-around: after approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training shall also include a go-around due to (simulated) insufficient RVR, wind shear, aeroplane deviation in excess of approach limits for a successful approach, ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching DH, and go-around with simulated airborne equipment failure. P-----> -----> M* 6.4*  Landing(s): with visual reference established at DH following an instrument approach. Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed. P-----> -----> M *NOTE:* CAT II/III operations shall be performed in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements. | | | | |

#### C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category

#### D. Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category

#### E. Specific requirements for the airship category

## Appendix 10

### A –   General

1.The revalidation and renewal of type ratings as well as the revalidation and renewal of IRs when combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings in accordance with this Appendix shall be completed only at EBT operators which comply with all of the following:

(a) they have established an EBT programme relevant for the applicable type rating or the IR in accordance with point ORO.FC.231 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;

(b) they have an experience of at least 3 years in conducting a mixed EBT programme;

(c) for each type rating within the EBT programme, the organisation has appointed an EBT manager. EBT managers shall comply with all of the following:

(i) they shall hold examiner privileges for the relevant type rating;

(ii) they shall have extensive experience in training as an instructor for the relevant type rating;

(iii) they shall either be the person nominated in accordance with point ORO.AOC.135(a)(2) of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 or a deputy of that person.

2.The EBT manager responsible for the relevant type rating shall ensure that the applicant complies with all qualification, training and experience requirements of this Annex for the revalidation or the renewal of the relevant rating.

3.Applicants who wish to revalidate or renew a rating in accordance with this Appendix shall comply with all of the following:

(a) they shall be enrolled in the operator’s EBT programme;

(b) in the case of revalidation of a rating, they shall complete the operator’s EBT programme within the period of validity of the relevant rating;

(c) in the case of renewal of a rating, they shall comply with procedures developed by the EBT operator in accordance with point ORO.FC.231(a)(5) of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.

4.The revalidation or renewal of a rating in accordance with this Appendix shall comprise all of the following:

(a) continuous EBT practical assessment within an EBT programme;

(b) demonstration of an acceptable level of performance in all competencies;

(c) the administrative action of licence revalidation or renewal for which the EBT manager responsible for the relevant type rating shall do all of the following:

(1) ensure that the requirements of point FCL.1030 are complied with;

(2) when acting in accordance with point FCL.1030(b)(2), endorse the applicant’s licence with the new expiry date of the rating. That endorsement may be completed by another person on behalf of the EBT manager, if that person received a delegation from the EBT manager to do so in accordance with the procedures established in the EBT programme.

### B –   Conduct of the EBT practical assessment

The EBT practical assessment shall be conducted in accordance with the operator’s EBT programme.

#### A. **AEROPLANES**

(i) demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b)

PPL/IR(A) (the IR restricted to PPL)

(^*1)

CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same aeroplane type, but will not be given ATPL(A) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot aeroplane, they must comply with column (3), row (e)(i) of the above table.

| National certificate or privileges held | Experience | Any further requirements | Replacement Part-FCL certificate |

#### | National certificate held | Experience | Any further requirements | Replacement Part-FCL certificate |

The conversion shall be valid for a maximum period of 3 years. Revalidation shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.

A pilot licence issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL licence provided that the applicant complies with the following requirements:

(d) comply with the requirements set out in the following table:

PPL/IR(H) (the IR restricted to PPL)

## (p)

(^*1)

CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with column (3), row (h)(i) of the table.

### An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the applicant complies with the following requirements:

#### | National certificate or privileges held | Experience | Any further requirements | Replacement certificate |

#### Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.

An SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the following requirements:

| National certificate held | Experience | Any further requirements | Replacement certificate |

ANNEX IV

(a) for aero-medical centres (AeMCs):

— ‘significant’ means a degree of a medical condition, the effect of which would prevent the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence or of the cabin crew safety duties;

— ‘medical history’ means a narrative or record of past diseases, injuries, treatments or other medical facts, including unfit assessment(s) or limitation of a medical certificate, that are or may be relevant to an applicant's current state of health and aero-medical fitness;

— ‘psychoactive substances’ means alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, with the exception of caffeine and tobacco;

(c) In the cases referred to in point (b):

(d) AeMCs, AMEs, GMPs and OHMPs shall maintain records with details of aero-medical examinations and assessments performed in accordance with this Annex (Part-MED) and their results for a minimum of 10 years, or for a longer period if so determined by national legislation.

(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless that student pilot holds a medical certificate, as required for the relevant licence.

(a) Applications for a medical certificate shall be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority.

(a) A medical certificate shall only be issued, revalidated or renewed once the required aero-medical examinations and assessments, as applicable, have been completed and the applicant has been assessed as fit.

#### (e) The AME, AeMC or, in the case of referral, the medical assessor of the licensing authority may require the applicant to undergo additional medical examinations and investigations when there is a clinical or epidemiological indication before the medical certificate is issued, revalidated or renewed.

#### (f) The medical assessor of the licensing authority may issue or reissue a medical certificate.

(a) *Validity*

(b) *Revalidation*

(c) *Renewal*

(b) If an applicant for a LAPL medical certificate is referred to an AME or AeMC in accordance with point MED.B.001, the GMP shall transfer the relevant medical documentation to the AeMC or AME.

(d) *Operational limitation codes*

(a) abnormality, either congenital or acquired;

(c) *Blood Pressure*

(b) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall undertake pulmonary morphological and functional tests at the initial examination and when clinically indicated.

(f) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate who have undergone a pneumonectomy shall be assessed as unfit.

(d) Aero-medical assessment

(a) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be subjected to an haemoglobin test at each aero-medical examination.

(d) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with any of the haematological conditions specified in points (4) and (5) of point (c) shall be assessed in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.

(b) Applicants with any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the genitourinary system or its adnexa likely to cause incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression, shall be assessed as unfit.

(b) Applicants who do not have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system to enable them to safely exercise the privileges of the licence shall be assessed as unfit. However, where their functional use of the musculoskeletal system is satisfactory for the safe exercise the privileges in respect of a certain aircraft type, which may be demonstrated where necessary through a medical flight or a simulator flight test, the applicant may be assessed as fit and their privileges shall be limited accordingly.

(a) Comprehensive mental health assessment shall form part of the initial class 1 aero-medical examination.

(a) Applicants with clinical diagnosis or a documented medical history of any of the following medical conditions shall be assessed as unfit:

(a) *Examination*

(e) *Visual fields*

(g) *Spectacles and contact lenses*

(b) *Examination and assessment*

#### (a) *Examination*

#### (b) Applicants with any of the following medical conditions shall undergo further examination to establish that the medical condition does not interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s):

Applicants shall be assessed as unfit, where they have an established dermatological condition which is likely to jeopardise the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.

(b) Applicants with a documented medical history or clinical diagnosis of an intracerebral malignant tumour shall be assessed as unfit.

(c) The initial assessment, all subsequent re-assessments after the licence holder reaches the age of 50 and any assessments in cases where the medical history of the applicant is not available to the examiner shall include at least all of the following:

#### (b) active, latent, acute or chronic disease or disability;

#### (c) wound, injury or sequelae from operation; and

(a) An initial aero-medical assessment shall include at least:

(b) Each subsequent aero-medical re-assessment shall include:

(b) Any limitation(s) to the exercise of the privileges granted by the cabin crew attestation shall be specified on the cabin crew medical report and shall only be removed by an AME, AeMC or by an OHMP in consultation with an AME.

(a) The privileges of holders of an aero-medical examiner (AME) certificate are to issue, revalidate and renew class 2 medical certificates and LAPL medical certificates and to conduct the relevant medical examinations and assessments.

(f) Holders of an AME certificate shall not undertake aero-medical examinations and assessments in a Member State other than the Member State that issued their AME certificate, unless they have completed all the following steps:

Through the issuance of an AME certificate, the holder shall be granted the privileges to initially issue, revalidate and renew all of the following:

(b) they conducted at least 30 examinations for the issue, revalidation or renewal of class 2 medical certificates or equivalent over a period of no more than 3 years preceding the application;

(b) Except in the case of refresher training, the courses shall be concluded by a written examination on the subjects included in the course content.

An AME certificate shall be valid for a period of 3 years, unless the competent authority decides to reduce that period for duly justified reasons related to the individual case.

## (b) renewed, provided that the holder complies with either the requirements for revalidation set out in point (a) or with all of the following requirements:

### General medical practitioners (GMPs) may act as AMEs for issuing LAPL medical certificates, where they meet all of the following conditions:

#### (b) they exercise their activity in accordance with any additional requirements established in the national law of the Member State of their competent authority;

(d) they have notified the competent authority before starting such activity.

(b)The programme of the initial training course shall cover at least the elements specified in Appendix 1 to this Part. It shall include theoretical and practical training.

The training programme of the initial training course shall include at least the following:

1.1.aviation terminology, theory of flight, passenger distribution, areas of operation, meteorology and effects of aircraft surface contamination;

1.5.the importance of ensuring that relevant documents and manuals are kept up-to-date, with amendments provided by the operator as applicable;

This course shall be conducted by at least one cabin crew CRM instructor. The training elements shall be covered in depth and shall include at least the following:

(i) heart attack;

5.5.the use of appropriate equipment including first-aid oxygen, first-aid kits and emergency medical kits and their contents;

5.6.practical cardio-pulmonary resuscitation training by each cabin crew member using a specifically designed dummy and taking account of the characteristics of an aircraft environment; and

## (e) handling of death on board; and

#### 8.2.the importance of informing the flight crew immediately, as well as the specific actions necessary for coordination and assistance, when fire or smoke is discovered;

8.4.the classification of fires and the appropriate type of extinguishing agents and procedures for particular fire situations;

8.5.the techniques of application of extinguishing agents, the consequences of misapplication, and of use in a confined space including practical training in fire-fighting and in the donning and use of smoke protection equipment used in aviation; and

SUBPART GEN

The competent authority shall provide all legislative acts, standards, rules, technical publications and related documents to relevant personnel in order to allow them to perform their tasks and to discharge their responsibilities.

(d) The competent authority shall evaluate all alternative means of compliance proposed by an organisation in accordance with ORA.GEN.120 by analysing the documentation provided and, if considered necessary, conducting an inspection of the organisation.

(a) The competent authority shall notify the Agency in case of any significant problems with the implementation of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof within 30 days from the time the authority became aware of the problems.

(b) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council (⁷) and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof, the competent authority shall provide the Agency with safety-significant information stemming from the occurrence reports stored in the national database, as soon as possible.

(a) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof, the competent authority shall implement a system to appropriately collect, analyse and disseminate safety information.

(b) The Agency shall implement a system to appropriately analyse any relevant safety information received and without undue delay provide to Member States and the Commission any information, including recommendations or corrective actions to be taken, necessary for them to react in a timely manner to a safety problem involving products, parts, non-installed equipment, persons or organisations subject to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof.

(c) Upon receiving the information referred to in (a) and (b), the competent authority shall take adequate measures to address the safety problem.

(d) Measures taken under point (c) shall immediately be notified to all persons or organisations that need to comply with them under Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof. The competent authority shall also notify those measures to the Agency and, when combined action is required, the other Member States concerned.

(1) documented policies and procedures to describe its organisation, means and methods to achieve compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof. The procedures shall be kept up to date and serve as the basic working documents within that competent authority for all related tasks;

(b) The competent authority shall, for each field of activity including management system, appoint one or more persons with the overall responsibility for the management of the relevant task(s).

(c) The competent authority shall establish procedures for participation in a mutual exchange of all necessary information and assistance with other competent authorities concerned, whether from within the Member State or in other Member States, including the following information:

(1) on all findings raised, corrective follow-up actions taken pursuant to such findings and enforcement measures taken as a result of oversight of persons and organisations exercising activities in the territory of a Member State but certified by or having made declarations to the competent authority of another Member State or the Agency;

(2) stemming from mandatory and voluntary occurrence reporting as required by point ORA.GEN.160 of Annex VII.

(a) Tasks related to the initial certification or continuing oversight of persons or organisations subject to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules shall be allocated by Member States only to qualified entities. When allocating tasks, the competent authority shall ensure that it has:

(a) The competent authority shall have a system in place to identify changes that affect its capability to perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities as defined in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof. That system shall enable it to take action as appropriate to ensure that its management system remains adequate and effective.

(b) The competent authority shall update its management system to reflect any change to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof in a timely manner, so as to ensure effective implementation.

(c) The competent authority shall notify the Agency of changes affecting its capability to perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities as defined in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof.

(a) The competent authority shall establish a system of record-keeping providing for adequate storage, accessibility and reliable traceability of:

(e) Where the activity of a person or organisation involves more than one Member State or the Agency, the competent authority responsible for the oversight under (a) may agree to have oversight tasks performed by the competent authority(ies) of the Member State(s) where the activity takes place or by the Agency. Any person or organisation subject to such agreement shall be informed of its existence and of its scope.

(b) For organisations certified by the competent authority and FSTD qualification certificate holders, the oversight programme shall be developed taking into account the specific nature of the organisation, the complexity of its activities, the results of past certification and/or oversight activities and shall be based on the assessment of associated risks. It shall include within each oversight planning cycle:

(d) For persons holding a licence, certificate, rating, or attestation issued by the competent authority the oversight programme shall include inspections, including unannounced inspections, as appropriate.

(b) When satisfied that the organisation is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority shall issue the certificate(s), as established in Appendixes III and V to this Part. The certificate(s) shall be issued for an unlimited duration. The privileges and scope of the activities that the organisation is approved to conduct shall be specified in the terms of approval attached to the certificate(s).

(b) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the organisation implements changes requiring prior approval without having received competent authority approval as defined in (a), the competent authority shall suspend, limit or revoke the organisation’s certificate.

(c) A level 2 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any non-compliance is detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, with the organisation’s procedures and manuals or with the terms of an approval or certificate which could lower safety or hazard flight safety.

#### (b) When such finding is raised, the competent authority shall carry out an investigation. If the finding is confirmed, it shall:

(d) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the authority of a Member State acting under the provisions of ARA.GEN.300(d) finds evidence showing a non-compliance with the applicable requirements by a person holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation issued by the competent authority of any other Member State, it shall inform that competent authority.

(e) If, during oversight or by any other means, evidence is found showing a non-compliance with the applicable requirements by a person subject to the requirements laid down in Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules and not holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation issued in accordance with that Regulation and its Implementing Rules, the competent authority that identified the non-compliance shall take any enforcement measures necessary to prevent the continuation of that non-compliance.

(a)Upon receiving a licence holder’s request for a change of competent authority as specified in point FCL.015(e) of Annex I (Part-FCL), point BFCL.015(f) of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or point SFCL.015(f) of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, the receiving competent authority shall, without undue delay, request the competent authority of the licence holder to transfer, without undue delay, all of the following:

SUBPART FCL

(c) Endorsement of licences by examiners. Before specifically authorising an examiner to revalidate or renew ratings or certificates, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.

(d) Endorsement of licence by instructors. Before specifically authorising certain instructors to revalidate a single-engine piston or TMG class rating, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.

(1) points BFCL.315(a)(4)(ii) and BFCL.360(a)(2) of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Regulation (EU) 2018/395; and

(c) The competent authority shall develop procedures to designate examiners for the conduct of skill tests.

(b)To facilitate dissemination and access to the information received from competent authorities under (a), the Agency shall publish this information according to a format prescribed by it.

(b) When revalidating a rating, an instructor or an examiner certificate, the competent authority, or an examiner specifically authorised by the competent authority, shall extend the validity period of the rating or certificate until the end of the relevant month.

#### (b) Only valid ratings and certificates shall be transferred to the new licence document.

(b) The competent authority may also limit, suspend or revoke a licence, rating or certificate upon the written request of the licence or certificate holder.

(c) All skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence conducted during suspension or after the revocation of an examiner’s certificate will be invalid.

(c) The competent authority shall inform applicants of the languages available for examinations.

#### (a) The competent authority shall establish procedures for the issue, record-keeping and oversight of cabin crew attestations in accordance with ARA.GEN.315, ARA.GEN.220 and ARA.GEN.300 respectively.

#### (b) Cabin crew attestations shall be issued, using the format and specifications established in Appendix II to this Part,

(c) The competent authority shall make publicly available:

The competent authority shall take measures in accordance with ARA.GEN.355, including the suspension or revocation of a cabin crew attestation, at least in the following cases:

#### (b) obtaining or maintaining the validity of the cabin crew attestation by falsification of submitted documentary evidence;

#### (c) exercising the privileges of the cabin crew attestation when adversely affected by alcohol or drugs; and

(d) evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the cabin crew attestation.

(a) Before issuing an approval to a training organisation or a commercial air transport operator to provide cabin crew training, the competent authority shall verify that:

(b) If in a Member State organisations may be approved to issue cabin crew attestations, the competent authority shall only grant such approvals to organisations complying with the requirements in (a). Before granting such an approval, the competent authority shall:

SUBPART ATO

(c) Qualification basis and special conditions.

(a) In the case of the introduction of new aircraft programmes, when compliance with the requirements established in this Subpart for FSTD qualification is not possible, the competent authority may issue an interim FSTD qualification level.

#### (a) The competent authority shall continuously monitor the organisation operating the FSTD to verify that:

#### (b) The competent authority shall conduct recurrent evaluations of the FSTD in accordance with the procedures detailed in ARA.FSTD.100. These evaluations shall take place:

(a) Upon receipt of an application for any changes to the FSTD qualification certificate, the competent authority shall comply with the applicable elements of the initial evaluation procedure requirements as described in ARA.FSTD.100(a) and (b).

(b) The competent authority may complete a special evaluation following major changes or when an FSTD appears not to be performing at its initial qualification level.

(c) The competent authority shall always conduct a special evaluation before granting a higher level of qualification to the FSTD.

The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke, as applicable, an FSTD qualification certificate in accordance with ARA.GEN.350 in, but not limited to, the following circumstances:

#### (b) the organisation operating the FSTD can no longer demonstrate that the FSTD complies with its qualification basis; or

#### (c) the organisation operating the FSTD no longer complies with the applicable requirements of Part-ORA.

In addition to the records required in ARA.GEN.220, the competent authority shall keep and update a list of the qualified FSTDs under its supervision, the dates when evaluations are due and when such evaluations were carried out.

SUBPART AeMC

***SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-MEDICAL CENTRES (AeMCs)***

(a) failure to nominate a head of the AeMC;

***SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-MEDICAL CERTIFICATION***

The medical certificate shall conform to the following specifications:

(b) Material: Except for the case of LAPL issued by a GMP the paper or other material used shall prevent or readily show any alterations or erasures. Any entries or deletions to the form shall be clearly authorised by the licensing authority.

(b) the examination report form for class 1 and class 2 applicants; and

(e) The competent authority shall maintain lists:

(b) For the purposes of medical certification and oversight of applicants for and holders of class 1 medical certificates and for the oversight of AMEs and AeMCs, the persons referred to in point (c) shall exchange the following information through EAMR:

(d) The licensing authorities, AMEs and AeMCs referred to in point (c) shall, each time immediately upon having examined an applicant for or a holder of a class 1 medical certificate, enter the data referred to in point (b) into EAMR or update that data where necessary.

(f) The Agency shall ensure the integrity and security of EAMR and the information contained therein by appropriate information technology infrastructure. It shall establish and apply, in consultation with the national competent authorities, the protocols and technological measures necessary to ensure that any access to EAMR and the information contained therein is lawful and secure.

(b) When satisfied that the AME is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority shall issue, revalidate, renew or change the AME certificate for a period not exceeding 3 years, using the form established in appendix VII to this Part.

When developing the continuing oversight programme referred to in ARA.GEN.305, the competent authority shall take into account the number of AMEs and GMPs exercising their privileges within the territory where the competent authority exercises oversight.

(a) The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke an AME certificate in cases where:

#### (a) review examination and assessment reports received from the AeMCs, AMEs and GMPs and inform them of any inconsistencies, mistakes or errors made in the assessment process; and

#### (b) assist AMEs and AeMCs on their request regarding their decision on aero-medical fitness in contentious cases.

The competent authority shall establish a procedure for the review of borderline and contentious cases with independent medical advisors, experienced in the practice of aviation medicine, to consider and advise on an applicant’s fitness for medical certification.

(c) AeMCs and AMEs may only issue medical certificates on the basis of a research protocol if instructed to do so by the competent authority.

(e) The protocol shall be compliant with relevant ethical principles.

## (f) The exercise of licence privileges by licence holders with a medical certificate issued on the basis of the protocol shall be restricted to flights in aircraft registered in the Member States involved in the research protocol. This restriction shall be indicated on the medical certificate.

### (g) The participating competent authorities shall:

***SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO DECLARED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (DTOs)***

#### Upon receiving a notification of a change to the information contained in the declaration of a DTO, the competent authority shall act in accordance with point ARA.DTO.100.

| (¹) as indicated on the qualification certificate | |

for a declared training organisation (DTO)

EASA Form 157 – Issue 2 – Page 1/1

ANNEX VII

SUBPART GEN

(1) organisations subject to a certification obligation shall be:

(b)When the FSTD located outside the territory of the Member States is operated by an organisation certified by a Member State, the Agency shall qualify this FSTD in coordination with the Member State that has certified the organisation that operates such FSTD.

The organisation shall provide the competent authority with any relevant documentation.

(b)Upon revocation or surrender the certificate shall be returned to the competent authority without delay.

(b) the authority acting under the provisions of ARA.GEN.300(d), ARA.GEN.300(e) or ARO.RAMP.

(a) As part of its management system, the organisation shall establish and maintain an occurrence-reporting system, including mandatory and voluntary reporting. For organisations having their principal place of business in a Member State, that system shall meet the requirements of Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 and Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 as well as the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis of those Regulations.

(b) The organisation shall report to the competent authority and, in case of aircraft not registered in a Member State, the State of Registry any safety-related event or condition that endangers or, if not corrected or addressed, could endanger an aircraft, its occupants or any other person, and in particular any accident or serious incident.

(c) Without prejudice to point (b), the organisation shall report to the competent authority and the design approval holder of the aircraft any incident, malfunction, technical defect, exceeding of technical limitations, occurrence that would highlight inaccurate, incomplete or ambiguous information, contained in data established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, or other irregular circumstance that has or may have endangered an aircraft, its occupants or any other person and has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.

(d) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof, reports in accordance with point (c) shall:

(1) be made as soon as practicable, but in any case no later than 72 hours after the organisation has identified the event or condition to which the report relates unless exceptional circumstances prevent this;

(2) be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority, as defined in point ORA.GEN.105;

(3) contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation.

(e) For organisations not having their principal place of business in a Member State:

(1) initial mandatory reports shall:

(i) appropriately safeguard the confidentiality of the identity of the reporter and of the persons mentioned in the report;

(ii) be made as soon as practicable, but in any case, no later than 72 hours after the organisation has become aware of the occurrence unless exceptional circumstances prevent this;

(iii) be made in a form and manner established by the Agency;

(iv) contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation;

(2) where relevant, a follow-up report providing details of actions the organisation intends to take to prevent similar occurrences in the future shall be made as soon as those actions have been identified; those follow-up reports shall:

(i) be sent to relevant entities initially reported to in accordance with points (b) and (c);

(ii) be made in a form and manner established by the Agency.

(a)The organisation shall establish, implement and maintain a management system that includes:

(3) the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the organisation, their evaluation and the management of associated risks, including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness;

(7) any additional relevant requirements prescribed in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and in Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 as well as in the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof.

(c)Notwithstanding point (a), in an organisation providing training only for the LAPL, PPL, SPL or BPL and the associated ratings or certificates, safety risk management and compliance monitoring defined in points (a)(3) and (a)(6) may be accomplished by an organisational review, to be performed at least once every calendar year. The competent authority shall be notified about the results of this review by the organisation without undue delay.

(a)Contracted activities include all activities within the organisation’s scope of approval that are performed by another organisation either itself certified to carry out such activity or if not certified, working under the contracting organisation’s approval. The organisation shall ensure that when contracting or purchasing any part of its activity, the contracted or purchased service or product conforms to the applicable requirements.

#### (b)When the certified organisation contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified in accordance with this Part to carry out such activity, the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of the contracting organisation. The contracting organisation shall ensure that the competent authority is given access to the contracted organisation, to determine continued compliance with the applicable requirements.

#### (a)The organisation shall appoint an accountable manager, who has the authority for ensuring that all activities can be financed and carried out in accordance with the applicable requirements. The accountable manager shall be responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective management system.

(b)A person or group of persons shall be nominated by the organisation, with the responsibility of ensuring that the organisation remains in compliance with the applicable requirements. Such person(s) shall be ultimately responsible to the accountable manager.

(c)The organisation shall have sufficient qualified personnel for the planned tasks and activities to be performed in accordance with the applicable requirements.

(d)The organisation shall maintain appropriate experience, qualification and training records to show compliance with paragraph (c).

(3) supervising the progress of individual students.

(2) previous experience in giving theoretical knowledge instruction and an appropriate theoretical background in the subject on which they will provide theoretical knowledge instruction.

(b) detailed and regular progress reports from instructors including assessments, and regular progress flight tests and ground examinations; and

(a)The ATO shall use an adequate fleet of training aircraft or FSTDs appropriately equipped for the training courses provided. The fleet of aircraft shall be composed of aircraft that comply with all requirements defined in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. Aircraft that fall under points (a), (b), (c) or (d) of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, may be used for training if all of the following conditions are met:

(2) the competent authority has authorised the use of the aircraft for training in the ATO.

(2) that the FSTDs used comply with the relevant requirements of Part-FCL;

(d)Flight test training organisations. Aircraft used for flight test training shall be appropriately equipped with flight testing instrumentation, according to the purpose of the training.

(a)The ATO shall ensure that the students meet all the pre-requisites for training established in Part-Medical, Part-FCL, and, if applicable, as defined in the mandatory part of the operational suitability data established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.

When the ATO is approved to provide training for the instrument rating (IR) in third countries:

— training plan,

(b)The operations manual shall provide relevant information to particular groups of personnel, as flight instructors, flight simulation training instructors, theoretical knowledge instructors, operations and maintenance personnel, and shall include general, technical, route and staff training information.

The ATO may be approved to conduct modular course programmes using distance learning in the following cases:

(c)To this effect, classroom accommodation shall be available either at the principal place of business of the ATO or within a suitable facility elsewhere.

All instructors shall be fully familiar with the requirements of the distance learning course programme.

#### (a)Approval for zero flight-time training (ZFTT), as specified in Part-FCL, shall only be given to ATOs that also have the privileges to conduct commercial air transport operations or ATOs having specific arrangements with commercial air transport operators.

#### (b)Approval for ZFTT shall only be given if the operator has at least 90 days of operational experience on the aeroplane type.

(a)The FFS approved for ZFTT shall be serviceable according to the management system criteria of the ATO.

(b)The motion and the visual system of the FFS shall be fully serviceable, in accordance with the applicable certification specifications for FSTD as mentioned in ORA.FSTD.205.

(1) the relevant requirements of Part-21 are met; and

***REQUIREMENTS FOR ORGANISATIONS OPERATING FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs) AND THE QUALIFICATION OF FSTDs***

(1) any aircraft modifications that are essential for training, testing and checking, whether or not enforced by an airworthiness directive; and

(b)Modifications of the FSTD hardware and software that affect handling, performance and systems operation or any major modifications of the motion or visual system shall be evaluated to determine the impact on the original qualification criteria. The organisation shall prepare amendments for any affected validation tests. The organisation shall test the FSTD to the new criteria.

(2) all FSTD occupants and maintenance personnel are briefed on FSTD safety to ensure that they are aware of all safety equipment and procedures in the FSTD in case of an emergency; and

(b)Applicants for an initial qualification shall provide the competent authority with documentation demonstrating how they will comply with the requirements established in this Regulation. Such documentation shall include the procedure established to ensure compliance with ORA.GEN.130 and ORA.FSTD.230.

(1) the FSTD and the operating organisation remaining in compliance with the applicable requirements;

(a)The holder of an FSTD qualification certificate shall inform the competent authority of any proposed changes to the FSTD, such as:

(b)In case of an upgrade of the FSTD qualification level, the organisation shall apply to the competent authority for an upgrade evaluation. The organisation shall run all validation tests for the requested qualification level. Results from previous evaluations shall not be used to validate FSTD performance for the current upgrade.

#### Prior to returning the FSTD to service at the new location, the organisation shall perform at least one third of the validation tests, and functions and subjective tests to ensure that the FSTD performance meets its original qualification standard. A copy of the test documentation shall be retained together with the FSTD records for review by the competent authority.

#### The competent authority may perform an evaluation of the FSTD after relocation. The evaluation shall be in accordance with the original qualification basis of the FSTD.

(d)If an organisation plans to remove an FSTD from active status for prolonged periods, the competent authority shall be notified and suitable controls established for the period during which the FSTD is inactive.

The organisation shall agree with the competent authority a plan for the de-activation, any storage and re-activation to ensure that the FSTD can be restored to active status at its original qualification level.

(b)The competent authority may perform an evaluation in accordance with the original qualification basis of the FSTD.

(a) all documents describing and proving the initial qualification basis and level of the FSTD for the duration of the FSTD’s lifetime; and

(a) comply with MED.D.005; and

(b) ensuring their continued experience by performing an adequate number of class 1 medical examinations every year.

The AeMC shall establish and maintain a management system that includes the items addressed in ORA.GEN.200 and, in addition, processes:

## (a) for medical certification in compliance with Part-MED; and

### (b) to ensure medical confidentiality at all times.

#### (a)The AeMC shall:

(1) have an aero-medical examiner (AME) nominated as head of the AeMC, with privileges to issue class 1 medical certificates and sufficient experience in aviation medicine to exercise his/her duties; and

(2) have on staff an adequate number of fully qualified AMEs and other technical staff and experts.

(b)The head of the AeMC shall be responsible for coordinating the assessment of examination results and signing reports, certificates, and initial class 1 medical certificates.

The AeMC shall be equipped with medico-technical facilities adequate to perform aero-medical examinations necessary for the exercise of the privileges included in the scope of the approval.

In addition to the records required in ORA.GEN.220, the AeMC shall:

ANNEX VIII

(b) A DTO shall be entitled to also provide the examiner courses referred to in points BFCL.430 and BFCL.460(b)(1) of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 for FE(B), as well as in points SFCL.430 and SFCL.460(b)(1) of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 for FE(S), provided that the DTO has submitted a declaration in accordance with point DTO.GEN.115 and the competent authority has approved the training programme in accordance with point DTO.GEN.230(c).

(c) A DTO shall, together with the declaration, submit to the competent authority the training programme or programmes, which it uses or intends to use to provide the training, as well as its application for approval of the training programme or programmes where such approval is required in accordance with point DTO.GEN.230(c).

A DTO shall no longer be entitled to provide some or all of the training specified in its declaration on the basis of that declaration, where one of the following occurs:

For the purpose of determining whether a DTO is acting in compliance with its declaration, the DTO shall grant access at any time to any facility, aircraft, document, records, data, procedures or any other material relevant to its training activities covered by the declaration, to any person authorised by the competent authority

(a) the safety measures mandated by the competent authority in accordance with point ARA.GEN.135(c);

(c) A DTO shall not designate a person as its representative or its head of training if there are objective indications that he or she cannot be trusted to carry out the tasks listed in point (a) in a manner which safeguards and furthers aviation safety. The fact that a person has been subject to an enforcement measure taken in accordance with point ARA.GEN.355 in the past three years shall be deemed to constitute such an objective indication, unless that person can demonstrate that the finding leading to that measure, by reason of its nature, scale or impact on aviation safety, is not such as to indicate that he or she cannot be trusted to carry out those tasks in that manner.

(c) A DTO shall keep its training programme for three years from the date at which it provided the last training course in accordance with that programme.

(a) A DTO shall establish a training programme for each of the trainings specified in point DTO.GEN.110 which the DTO provides.

(d) Point (c) shall not apply to an organisation also holding an approval issued in accordance with Subpart ATO of Annex VII (Part-ORA) that includes privileges for that training.

## (a) A DTO shall use an adequate fleet of training aircraft or FSTDs appropriately equipped for the training course provided. The fleet of aircraft shall be composed of aircraft that comply with all requirements defined in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. Aircraft that fall under points (a), (b), (c) or (d) of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, may be used for training if all of the following conditions are met:

(a) When providing flight training on an aircraft, a DTO shall only use aerodromes or operating sites that have the appropriate facilities and characteristics to allow training of the relevant manoeuvres, taking into account the training provided and the category and type of aircraft used.

| (¹) In the case of changes, only point 1 and those fields containing changes need to be completed. | |

(⁷) Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3 April 2014 on the reporting, analysis and follow-up of occurrences in civil aviation, amending Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 1321/2007 and (EC) No 1330/2007 (OJ L 122, 24.4.2014, p. 18).