Reform history

This Regulation lays down detailed rules for:

(1) different ratings for pilots’ licences, the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or revoking licences, the privileges and responsibilities of the holders of licences, the conditions for the conversion of existing national pilots’ licences and of national flight engineers’ licences into pilots’ licences, as well as the conditions for the acceptance of licences from third countries;

(2) the certification of persons responsible for providing flight training or flight simulation training and for assessing pilots’ skills;

(3) different medical certificates for pilots, the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or revoking medical certificates, the privileges and responsibilities of the holders of medical certificates;

(4) the certification of aero-medical examiners, as well as the conditions under which general medical practitioners may act as aero-medical examiners;

(5) the periodical aero-medical assessment of cabin crew members, as well as the qualification of persons responsible for this assessment;

(6) the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or revoking cabin crew attestations, as well as the privileges and responsibilities of the holders of cabin crew attestations;

(7) the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or revoking certificates of pilot training organisations and of aero-medical centres involved in the qualification and aero-medical assessment of civil aviation aircrew;

(8) the requirements for the certification of flight simulation training devices and for organisations operating and using those devices;

(9) the requirements for the administration and management system to be fulfilled by the Member States, the Agency and the organisations in relation with the rules referred to in points 1 to 8.

(19) ‘Flight instructor (FI)’ means an instructor with the privileges to provide training, in accordance with Subpart J of Annex I (Part-FCL), in an aircraft;

8. Until  8 April 2021, a Member State may issue an authorisation to a pilot to exercise specified limited privileges to fly aeroplanes under instrument flight rules before the pilot complies with all of the requirements necessary for the issue of an instrument rating in accordance with this Regulation, subject to the following conditions:

9. For licences issued before 19 August 2018, Member States shall comply with the requirements laid down in the second paragraph of point (a) of ARA.FCL.200 as amended by Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1065 (¹) by 31 December 2022 at the latest.

1. Pilots who before this Regulation applies conducted category 1 and 2 flight tests as defined in the Annex to Commission Regulation (EC) No 1702/2003 (²), or who provided instruction to flight test pilots, shall have their flight test qualifications converted into flight test ratings in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation and, where applicable, flight test instructor certificates by the Member State that issued the flight test qualifications.

As regards organisations for which the Agency is the competent authority in accordance with Article 21(1)(b) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008:

(a) Member States shall transfer to the Agency all records related to the oversight of such organisations by 8 April 2013 at the latest;

(b) certification processes initiated before 8 April 2012 by a Member State shall be finalised by that Member State in coordination with the Agency. The Agency shall assume all its responsibilities as competent authority concerning such organisation after the issuance of the certificate by that Member State.

2a.  By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States may decide not to apply until 8 April 2020:

(1) the provisions of Annex I related to pilot licenses for sailplanes and balloons;

(2) the provisions of Annexes VII and VIII to a training organisation providing training only for a national licence that is eligible in accordance with Article 4(3) of Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, for conversion into a Part-FCL light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL) for sailplanes or balloons, a Part-FCL sailplane pilot licence (SPL) or a Part-FCL balloon pilot licence (BPL);

(3) the provisions of Subpart B of Annex I.

4. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States may decide not to apply the provisions of this Regulation until 20 June 2020, to pilots holding a licence and associated medical certificate issued by a third country involved in the non-commercial operation of aircraft as specified in Article 2(1)(b), points (i) or (ii), of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. Member States shall make those decisions publicly available.

(a) An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates shall be submitted to the competent authority in a form and manner established by this authority. The application shall be accompanied by evidence that the applicant complies with the requirements for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence or certificate as well as associated ratings or endorsements, established in this Part and Part-Medical.

(b) Any limitation or extension of the privileges granted by a licence, rating or certificate shall be endorsed in the licence or certificate by the competent authority.

(d) An application for the issue of a licence for another category of aircraft, or for the issue of further ratings or certificates, as well as an amendment, revalidation or renewal of those licences, ratings or certificates shall be submitted to the competent authority which initially issued the pilot licence, except when the pilot has requested a change of competent authority and a transfer of his licensing and medical records to that authority.

(b) Before his/her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least:

(1) in the case of aeroplanes, helicopters and airships: 16 years of age;

(2) in the case of sailplanes and balloons: 14 years of age.

(i) for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence, a private pilot licence, a sailplane pilot licence or a balloon pilot licence, for a period of 24 months;

(a) Balloons. A pilot shall not operate a balloon in commercial air transport or carrying passengers unless he/she has completed in the preceding 180 days:

(b) Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift, airships and sailplanes. A pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers:

(b) Age 65. Except in the case of a holder of a balloon or sailplane pilot licence, the holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.

(c) Age 70. The holder of a balloon or sailplane pilot licence who has attained the age of 70 years shall not act as a pilot of a balloon or a sailplane engaged in commercial air transport.

Applicants for the LAPL shall be:

(a) in the case of aeroplanes and helicopters, at least 17 years of age;

(b) in the case of sailplanes and balloons, at least 16 years of age.

(a)Applicants for an LAPL(A) and an LAPL(H) shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through examinations on the following subjects:

(1) common subjects:

— Air law and air traffic control (ATC) procedures;

— Human performance;

— Meteorology;

— Communications;

(2) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:

— Principles of flight;

— Operational procedures,;

— Flight performance and planning;

(b)Applicants for an LAPL(B) and an LAPL(S) shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through examinations on the following:

(1) common subjects:

— Air law and air traffic control (ATC) procedures,

— Human performance,

— Meteorology, and

— Communications.

(2) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:

— Principles of flight,

— Operational procedures;

— Flight performance and planning,

— Aircraft general knowledge, and

— Navigation.

(b) Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) or an SPL with TMG extension. Applicants for an LAPL(A) holding an LAPL(S) or an SPL with TMG extension shall have completed at least 21 hours of flight time on TMGs after the endorsement of the TMG extension and complied with the requirements of point FCL.135.A(a) on aeroplanes.

### **FCL.105.S**   LAPL(S) — Privileges and conditions

(a) The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for sailplanes are to act as PIC on sailplanes and powered sailplanes. In order to exercise the privileges on a TMG, the holder shall comply with the requirements in FCL.135.S.

(b) Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only carry passengers once they have completed 10 hours of flight time or 30 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issuance of the licence.

### **FCL.110.S**   LAPL(S) — Experience requirements and crediting

(a) Applicants for an LAPL(S) shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction in sailplanes, or powered sailplanes, including at least:

(b) Of the 15 hours required in (a), a maximum of 7 hours may be completed in a TMG.

(c) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements of point (a).

The amount of credit shall be decided by the DTO or the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:

### **FCL.130.S**   LAPL(S) — Launch methods

(a) The privileges of the LAPL(S) shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed:

(b) The completion of the additional training launches shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor.

(c) In order to maintain their privileges in each launch method, pilots shall complete a minimum of 5 launches during the last 24 months, except for bungee launch, in which case pilots shall have completed only 2 launches.

(d) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (c), he/she shall perform the additional number of launches flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges.

### **FCL.135.S**   LAPL(S) — Extension of privileges to TMG

The privileges of an LAPL(S) shall be extended to a TMG when the pilot has completed, at a DTO or at an ATO, at least:

(a) 6 hours of flight instruction on a TMG, including:

(1) 4 hours of dual flight instruction;

(2) 1 solo cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be performed;

(b) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in a TMG. During this skill test, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the TMG in the following subjects:

— Principles of flight,

— Operational procedures,

— Flight performance and planning,

— Aircraft general knowledge,

### **FCL.140.S**   LAPL(S) — Recency requirements

(a) Sailplanes and powered sailplanes. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on sailplanes or powered sailplanes when they have completed on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs, in the last 24 months, at least:

(b) TMG. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a TMG when they have:

(c) Holders of an LAPL(S) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) or (b) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges:

### **FCL.105.B**   LAPL(B) — Privileges

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for balloons are to act as PIC on hot-air balloons or hot-air airships with a maximum of 3 400 m³ envelope capacity or gas balloons with a maximum of 1 260 m³ envelope capacity, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board of the balloon.

### **FCL.110.B**   LAPL(B) — Experience requirements and crediting

(a) Applicants for an LAPL(B) shall have completed on balloons of the same class at least 16 hours of flight instruction, including at least:

(b) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC on balloons may be credited towards the requirements of point (a).

The amount of credit shall be decided by the DTO or the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:

### **FCL.130.B**   LAPL(B) — Extension of privileges to tethered flights

(a) The privileges of the LAPL(B) shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed at least 3 tethered instruction flights.

(b) The completion of the additional training shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor.

(c) In order to maintain this privilege, pilots shall complete a minimum of 2 tethered flights during the last 24 months.

(d) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (c), he/she shall perform the additional number of tethered flights flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges.

### **FCL.135.B**   LAPL(B) — Extension of privileges to another balloon class

The privileges of the LAPL(B) shall be limited to the class of balloons in which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed in the other class, at a DTO or at an ATO, at least:

(a) 5 dual instruction flights; or

(b) in the case of an LAPL(B) for hot-air balloons wishing to extend their privileges to hot-air airships, 5 hours of dual flight instruction time; and

(c) a skill test, during which they shall demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other class in the following subjects:

### **FCL.140.B**   LAPL(B) — Recency requirements

(a) Holders of an LAPL(B) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed, in one class of balloons in the last 24 months, at least:

(b) Holders of an LAPL(B) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges:

#### SUBPART C

#### ***PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL), SAILPLANE PILOT LICENCE (SPL) AND BALLOON PILOT LICENCE (BPL)***

### **FCL.200**   Minimum age

(a) An applicant for a PPL shall be at least 17 years of age;

(b) An applicant for a BPL or an SPL shall be at least 16 years of age.

### **FCL.205**   Conditions

Applicants for the issue of a PPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating for the aircraft used in the skill test, as established in Subpart H.

### **FCL.210**   Training course

(a) Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall complete a training course at a DTO or at an ATO.

(b) The course shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges of the BPL, SPL or PPL applied for.

(c) Theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction may be completed at a DTO or at an ATO different from the one where applicants have commenced their training.

### **FCL.215**   Theoretical knowledge examination

(a)Applicants for a PPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through examinations in the following subjects:

(1) common subjects:

— Air law,

— Human performance,

— Meteorology, and

— Communications; and

— Navigation.

(2) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:

— Principles of flight,

— Operational procedures,

— Flight performance and planning, and

— Aircraft general knowledge.

(b)Applicants for a BPL or SPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted through examinations in the following subjects:

(1) common subjects:

— Air law,

— Human performance,

— Meteorology, and

— Communications.

(2) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:

— Principles of flight,

— perational procedures,

— Flight performance and planning,

— Aircraft general knowledge, and

— Navigation.

(a) Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall demonstrate through the completion of a skill test the ability to perform, as PIC on the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with competency appropriate to the privileges granted.

(b) An applicant for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of aircraft, or a group of balloons to be used for the skill test.

(c) Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) or an SPL with a TMG extension. Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an LAPL(S) or an SPL with a TMG extension shall have completed:

(b) Applicants holding a BPL and qualified to fly hot-air airships shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such airships up to a maximum of 5 hours.

### **FCL.205.S**   SPL — Privileges and conditions

(a) The privileges of the holder of an SPL are to act as PIC on sailplanes and powered sailplanes. In order to exercise the privileges on a TMG, the holder shall have to comply with the requirements in FCL.135.S.

(b) Holders of an SPL shall:

(c) Notwithstanding (b)(2), the holder of an SPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for:

### **FCL.210.S**   SPL — Experience requirements and crediting

(a) Applicants for an SPL shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including at least the requirements specified in FCL.110.S.

(b) Applicants for an SPL holding an LAPL(S) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issue of an SPL.

Applicants for an SPL who held an LAPL(S) within the period of 2 years before the application shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.

Crediting. Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximum of 7 hours. The amount of credit given shall in any case not include the requirements in of FCL.110.S(a)(2) to (a)(4).

### **FCL.220.S**   SPL — Launch methods

The privileges of the SPL shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may be removed and the new privileges exercised when the pilot complies with the requirements in FCL.130.S.

### **FCL.230.S**   SPL — Recency requirements

Holders of an SPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when complying with the recency requirements in FCL.140.S.

### **FCL.205.B**   BPL — Privileges and conditions

(a) The privileges of the holder of a BPL are to act as PIC on balloons.

(b) Holders of a BPL shall be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have:

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the holder of a BPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for:

### **FCL.210.B**   BPL — Experience requirements and crediting

(a) Applicants for a BPL shall have completed on balloons in the same class and group at least 16 hours of flight instruction, including at least:

(b) Applicants for a BPL holding an LAPL(B) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issue of a BPL.

Applicants for a BPL who held an LAPL(B) within the period of 2 years before the application shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.

### **FCL.220.B**   BPL — Extension of privileges to tethered flights

The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removed when the pilot complies with the requirements in FCL.130.B.

### **FCL.225.B**   BPL — Extension of privileges to another balloon class or group

The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to the class and group of balloons in which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has:

(a) in the case of an extension to another class within the same group, complied with the requirements in FCL.135.B;

(b) in the case of an extension to another group within the same class of balloons, completed at least:

(1) 2 instruction flights on a balloon of the relevant group; and

(2) the following hours of flight time as PIC on balloons:

(i) for balloons with an envelope capacity between 3 401 m³ and 6 000 m³, at least 100 hours;

(ii) for balloons with an envelope capacity between 6 001 m³ and 10 500 m³, at least 200 hours;

(iii) for balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 10 500 m³, at least 300 hours;

(iv) for gas balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 1 260 m³, at least 50 hours.

### **FCL.230.B**   BPL — Recency requirements

(a) Holders of a BPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed in one class of balloons in the last 24 months at least:

(b) Holders of a BPL shall only operate a balloon of the same a group of the balloon in which the training flight is completed or a balloon of a group with a smaller envelope size:

(c) Holders of a BPL who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges:

(d) In the case of (c)(1) the holder of the BPL shall only operate a balloon of the same group of the balloon in which the proficiency check is completed or a balloon of a group with a smaller envelope size.

Except as provided in FCL.825, operations under IFR on an aeroplane, helicopter, airship or powered-lift aircraft shall only be conducted by holders of:

(a) a PPL, CPL, MPL and ATPL, and

(b) except when undergoing skill tests, proficiency checks or when receiving dual instruction, an IR with privileges appropriate to the applicable airspace requirements and to the category of aircraft.

(a) Holders of a pilot licence shall not act in any capacity as pilots of an aircraft unless they have a valid and appropriate class or type rating, except in any of the following cases:

(a) Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes, TMG or sailplanes shall only undertake aerobatic flights when they hold the appropriate rating.

(c) The privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to the aircraft category in which the flight instruction was completed. The privileges will be extended to another category of aircraft if the pilot holds a licence for that aircraft category and has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights covering the full aerobatic training syllabus in that category of aircraft.

(c) Balloons. If the privileges of an LAPL for balloons or a BPL are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall complete at least 2 instruction flights at night of at least 1 hour each.

(a) Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a mountain rating are to conduct flights with aeroplanes or TMG to and from surfaces designated as requiring such a rating by the appropriate authorities designated by the Member States.

The initial mountain rating may be obtained either on:

### **FCL.830**   Sailplane Cloud Flying Rating

(a) Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly sailplanes shall only operate a sailplane or a powered sailplane, excluding TMG, within cloud when they hold a sailplane cloud flying rating.

(b) Applicants for a sailplane cloud flying rating shall have completed at least:

(1) 30 hours as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issue of the licence;

(2) a training course at a DTO or at an ATO, including:

(i) theoretical knowledge instruction; and

(ii) at least 2 hours of dual flight instruction in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments, of which a maximum of one hour may be completed on TMGs; and

(3) a skill test with an FE qualified for this purpose.

(c) Holders of an EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited against the requirement of (b)(2)(i). By way of derogation from point (b)(2)(ii), at least one hour of dual flight instruction in a sailplane or powered sailplane, excluding TMG, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments shall be completed.

(d) Holders of a cloud flying rating shall only exercise their privileges when they have completed in the last 24 months at least 1 hour of flight time, or 5 flights as PIC exercising the privileges of the cloud flying rating, in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs.

(e) Holders of a cloud flying rating who do not comply with the requirements in point (d) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges:

(1) undertake a proficiency check with an FE qualified for this purpose; or

(2) perform the additional flight time or flights required in point (d) with a qualified instructor.

(f) Holders of a valid EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited in full against the requirements in point (d).

### (c) **Credit towards further ratings and for the purpose of revalidation**

(1) Applicants for further instructor certificates may be credited with the teaching and learning skills already demonstrated for the instructor certificate held.

(a) a PPL, an SPL, a BPL and a LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category;

(b) class and type ratings for single-pilot aircraft, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes; class and group extensions for balloons and class recencies for sailplanes;

(g) a towing, aerobatic or, in the case of FIs(S), a cloud flying rating, provided that such privileges are held and the FIs have demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified in accordance with point (j);

(1) they have completed at least 50 hours or 150 launches of flight instruction in sailplanes in the case of FI(S), at least 50 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction in balloons in the case of FI(B) and 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category in all other cases;

(e) for an FI(S), have completed 100 hours of flight time and 200 launches as PIC on sailplanes. Additionally, where the applicant wishes to give flight instruction on TMGs, he/she shall have completed 30 hours of flight time as PIC on TMGs and an additional assessment of competence on a TMG in accordance with FCL.935 with an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i);

(f) for an FI(B), have completed 75 hours of balloon flight time as PIC, of which at least 15 hours have to be in the class for which flight instruction will be given.

(C) in the case of an FI(S), at least 60 take-offs on or 30 hours of flight instruction in sailplanes, powered sailplanes or TMG as FIs or as examiners;

(D) in the case of an FI(B), at least 6 hours of flight instruction in balloons as FIs or as examiners;

(2) For at least each alternate revalidation in the case of FI(A) or FI(H), or each third revalidation, in the case of FI(As), FI(S) and FI(B), holders of the relevant FI certificate shall pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

An applicant for an IRI certificate shall:

(a) for an IRI(A):

(1) have completed at least 800 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shall be in aeroplanes; and

(2) in the case of applicants of an IRI(A) for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements of paragraphs FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(1) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 250 hours shall be instrument flight time in helicopters; and

(2) in the case of applicants for an IR(H) for multi-engine helicopters, meet the requirements of point FCL.905.FI(h)(3)(ii);

(c) for an IRI(As), have completed at least 300 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 100 hours shall be instrument flight time in airships.

(d) FE(S). The privileges of an FE for sailplanes are to conduct:

(e) FE(B). The privileges of an FE for balloons are to conduct:

(i) hold or have held an ATPL(A) and a type rating for the applicable type of aeroplane;

(i) hold or have held a CPL(A) or an ATPL(A) and a type rating for the applicable type of aeroplane;

(ii) hold an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable class or type of aeroplane;

(iii) have at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of single-pilot aeroplanes;

(c) FIE(As), (S), (B). The privileges of an FIE on sailplanes, powered sailplanes, balloons and airships are to conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of instructor certificates on the applicable aircraft category, provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.

(d) FIE(S). Applicants for an FIE certificate for sailplanes shall:

(e) FIE(B). Applicants for an FIE certificate for balloons shall:

### 1. LAPL, PPL, BPL and SPL

1.1.For the issue of an LAPL, the holder of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited with theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in point FCL.120. However, the subject ‘navigation’ shall only be subject to such a credit in the case of an LAPL(A) holder who applies for the issue of an LAPL(H) or an LAPL(H) holder who applies for the issue of an LAPL(A).

1.2.For the issue of an LAPL(A), an LAPL(H) or a PPL, holders of a PPL, CPL or ATPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited with theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in point FCL.215(a)(1).

1.2aFor the issue of an LAPL(B), an LAPL(S), a BPL or an SPL, holders of a licence in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited with theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in point FCL.215(b)(1).

1.3.For the issue of a PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be credited in full towards the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination requirements.

1.4.Notwithstanding paragraph 1.2, for the issue of an LAPL(A), the holder of an LAPL(S) with TMG extension shall demonstrate an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the single-engine piston aeroplane-land class in accordance with FCL.135.A(a)(2).

(a) have completed 150 hours flight time;

(5) 50 hours in airships, if applicants hold a CPL(As);

| (¹)Must be performed by sole reference to instruments. (^*1)May be performed in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II. (²)May be performed in either Section 4 or Section 5. (³)To establish or maintain PBN privileges one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. | |

| SECTION 4 — 3D OPERATIONS (⁽⁺⁾) | |

| SECTION 5 — 2D OPERATIONS (⁽⁺⁾) | |

| (⁺)  To establish or maintain PBN privileges one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD (^*1)To be performed in Section 4 or Section 5. (^*2)Multi-engine helicopter only. (^*3)Only one item to be tested. | |

| 5. | Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise, an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (---->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A = aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred (*) items of Section 3B and, for multi-engine, Section 6, shall be flown solely by reference to instruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or proficiency check. If the starred (*) items are not flown solely by reference to instruments during the skill test or proficiency check, and when there is no crediting of IR privileges, the class or type rating will be restricted to VFR only. (d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where the required experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. Section 3A is not required if Section 3B is completed. (e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears. (f) An FSTD shall be used for practical training for type or ME class ratings if they form part of an approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); (ii) the qualifications of the instructors; (iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course; and (iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (g) If privileges for multi-pilot operation are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for single-pilot operations shall: (1) complete a bridge course containing manoeuvres and procedures including MCC as well as the exercises of Section 7 using tthreat and error management (TEM), CRM and human factors at an ATO; and (2) pass a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations. (h) If privileges for single-pilot operations are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for multi-pilot operations shall be trained at an ATO and checked for the following additional manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operations: (1) for SE aeroplanes, 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B;and (2) for ME aeroplanes, 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B. (i) Pilots holding privileges for both single-pilot and multi-pilot operations in accordance with points (g) and (h) may revalidate privileges for both types of operations by completing a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations in addition to the exercises referred to in points (h)(1) or (h)(2), as applicable, in single-pilot operations. (j) If a skill test or a proficiency check is completed in multi-pilot operations only, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. The restriction shall be removed when pilots comply with point (h). (k) The training, testing and checking shall follow the table mentioned below. (1) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for single-pilot privileges (2) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for multi-pilot privileges (3) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding single-pilot privileges seeking multi-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (4) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding multi-pilot privileges seeking single-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (5) Training at an ATO and checking requirements for combined revalidation and renewal of single and multi-pilot privileges **(1)** **(2)** **(3)** **(4)** **(5)** Type of operation **SP** **MP** **SP** **MP (initial)** **MP** **SP (initial)** **SP + MP** *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training, testing and checking (SE aeroplanes)* *Training, testing and checking (ME aeroplanes)* *SE aeroplanes* *ME aeroplanes* Initial issue SP complex Sections 1-6 1-7 Sections 1-6 1-6 Sections 1-7 Sections 1-6 MCC CRM Human factors TEM Section 7 Sections 1-6 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B Revalidation SP complex n/a n/a Sections 1–6 1-6 n/a Sections 1–6 n/a n/a n/a n/a MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Section 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Sections 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B Renewal SP complex FCL.740 Sections 1-6 1-6 FCL.740 Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation (l) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A Instructor initials when training completed Tested or checked in FSTD or A Examiner initials when test or check completed SECTION 1 1 1.1 Departure Preflight including: — documentation; — mass and balance; — weather briefing; and — NOTAM. OTD 1.2 Pre-start checks 1.2.1 External OTD P# P M 1.2.2 Internal OTD P# P M 1.3 Engine starting: normal malfunctions. P----> ----> M 1.4 Taxiing P----> ----> M 1.5 Pre-departure checks: engine run-up (if applicable) P----> ----> M 1.6 Take-off procedure: — normal with flight manual flap settings; and — crosswind (if conditions are available). P----> ----> M 1.7 Climbing: — Vx/Vy; — turns onto headings; and — level off. P----> ----> M 1.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> M SECTION 2 2 2.1 Airwork (visual meteorological conditions (VMC)) Straight and level flight at various airspeeds including flight at critically low airspeed with and without flaps (including approach to V Vmca when applicable) P----> ----> 2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank) P----> ----> M 2.3 Stalls and recovery: (i) clean stall; (ii) approach to stall in descending turn with bank with approach configuration and power; (iii) approach to stall in landing configuration and power; and (iv) approach to stall, climbing turn with take-off flap and climb power (single-engine aeroplanes only) P----> ----> M 2.4 Handling using autopilot and flight director (may be conducted in Section 3), if applicable P----> ----> M 2.5 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 3A 3A 3A.1 En route procedures VFR (see B.5 (c) and (d)) Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading P----> ----> 3A.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed P----> ----> 3A.3 Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs P----> ----> 3A.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable) P----> ----> 3A.5 Flight management (flight log, routine checks including fuel, systems and icing) P----> ----> 3A.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> SECTION 3B 3B 3B.1* Instrument flight Departure IFR P----> ----> M 3B.2* En route IFR P----> ----> M 3B.3* Holding procedures P----> ----> M 3B.4* 3D operations to decision height/altitude (DH/A) of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure (autopilot may be used to the final approach segment vertical path intercept) P----> ----> M 3B.5* 2D operations to minimum descent height/altitude (MDH/A) P----> ----> M 3B.6* Flight exercises including simulated failure of the compass and attitude indicator: — rate 1 turns; and — recoveries from unusual attitudes. P----> ----> M 3B.7* Failure of localiser or glideslope P----> ----> 3B.8* ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M Intentionally left blank SECTION 4 4 4.1 Arrival and landings Aerodrome arrival procedure P----> ----> M 4.2 Normal landing P----> ----> M 4.3 Flapless landing P----> ----> M 4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) P----> ----> 4.5 Approach and landing with idle power from up to 2 000 ft above the runway (single-engine aeroplanes only) P----> ----> 4.6 Go-around from minimum height P----> ----> M 4.7 Night go-around and landing (if applicable) P----> ----> 4.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 5 5 Abnormal and emergency procedures (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4.) 5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed P----> ----> M 5.2 Simulated engine failure after take-off (single-engine aeroplanes only) P M 5.3 Simulated forced landing without power (single-engine aeroplanes only) P M 5.4 Simulated emergencies: (i) fire or smoke in flight; and (ii) systems' malfunctions as appropriate P----> ----> 5.5 ME aeroplanes and TMG training only: engine shutdown and restart (at a safe altitude if performed in the aircraft) P----> ----> 5.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 6 6.1* Simulated asymmetric flight (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5.) Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II) P----> --->X M 6.2* Asymmetric approach and go-around P----> ----> M 6.3* Asymmetric approach and full-stop landing P----> ----> M 6.4 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 7 7 UPRT 7.1 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 7.1.1 Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 7.1.1.1 At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD training envelope. P-----> ----> 7.1.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 7.1.1.3 Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 7.1.1.4 Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, and visual approach P-----> ----> 7.2 7.2.1 Upset recovery training Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration P-----> ----> 7.2.2 The following upset exercises: — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles. P X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise 7.3 Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P---> -----> 7.4 Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH 15 m (50 ft) above the runway threshold — after touchdown (baulked landing) — In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. P-----> -----> | | | | | | | | | |

| 6. | Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable. OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (----->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A = aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. (d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise. (e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualifications of the instructors; (ii) the qualification and the amount of training provided on the course in an FSTD; and (iii) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations. (g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in single-pilot operations. (h) In the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, when a skill test or proficiency check is performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. If privileges of single-pilot are sought, the manoeuvres/procedures in 2.5, 3.8.3.4, 4.4, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure from Section 3.4 have to be completed in addition as single-pilot. (i) In the case of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with FCL.720.A(e), applicants shall fulfil the same requirements as other applicants for the type rating except for the practical exercises relating to the take-off and landing phases. (j) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR PROF. CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A Instructor initials when training completed Tested or checked in FSTD or A Examiner initials when test or check completed SECTION 1 1 Flight preparation 1.1.  Performance calculation OTD P 1.2.  Aeroplane external visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection OTD P# P 1.3.  Cockpit inspection P-----> -----> 1.4.  Use of checklist prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies P-----> -----> M 1.5.  Taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions or instructions of instructor P-----> -----> 1.6.  Before take-off checks P-----> -----> M SECTION 2 2 Take-offs 2.1.  Normal take-offs with different flap settings, including expedited take-off P-----> -----> 2.2*  Instrument take-off; transition to instrument flight is required during rotation or immediately after becoming airborne P-----> -----> 2.3.  Crosswind take-off P-----> -----> 2.4.  Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P-----> -----> 2.5.  Take-offs with simulated engine failure: 2.5.1*  shortly after reaching V2 P-----> -----> (In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category or commuter category aeroplanes, the engine failure shall not be simulated until reaching a minimum height of 500 ft above the runway end. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure shortly after reaching V2) 2.5.2*  between V1 and V2 P X M FFS only 2.6.  Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed before reaching V1 P-----> ---->X M SECTION 3 3 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 3.1.  Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 3.1.1.  At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD training envelope P-----> ----> 3.1.2.  Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 3.1.3.  Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 3.1.4.  Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, and visual approach P-----> ----> 3.2.  Tuck under and Mach buffets (if applicable), and other specific flight characteristics of the aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) P-----> ---->X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 3.3.  Normal operation of systems and controls engineer's panel (if applicable) OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.  Normal and abnormal operations of following systems: M A mandatory minimum of 3 abnormal items shall be selected from 3.4.0 to 3.4.14 inclusive 3.4.0.  Engine (if necessary propeller) OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.1.  Pressurisation and air conditioning OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.2.  Pitot/static system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.3.  Fuel system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.4.  Electrical system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.5.  Hydraulic system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.6.  Flight control and trim system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.7.  Anti-icing/de-icing system, glare shield heating OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.8.  Autopilot/flight director OTD P-----> -----> M (single pilot only) 3.4.9.  Stall warning devices or stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.10.  Ground proximity warning system, weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P-----> -----> 3.4.11.  Radios, navigation equipment, instruments, FMS OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.12.  Landing gear and brake OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.13.  Slat and flap system OTD -----> 3.4.14.  Auxiliary power unit (APU) OTD P-----> -----> Intentionally left blank 3.6.  Abnormal and emergency procedures: M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.6.1 to 3.6.9 inclusive 3.6.1.  Fire drills, e.g. engine, APU, cabin, cargo compartment, flight deck, wing and electrical fires including evacuation P-----> -----> 3.6.2.  Smoke control and removal P-----> -----> 3.6.3.  Engine failures, shutdown and restart at a safe height P-----> -----> 3.6.4.  Fuel dumping (simulated) P-----> -----> 3.6.5.  Wind shear at take-off/landing P X FFS only 3.6.6.  Simulated cabin pressure failure/emergency descent P-----> -----> 3.6.7.  Incapacitation of flight crew member P-----> -----> 3.6.8.  Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate aeroplane flight manual (AFM) P-----> -----> 3.6.9.  TCAS event OTD P-----> An aeroplane shall not be used FFS only 3.7.  Upset recovery training 3.7.1.  Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration. P FFS qualified for the training task only X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise 3.7.2.  The following upset exercises: — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles P FFS qualified for the training task only X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 3.8.  Instrument flight procedures 3.8.1*  Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions P-----> -----> M 3.8.2*  Holding procedures P-----> -----> 3.8.3*  3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure *Note:* According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taking into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 3.8.3.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). 3.8.3.1*  Manually, without flight director P-----> -----> M (skill test only) 3.8.3.2*  Manually, with flight director P-----> -----> 3.8.3.3*  With autopilot P-----> -----> 3.8.3.4*  Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure. In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the non-precision approach as described in 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height/altitude (OCH/A); however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.8.3.4. P-----> -----> M 3.8.3.5.*  Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach after passing the outer marker (OM) within a distance of not more than 4 NM until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the non-precision approach as described in 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published OCH/A; however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.8.3.4. P-----> -----> M 3.8.4*  2D operations down to the MDH/A P*---> -----> M 3.8.5.  Circling approach under the following conditions: (a)*  approach to the authorised minimum circling approach altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by: (b) circling approach to another runway at least 90° off centreline from the final approach used in item (a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude. *Remark:* If (a) and (b) are not possible due to ATC reasons, a simulated low visibility pattern may be performed. P*---> -----> 3.8.6.  Visual approaches P----> -----> SECTION 4 4 Missed approach procedures 4.1.  Go-around with all engines operating* during a 3D operation on reaching decision height P*---> -----> 4.2.  Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P*---> -----> 4.3.  Other missed approach procedures P*---> -----> 4.4*  Manual go-around with the critical engine simulated inoperative after an instrument approach on reaching DH, MDH or MAPt P*-----> -----> M 4.5.  Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH; — after touchdown (baulked landing) In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. P-----> -----> SECTION 5 5 Landings 5.1.  Normal landings* with visual reference established when reaching DA/H following an instrument approach operation P 5.2.  Landing with simulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position P-----> An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 5.3.  Crosswind landings (aircraft, if practicable) P-----> -----> 5.4.  Traffic pattern and landing without extended or with partly extended flaps and slats P-----> -----> 5.5.  Landing with critical engine simulated inoperative P-----> -----> M 5.6.  Landing with two engines inoperative: — aeroplanes with three engines: the centre engine and one outboard engine as far as practicable according to data of the AFM; and — aeroplanes with four engines: two engines at one side P X M FFS only (skill test only) *General remarks:* Special requirements for the extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m), i.e. CAT II/III operations. SECTION 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures, all aeroplane equipment required for type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 6.1*  Rejected take-off at minimum authorised runway visual range (RVR) P*-----> ---->X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise M* 6.2*  CAT II/III approaches: in simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH, using flight guidance system. Standard procedures of crew coordination (task sharing, call-out procedures, mutual surveillance, information exchange and support) shall be observed. P-----> -----> M 6.3*  Go-around: after approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training shall also include a go-around due to (simulated) insufficient RVR, wind shear, aeroplane deviation in excess of approach limits for a successful approach, ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching DH, and go-around with simulated airborne equipment failure. P-----> -----> M* 6.4*  Landing(s): with visual reference established at DH following an instrument approach. Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed. P-----> -----> M *NOTE:* CAT II/III operations shall be performed in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements. | | | | |

| 3.8.3.4*  Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure. In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the non-precision approach as described in 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height/altitude (OCH/A); however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.8.3.4. | P-----> | -----> | | M | |

| 3.8.3.5.*  Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach after passing the outer marker (OM) within a distance of not more than 4 NM until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the non-precision approach as described in 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published OCH/A; however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.8.3.4. | P-----> | -----> | | M | |

(1) light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), the pilot shall hold at least a valid LAPL medical certificate;

(2) private pilot licence (PPL), a sailplane pilot licence (SPL) or a balloon pilot licence (BPL), the pilot shall hold at least a valid class 2 medical certificate;

(3) SPL or a BPL involved in commercial sailplane or balloon flights, the pilot shall hold at least a valid class 2 medical certificate;

(4) commercial pilot licence (CPL), a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL) or an airline transport pilot licence (ATPL), the pilot shall hold a valid class 1 medical certificate.

(a) Without prejudice to Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council (³) the competent authority shall implement a system to appropriately collect, analyse and disseminate safety information.

(b) The competent authority shall establish and keep up-to-date a list of all organisation certificates, FSTD qualification certificates and personnel licences, certificates and attestations it issued, DTO declarations it received and the DTO training programmes it verified or approved for compliance with Annex I (Part-FCL).

(da) Notwithstanding points (a) to (d), in the case of DTOs, if during oversight or by any other means the competent authority finds evidence indicating non-compliance with the essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation by a DTO, the competent authority shall:

(e) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the authority of a Member State acting in accordance with point ARA.GEN.300(d) identifies any non-compliance with the essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation by an organisation certified by, or having made a declaration to, the competent authority of another Member State or the Agency, it shall inform that competent authority of that non-compliance.

### (a)Upon receiving a licence holder’s request for a change of competent authority as specified in point FCL.015(d) of Annex I (Part-FCL), the receiving competent authority shall, without undue delay, request the competent authority of the licence holder to transfer, without undue delay, all of the following:

### (d)The receiving competent authority shall immediately notify the transferring competent authority once it has reissued the licence and medical certificate to the licence holder and the licence holder has surrendered the licence and medical certificate pursuant to point (c). Until such a notification is received, the transferring competent authority remains responsible for the licence and the medical certificate originally issued to that licence holder.

SUBPART FCL

### In addition to the records required in ARA.GEN.220(a), the competent authority shall include in its system of record-keeping results of theoretical knowledge examinations and the assessments of pilots’ skills.

**ARA.FCL.200**   Procedure for issue, revalidation or renewal of a licence, rating or certificate

### (c) Endorsement of licence by examiners. Before specifically authorising certain examiners to revalidate or renew ratings or certificates, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.

(d) Endorsement of licence by instructors. Before specifically authorising certain instructors to revalidate a single-engine piston or TMG class rating, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.

(3) the licence holder no longer complies with the applicable requirements of Part-FCL;

(a) The competent authority shall put in place the necessary arrangements and procedures to allow applicants to undergo theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with the applicable requirements of Part-FCL.

#### (d) evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the cabin crew attestation.

#### **ARA.CC.200**   Approval of organisations to provide cabin crew training or to issue cabin crew attestations

### (a) Before issuing an approval to a training organisation or a commercial air transport operator to provide cabin crew training, the competent authority shall verify that:

(b) If in a Member State organisations may be approved to issue cabin crew attestations, the competent authority shall only grant such approvals to organisations complying with the requirements in (a). Before granting such an approval, the competent authority shall:

SUBPART ATO

### **ARA.ATO.105**   Oversight Programme

(e) Where the data constitutes personal data as defined in point a of Article 2 of Regulation (EC) No 45/2001 (⁴), they shall, each time when entering or updating that data, inform, *ex ante*, the applicant for or holder of the class 1 certificate thereof.

(b) If the declaration does not contain the required information, or contains information that indicates a non-compliance with the essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation, the competent authority shall act in accordance with point ARA.GEN.350(da).

#### (a) Upon receiving the training programme of a DTO, and any changes thereto, notified to it in accordance with point DTO.GEN.115(c) of Annex VIII (Part-DTO) or the application for approval of the training programme of a DTO submitted to it in accordance with point DTO.GEN.230(c) of that Annex, the competent authority shall verify the compliance of those training programmes with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL).

The flight crew licence issued by a Member State in accordance with Part-FCL shall conform to the following specifications:

(III) serial number of the licence commencing with the UN country code of the State of licence issue and followed by ‘FCL’ and a code of numbers and/or letters in Arabic numerals and in Latin script;

(XII) ratings and certificates: class, type, instructor certificates, etc., with dates of expiry. Radio telephony (R/T) privileges may appear on the licence form or on a separate certificate;

## Appendix II to ANNEX VI PART-ARA

Instructions:

## (b) Size shall be either 105mm × 74mm (one-eighth A4) or 85mm × 54mm, and the material used shall prevent or readily show any alterations or erasures.

## (c) The document shall be printed in English and such other languages as the competent authority deems appropriate.

## (e) The cabin crew attestation is recognised in all Member States and it is not necessary to exchange the document when working in another Member State.

## Appendix III to ANNEX VI PART-ARA

### **FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE QUALIFICATION CERTIFICATE**

## EASA Form 145 shall be used for the FSTD qualification certificate. This document shall contain the FSTD Specification including any limitation(s) and special authorisation(s) or approval(s) as appropriate to the FSTD concerned. The qualification certificate shall be printed in English and in any other language(s) determined by the competent authority.

### Convertible FSTDs shall have a separate qualification certificate for each aircraft type. Different engine and equipment fit on one FSTD shall not require separate qualification certificates. All qualification certificates shall carry a serial number prefixed by a code in letters, which shall be specific to that FSTD. The letter code shall be specific to the competent authority of issue.

#### Appendix V to ANNEX VI PART-ARA

#### Appendix VI to ANNEX VI PART-ARA

#### (BLANK PAGE)

### Appendix VII to ANNEX VI PART-ARA

Appendix VIII to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)

**Training programme approval**

for a declared training organisation (DTO)

| *Training programme(s) approved:* Examiner standardisation — FE(S), FIE(S), FE(B), FIE(B) (^*2) Examiner refresher seminar — FE(S), FIE(S), FE(B), FIE(B) (^*2) | *Doc reference:* | *Remarks:* |

| The above-mentioned training programme(s) has (have) been verified by the above-mentioned competent authority and found to be in compliance with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011. | | |

| (^*1)‘European Union’ to be deleted for non-EU Member States. (^*2)To be adjusted as applicable. EASA Form XXX Issue 1 — Page 1/1 | | |

(a)The organisation shall report to the competent authority, and to any other organisation required by the State of the operator to be informed, any accident, serious incident and occurrence as defined in Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council (⁵) and Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council (⁶).

(b)Without prejudice to paragraph (a) the organisation shall report to the competent authority and to the organisation responsible for the design of the aircraft any incident, malfunction, technical defect, exceeding of technical limitations and any occurrence that would highlight inaccurate, incomplete or ambiguous information contained in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (⁷) or other irregular circumstance that has or may have endangered the safe operation of the aircraft and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.

(c)Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 996/2010, Directive 2003/42/EC, Commission Regulation (EC) No 1321/2007 (⁸) and Commission Regulation (EC) No 1330/2007 (⁹), the reports referred in paragraphs (a) and (b) shall be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority and contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation.

(1) ensuring that the training provided is in compliance with Part-FCL and, in the case of flight test training, that the relevant requirements of Part-21 and the training programme have been established;

(d)Flight instructors and flight simulation training instructors shall hold the qualifications required by Part-FCL for the type of training that they are providing.

(b)The training programme shall comply with the requirements of Part-FCL and, in the case of flight test training, the relevant requirements of Part-21.

(3) for sailplanes:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction for LAPL(S) and SPL;

(b) flight instruction for LAPL(S) and SPL;

(c) training towards extension of privileges to TMG in accordance with point FCL.135.S;

(d) training towards additional launch methods in accordance with point FCL.130.S;

(e) training towards additional ratings: aerobatics, sailplane towing, and sailplane cloud flying rating;

(f) training towards flight instructor rating FI(S);

(g) FI(S) refresher seminar.

(4) for balloons:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction for LAPL(B) and BPL;

(b) flight instruction for LAPL(B) and BPL;

(c) training towards class extension in accordance with point FCL.135.B;

(d) training towards class or group extension in accordance with point FCL.225.B;

(e) training towards extension to tethered flight in accordance with point FCL.130.B;

(f) training towards night rating;

(g) training towards flight instructor rating FI(B);

(h) FI(B) refresher seminar.

### (b) A DTO shall be entitled to also provide the examiner courses referred to in points FCL.1015(a) and FCL.1025(b)(2) of Annex I (Part-FCL) for FE(S), FIE(S), FE(B) and FIE(B), provided that the DTO has submitted a declaration in accordance with point DTO.GEN.115 and the competent authority has approved the training programme in accordance with point DTO.GEN.230(c).

(8) a statement confirming that the DTO complies and will, during all training activities covered by the declaration, continue to comply with the essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation.

(i) that the training provided complies with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and with the DTO's training programme;

(e) Flight instructors and flight simulation training instructors shall hold the qualifications required by Annex I (Part-FCL) for the type of training they are providing.

(b) The training programmes shall comply with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL).

(c) A DTO shall be entitled to provide the training referred to in point DTO.GEN.110(b) only where its training programme for that training, and any changes thereto, have been issued by the competent authority, upon application by the DTO, with an approval confirming that the training programme and any changes comply with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL), in accordance with point ARA.DTO.110. A DTO shall apply for such approval through the submission of its declaration in accordance with point DTO.GEN.115.

| 3 | **Personnel** Name and contact details (address, phone, email) of the DTO's representative: Name and contact details (address, phone, email) of the DTO's head of training and, if applicable, of the DTO's deputy head(s) of training: |

| 7 | **Date of intended commencement of training:** |

| 9. | **Statements** The DTO has developed a safety policy in accordance with Annex VIII (Part-DTO) of Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, and in particular with point DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(ii) thereof, and will apply that policy during all training activities covered by the declaration. The DTO complies and will, during all training activities covered by the declaration, continue to comply with the essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011. We confirm that all information contained in this declaration, including its annexes (if applicable), is complete and correct. Name, date and signature of the representative of the DTO Name, date and signature of the head of training of the DTO |

(¹) Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1065 of 27 July 2018 amending Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards the automatic validation of Union flight crew licences and take-off and landing training (OJ L 192, 30.7.2018, p. 31).

(²) OJ L 243, 27.9.2003, p. 6.

(³) OJ L 167, 4.7.2003, p. 23.

(⁴) Regulation (EC) No 45/2001 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 18 December 2000 on the protection of individuals with regard to the processing of personal data by the Community institutions and bodies and on the free movement of such data (OJ L 8, 12.1.2001, p. 1).

(⁵) OJ L 295, 12.11.2010, p. 35.

(⁶) OJ L 167, 4.7.2003, p. 23.

(⁷) OJ L 224, 21.8.2012, p. 1.

(⁸) OJ L 294, 13.11.2007, p. 3.

(⁹) OJ L 295, 14.11.2007, p. 7.