Legalize / European Union / Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council Text with EEA relevance / History

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Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council Text with EEA relevance

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(Text with EEA relevance)

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,

Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,

Having regard to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and Directive 2004/36/EC (1), and in particular Articles 7(6), 8(5) and 10(5) thereof,

(1) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 aims at establishing and maintaining a high uniform level of civil aviation safety in Europe. That Regulation provides for the means of achieving that objective and other objectives in the field of civil aviation safety.

(2) Pilots involved in the operation of certain aircraft, as well as flight simulation training devices, persons and organisations involved in training, testing or checking of those pilots, have to comply with the relevant essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. According to that Regulation pilots as well as persons and organisations involved in their training should be certified once they have been found to comply with essential requirements.

(3) Similarly, pilots should be issued with a medical certificate and aero-medical examiners, responsible for assessing the medical fitness of pilots, should be certified once they have been found to comply with the relevant essential requirements. However, Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 envisages the possibility of general medical practitioners to act as aero-medical examiners under certain conditions and if permitted under national law.

(4) Cabin crew involved in the operation of certain aircraft have to comply with the relevant essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. According to that Regulation, cabin crew should be periodically assessed for medical fitness to safely exercise their assigned safety duties. Compliance must be shown by an appropriate assessment based on aero-medical best practice.

(5) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 requires the Commission to adopt the necessary implementing rules for establishing the conditions for certifying pilots as well as persons involved in their training, testing or checking, for the attestation of cabin crew members and for the assessment of their medical fitness.

(6) The requirements and procedures for the conversion of national pilot licences and national flight engineer licences into pilot licences should be laid down, to ensure that they are allowed to perform their activities under harmonised conditions; flight test qualifications should also be converted in accordance with this Regulation.

(7) It should be possible for Member States to accept licences issued by third countries where a level of safety equivalent to that specified by Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 can be guaranteed; Conditions for the acceptance of licences issued by third countries should be laid down.

(8) In order to ensure that training commenced before the application of this Regulation may be taken into account for the purposes of obtaining pilots’ licences, the conditions for recognising training already completed should be laid down; the conditions for recognising military licences should also be laid down.

(9) It is necessary to provide sufficient time for the aeronautical industry and Member State administrations to adapt to the new regulatory framework, to allow Member States the time to issue specific types of pilot licences and medical certificates not covered by the ‘JAR’, and to recognise under certain conditions the validity of licences and certificates issued, as well as aero-medical assessment performed, before this Regulation applies.

(10) Council Directive 91/670/EEC of 16 December 1991 on mutual acceptance of personnel licences for the exercise of functions in civil aviation (2) is repealed in accordance with Article 69(2) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. The measures adopted by this Regulation are to be regarded as the corresponding measures.

(11) In order to ensure a smooth transition and a high uniform level of civil aviation safety in the Union, implementing measures should reflect the state of the art, including best practices, and scientific and technical progress in the field of pilot training and aircrew aero-medical fitness. Accordingly, technical requirements and administrative procedures agreed by the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the Joint Aviation Authorities until 30 June 2009 as well as existing legislation pertaining to a specific national environment, should be considered.

(12) The Agency prepared draft implementing rules and submitted them as an opinion to the Commission in accordance with Article 19(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

(13) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Committee established by Article 65 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008,

HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

#### Article 1

##### Subject matter

@@ -178,7 +144,7 @@

##### Conversion of flight test qualifications

1. Pilots who before this Regulation applies conducted category 1 and 2 flight tests as defined in the Annex to Commission Regulation (EC) No 1702/2003 (3), or who provided instruction to flight test pilots, shall have their flight test qualifications converted into flight test ratings in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation and, where applicable, flight test instructor certificates by the Member State that issued the flight test qualifications.

1. Pilots who before this Regulation applies conducted category 1 and 2 flight tests as defined in the Annex to Commission Regulation (EC) No 1702/2003 (1), or who provided instruction to flight test pilots, shall have their flight test qualifications converted into flight test ratings in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation and, where applicable, flight test instructor certificates by the Member State that issued the flight test qualifications.

2. This conversion shall be carried out in accordance with the elements established in a conversion report that complies with the requirements set out in Article 4(4) and (5).

@@ -288,7 +254,7 @@

1. Cabin crew members involved in the operation of aircraft referred to in Article 4(1)(b) and (c) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 shall comply with the technical requirements and administrative procedures laid down in Annex IV.

2. The medical examinations or assessments of cabin crew members that were conducted in accordance with Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91 (4) and which are still valid at the date of application of this Regulation shall be deemed to be valid according to this Regulation until the earlier of the following:

2. The medical examinations or assessments of cabin crew members that were conducted in accordance with Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91 (2) and which are still valid at the date of application of this Regulation shall be deemed to be valid according to this Regulation until the earlier of the following:

(a)the end of the validity period determined by the competent authority in accordance with Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91; or

@@ -571,8 +537,10 @@

(a)A student pilot shall not fly solo unless authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor.

(b)Before his/her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least:

(1)in the case of aeroplanes, helicopters and airships: 16 years of age;

(2)in the case of sailplanes and balloons: 14 years of age.

(1)in the case of aeroplanes, helicopters and airships: 16 years of age;

(2)in the case of sailplanes and balloons: 14 years of age.

### **FCL.025** Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings

@@ -597,15 +565,18 @@

### (c) ***Validity period***

(1)The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid:

(i)for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence, a private pilot licence, a sailplane pilot licence or a balloon pilot licence, for a period of 24 months;

(ii)for the issue of a commercial pilot licence, instrument rating (IR) or en route instrument rating (EIR), for a period of 36 months;

(iii)the periods in (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day when the pilot successfully completes the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with (b)(2).

(i)for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence, a private pilot licence, a sailplane pilot licence or a balloon pilot licence, for a period of 24 months;

(ii)for the issue of a commercial pilot licence, instrument rating (IR) or en route instrument rating (EIR), for a period of 36 months;

(iii)the periods in (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day when the pilot successfully completes the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with (b)(2).

(2)The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge examinations will remain valid for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of:

(i)an IR entered in the licence; or

(ii)in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.

(i)an IR entered in the licence; or

(ii)in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.

### **FCL.030** Practical skill test

@@ -621,9 +592,12 @@

(1)Unless otherwise specified in this Part, flight time to be credited for a licence, rating or certificate shall have been flown in the same category of aircraft for which the licence, rating or certificate is sought.

(2)PIC or under instruction.

(i)An applicant for a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo, dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required for the licence, rating or certificate.

(ii)A graduate of an ATP integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the airline transport pilot licence, commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.

(iii)A graduate of a CPL/IR integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of the student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.

(3)Flight time as co-pilot or PICUS. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all of the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

@@ -690,7 +664,12 @@

(b) Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift, airships and sailplanes. A pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers:

(1)as PIC or co-pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class. The 3 take-offs and landings shall be performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilot; and

(2)as PIC at night unless he/she:

(i)has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class; or

(ii)holds an IR;

(3)as cruise relief co-pilot unless he/she:

(i)has complied with the requirements in (b)(1); or

(ii)has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 sectors as a cruise relief pilot on the same type or class of aircraft; or

(iii)has carried out recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals not exceeding 90 days. This refresher training may be combined with the operator’s refresher training prescribed in the relevant requirements of Part-ORO.

(4)When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplane with similar handling and operation characteristics, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.

(5)When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopter with similar handling and operation characteristics, as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that the pilot has completed at least 2 hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the preceding 6 months.

@@ -745,17 +724,26 @@

Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through examinations on the following:

(a)common subjects:

—Air law,

—Human performance,

—Meteorology, and

—Communications;

—Air law,

—Human performance,

—Meteorology, and

—Communications;

(b)specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge, and

—Navigation.

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge, and

—Navigation.

### **FCL.125** LAPL — Skill test

@@ -792,7 +780,12 @@

(a) The privileges of an LAPL(A) shall be limited to the class and variant of aeroplanes or TMG in which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed in another class the requirements below:

(1)3 hours of flight instruction, including:

(i)10 dual take-offs and landings; and

(ii)10 supervised solo take-offs and landings.

(2)a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new class. During this skill test, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other class in the following subjects:

(i)Operational procedures;

(ii)Flight performance and planning;

(iii)Aircraft general knowledge.

(b) Before the holder of an LAPL can exercise the privileges of the licence on another variant of aeroplane than the one used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or familiarisation training. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent document and signed by the instructor.

@@ -826,7 +819,12 @@

(a) The privileges of an LAPL(H) shall be limited to the specific type and variant of helicopter in which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed:

(1)5 hours of flight instruction, including:

(i)15 dual take-offs, approaches and landings;

(ii)15 supervised solo take-offs, approaches and landings;

(2)a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new type. During this skill test, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other type in the following subjects:

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge.

(b) Before the holder of an LAPL(H) can exercise the privileges of the licence in another variant of helicopter than the one used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or familiarisation training, as determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor.

@@ -880,15 +878,22 @@

The privileges of an LAPL(S) shall be extended to a TMG when the pilot has completed in an ATO, at least:

(a)6 hours of flight instruction on a TMG, including:

(1)4 hours of dual flight instruction;

(2)1 solo cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be performed;

(1)4 hours of dual flight instruction;

(2)1 solo cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be performed;

(b)a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in a TMG. During this skill test, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the TMG in the following subjects:

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge,

—Navigation.

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge,

—Navigation.

### **FCL.140.S** LAPL(S) — Recency requirements

@@ -898,6 +903,8 @@

(b) TMG. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a TMG when they have:

(1)completed on TMGs in the last 24 months:

(i)at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC, including 12 take-offs and landings; and

(ii)refresher training of at least 1 hour total flight time with an instructor.

(2)When the holder of the LAPL(S) also has the privileges to fly aeroplanes, the requirements in (1) may be completed on aeroplanes.

(c) Holders of an LAPL(S) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) or (b) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges:

@@ -940,10 +947,14 @@

(b)in the case of an LAPL(B) for hot-air balloons wishing to extend their privileges to hot-air airships, 5 hours of dual flight instruction time; and

(c)a skill test, during which they shall demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other class in the following subjects:

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning, and

—Aircraft general knowledge.

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning, and

—Aircraft general knowledge.

### **FCL.140.B** LAPL(B) — Recency requirements

@@ -979,17 +990,26 @@

Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted through examinations in the following subjects:

(a)common subjects:

—Air law,

—Human performance,

—Meteorology, and

—Communications;

—Air law,

—Human performance,

—Meteorology, and

—Communications;

(b)specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge, and

—Navigation.

—Principles of flight,

—Operational procedures,

—Flight performance and planning,

—Aircraft general knowledge, and

—Navigation.

### **FCL.235** Skill test

@@ -1058,6 +1078,8 @@

(a) Applicants for a PPL(As) shall have completed at least 35 hours of flight instruction in airships, 5 of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:

(1)25 hours of dual flight instruction, including:

(i)3 hours of cross-country flight training, including 1 cross-country flight of at least 65 km (35 NM);

(ii)3 hours of instrument instruction;

(2)8 take-offs and landings at an aerodrome, including masting and unmasting procedures;

(3)8 hours of supervised solo flight time.

@@ -1070,6 +1092,9 @@

(b) Holders of an SPL shall:

(1)carry passengers only when having completed, after the issuance of the licence, at least 10 hours of flight time or 30 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;

(2)be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have:

(i)attained the age of 18 years;

(ii)completed, after the issuance of the licence, 75 hours of flight time or 200 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;

(iii)passed a proficiency check with an examiner.

(1)the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(S) or the SPL;

@@ -1127,12 +1152,18 @@

(a)in the case of an extension to another class within the same group, complied with the requirements in FCL.135.B;

(b)in the case of an extension to another group within the same class of balloons, completed at least:

(1)2 instruction flights on a balloon of the relevant group; and

(2)the following hours of flight time as PIC on balloons:

(i)for balloons with an envelope capacity between 3 401 m3 and 6 000 m3, at least 100 hours;

(ii)for balloons with an envelope capacity between 6 001 m3 and 10 500 m3, at least 200 hours;

(iii)for balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 10 500 m3, at least 300 hours;

(iv)for gas balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 1 260 m3, at least 50 hours.

(1)2 instruction flights on a balloon of the relevant group; and

(2)the following hours of flight time as PIC on balloons:

(i)for balloons with an envelope capacity between 3 401 m3 and 6 000 m3, at least 100 hours;

(ii)for balloons with an envelope capacity between 6 001 m3 and 10 500 m3, at least 200 hours;

(iii)for balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 10 500 m3, at least 300 hours;

(iv)for gas balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 1 260 m3, at least 50 hours.

### **FCL.230.B** BPL — Recency requirements

@@ -1205,14 +1236,21 @@

An applicant for a CPL shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 4 to this Part to demonstrate the ability to perform, as PIC of the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted.

### **FCL.315.A** CPL — Training course

Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A) shall include upset prevention and recovery training.

### **FCL.325.A** CPL(A) — Specific conditions for MPL holders

Before exercising the privileges of a CPL(A), the holder of an MPL shall have completed in aeroplanes:

(a)70 hours of flight time:

(1)as PIC; or

(2)made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision (PICUS).

Of these 70 hours, 20 shall be of VFR cross-country flight time as PIC, or cross-country flight time made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. This shall include a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be flown as PIC;

(1)as PIC; or

(2)made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision (PICUS).

(b)the elements of the CPL(A) modular course as specified in paragraphs 10(a) and 11 of Appendix 3, E to this Part; and

@@ -1238,7 +1276,7 @@

### **FCL.410.A** MPL — Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations

(a) Course. An applicant for an MPL shall have completed a training course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO in accordance with Appendix 5 to this Part.

(a) Course. An applicant for an MPL shall have completed a training course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO in accordance with Appendix 5 to this Part. Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of an MPL shall include upset prevention and recovery training.

(b) Examination. An applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the holder of an ATPL(A), in accordance with FCL.515, and of a multi-pilot type rating.

@@ -1304,6 +1342,8 @@

(1)Holders of a pilot licence for other categories of aircraft shall be credited with flight time up to a maximum of:

(i)for TMG or sailplanes, 30 hours flown as PIC;

(ii)for helicopters, 50 % of all the flight time requirements of paragraph (b).

(2)Holders of a flight engineer licence issued in accordance with applicable national rules shall be credited with 50 % of the flight engineer time up to a maximum credit of 250 hours. These 250 hours may be credited against the 1 500 hours requirement of paragraph (b), and the 500 hours requirement of paragraph (b)(1), provided that the total credit given against any of these paragraphs does not exceed 250 hours.

(d) The experience required in (b) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.

@@ -1321,14 +1361,20 @@

(a)hold a CPL(H) and a multi-pilot helicopter type rating and have received instruction in MCC;

(b)have completed as a pilot of helicopters a minimum of 1 000 hours of flight time including at least:

(1)350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters;

(2) (i)250 hours as PIC; or

(1)350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters;

(2) (i)250 hours as PIC; or

(ii)100 hours as PIC and 150 hours as PIC under supervision; or

(iii)250 hours as PIC under supervision in multi-pilot helicopters. In this case, the ATPL(H) privileges shall be limited to multi-pilot operations only, until 100 hours as PIC have been completed;

(3)200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PIC under supervision;

(4)30 hours of instrument time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time; and

(5)100 hours of night flight as PIC or as co-pilot.

Of the 1 000 hours, a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in an FSTD, of which not more than 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT.

(3)200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PIC under supervision;

(4)30 hours of instrument time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time; and

(5)100 hours of night flight as PIC or as co-pilot.

Of the 1 000 hours, a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in an FSTD, of which not more than 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT.

(c)Flight time in aeroplanes shall be credited up to 50 % against the flight time requirements of paragraph (b).

@@ -1363,12 +1409,14 @@

Applicants for an IR shall:

(a)hold:

(1)at least a PPL in the appropriate aircraft category, and:

(i)the privileges to fly at night in accordance with FCL.810, if the IR privileges will be used at night; or

(ii)an ATPL in another category of aircraft; or

(2)a CPL, in the appropriate aircraft category;

(1)at least a PPL in the appropriate aircraft category, and:

(i)the privileges to fly at night in accordance with FCL.810, if the IR privileges will be used at night; or

(ii)an ATPL in another category of aircraft; or

(2)a CPL, in the appropriate aircraft category;

(b)have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, TMGs, helicopters or airships, of which at least 10 or, in the case of airships, 20 hours shall be in the relevant aircraft category;

@@ -1414,6 +1462,8 @@

(a) Revalidation. Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(A):

(1)when combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part;

(2)when not combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall:

(i)for single-pilot aeroplanes, complete section 3b and those parts of section 1 relevant to the intended flight, of the proficiency check prescribed in Appendix 9 to this Part; and

(ii)for multi-engine aeroplanes, complete section 6 of the proficiency check for single-pilot aeroplanes in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part by sole reference to instruments.

(3)An FNPT II or an FFS representing the relevant class or type of aeroplane may be used in the case of paragraph (2), but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(A) in these circumstances shall be performed in an aeroplane.

(b) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Part.

@@ -1498,23 +1548,34 @@

(a)Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes. An applicant for a first class or type rating on a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane shall have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes.

(b)Single-pilot high performance non-complex aeroplanes. Before starting flight training, an applicant for a first class or type rating for a single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high performance aeroplane shall:

(1)have at least 200 hours of total flying experience, of which 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes; and

(2) (i)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of a course for additional theoretical knowledge undertaken at an ATO; or

(1)have at least 200 hours of total flying experience, of which 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes; and

(2) (i)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of a course for additional theoretical knowledge undertaken at an ATO; or

(ii)have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Part; or

(iii)hold, in addition to a licence issued in accordance with this Part, an ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR with theoretical knowledge credit for ATPL(A), issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(3)in addition, pilots seeking the privilege to operate the aeroplane in multi-pilot operations shall meet the requirements of (d)(4).

(c)Single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes. Applicants for the issue of a first type rating for a complex single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high performance aeroplane shall, in addition to meeting the requirements of (b), have fulfilled the requirements for a multi-engine IR(A), as established in Subpart G.

(d)Multi-pilot aeroplanes. An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be a student pilot currently undergoing training on an MPL training course or comply with the following requirements:

(1)have at least 70 hours of flight experience as PIC on aeroplanes;

(2)hold a multi-engine IR(A);

(3)have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Part; and

(4)except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:

(i)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in aeroplanes; or

(ii)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in helicopters and have more than 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(iii)have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(iv)have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, in commercial air transport in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.

(1)have at least 70 hours of flight experience as PIC on aeroplanes;

(2)hold a multi-engine IR(A);

(3)have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Part; and

(4)except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:

(i)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in aeroplanes; or

(ii)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in helicopters and have more than 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(iii)have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(iv)have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, in commercial air transport in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.

(e)Notwithstanding point (d), a Member State may issue a type rating with restricted privileges for multi-pilot aeroplanes that allows the holder of such rating to act as a cruise relief co-pilot above Flight Level 200, provided that two other members of the crew have a type rating in accordance with point (d).

@@ -1527,10 +1588,14 @@

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21:

(a)Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes.

(1)The theoretical knowledge course for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating shall include at least 7 hours of instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operations.

(2)The flight training course for a single-pilot multi-engine class or type rating shall include at least 2 hours and 30 minutes of dual flight instruction under normal conditions of multi-engine aeroplane operations, and not less than 3 hours 30 minutes of dual flight instruction in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight techniques.

(1)The theoretical knowledge course for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating shall include at least 7 hours of instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operations.

(b)Single-pilot aeroplanes-sea. The training course for single-pilot aeroplane-sea ratings shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction. The flight training for a class or type rating-sea for single-pilot aeroplanes-sea shall include at least 8 hours of dual flight instruction if the applicant holds the land version of the relevant class or type rating, or 10 hours if the applicant does not hold such a rating.

(c)Multi-pilot aeroplanes. The training course for the issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction in upset prevention and recovery.

### **FCL.730.A** Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight time type rating (ZFTT) course — aeroplanes

@@ -1558,11 +1623,18 @@

(a) Revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings. For revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings, the applicant shall:

(1)pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant class or type of aeroplane or an FSTD representing that class or type, within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and

(2)complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:

(i)10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane; or

(ii)1 route sector as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane or FFS, flown with an examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check.

(3)A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements who has passed the operators proficiency check combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the class or type rating shall be exempted from complying with the requirement in (2).

(4)The revalidation of an en route instrument rating (EIR) or an IR(A), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or type rating.

(b) Revalidation of single-pilot single-engine class ratings.

(1)Single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings and TMG ratings. For revalidation of single-pilot single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings or TMG class ratings the applicant shall:

(i)within the 3 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check in the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with an examiner; or

(ii)within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 12 hours of flight time in the relevant class, including:

—6 hours as PIC,

—12 take-offs and 12 landings, and

—refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with a flight instructor (FI) or a class rating instructor (CRI). Applicants shall be exempted from this refresher training if they have passed a class or type rating proficiency check, skill test or assessment of competence in any other class or type of aeroplane.

(2)When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a TMG rating, they may complete the requirements of (1) in either class or a combination thereof, and achieve revalidation of both ratings.

(3)Single-pilot single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes. For revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop class ratings applicants shall pass a proficiency check on the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with an examiner, within the 3 months preceding the expiry date of the rating.

(4)When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a single-engine piston aeroplane-sea class rating, they may complete the requirements of (1)(ii) in either class or a combination thereof, and achieve the fulfilment of these requirements for both ratings. At least 1 hour of required PIC time and 6 of the required 12 take-offs and landings shall be completed in each class.

@@ -1574,30 +1646,48 @@

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for the issue of the first helicopter type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of the relevant rating:

(a)Multi-pilot helicopters. An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type shall:

(1)have at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters;

(2)except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:

(i)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in helicopters; or

(ii)have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; or

(iii)have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on multi-engine helicopters;

(3)have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations.

(1)have at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters;

(2)except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:

(i)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in helicopters; or

(ii)have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; or

(iii)have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on multi-engine helicopters;

(3)have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations.

(b)An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type who is a graduate from an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H) integrated course and who does not comply with the requirement of (a)(1), shall have the type rating issued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall be removed once the pilot has:

(1)completed 70 hours as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of helicopters;

(2)passed the multi-pilot skill test on the applicable helicopter type as PIC.

(1)completed 70 hours as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of helicopters;

(2)passed the multi-pilot skill test on the applicable helicopter type as PIC.

(c)Single-pilot multi-engine helicopters. An applicant for the issue of a first type rating for a single-pilot multi-engine helicopter shall:

(1)before starting flight training:

(i)have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations; or

(ii)hold a certificate of completion of a pre-entry course conducted by an ATO. The course shall cover the following subjects of the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge course:

—Aircraft General Knowledge: airframe/systems/power plant, and instrument/electronics,

—Flight Performance and Planning: mass and balance, performance;

(2)in the case of applicants who have not completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), or CPL(H)/IR integrated training course, have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters.

(1)before starting flight training:

(i)have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations; or

(ii)hold a certificate of completion of a pre-entry course conducted by an ATO. The course shall cover the following subjects of the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge course:

—Aircraft General Knowledge: airframe/systems/power plant, and instrument/electronics,

—Flight Performance and Planning: mass and balance, performance;

(2)in the case of applicants who have not completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), or CPL(H)/IR integrated training course, have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters.

### **FCL.735.H** Multi-crew cooperation training course — helicopters

(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:

(1)for MCC/IR:

(i)25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and

(ii)20 hours of practical MCC training or 15 hours, in the case of student pilots attending an ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may be reduced to not less than 10 hours if the same FSTD is used for both MCC and type rating;

(2)for MCC/VFR:

(i)25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and

(ii)15 hours of practical MCC training or 10 hours, in the case of student pilots attending an ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may be reduced to not less than 7 hours if the same FSTD is used for both MCC and type rating.

(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.

An FNPT II or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.

@@ -1616,6 +1706,9 @@

(3)When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine piston helicopters, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only 1 of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed at least 2 hours of flight time as PIC on the other types during the validity period.

The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.

(4)When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine turbine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass up to 3 175 kg, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only 1 of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed:

(i)300 hours as PIC on helicopters;

(ii)15 hours on each of the types held; and

(iii)at least 2 hours of PIC flight time on each of the other types during the validity period.

The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.

(5)A pilot who successfully completes a skill test for the issue of an additional type rating shall achieve revalidation for the relevant type ratings in the common groups, in accordance with (3) and (4).

(6)The revalidation of an IR(H), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for a type rating.

@@ -1627,23 +1720,36 @@

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for the first issue of a powered-lift type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites:

(a)for pilots of aeroplanes:

(1)hold a CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL(A);

(2)hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;

(3)have completed more than 100 hours as pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(4)have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters;

(1)hold a CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL(A);

(2)hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;

(3)have completed more than 100 hours as pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(4)have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters;

(b)for pilots of helicopters:

(1)hold a CPL/IR(H) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL/IR(H);

(2)hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;

(3)have completed more than 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;

(4)have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes;

(1)hold a CPL/IR(H) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL/IR(H);

(2)hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;

(3)have completed more than 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;

(4)have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes;

(c)for pilots qualified to fly both aeroplanes and helicopters:

(1)hold at least a CPL(H);

(2)hold an IR and ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL in either aeroplanes or helicopters;

(3)hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course in either helicopters or aeroplanes;

(4)have completed at least 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters or aeroplanes;

(5)have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable, if the pilot has no experience as ATPL or on multi-pilot aircraft.

(1)hold at least a CPL(H);

(2)hold an IR and ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL in either aeroplanes or helicopters;

(3)hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course in either helicopters or aeroplanes;

(4)have completed at least 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters or aeroplanes;

(5)have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable, if the pilot has no experience as ATPL or on multi-pilot aircraft.

### **FCL.725.PL** Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft

@@ -1654,6 +1760,8 @@

(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of powered-lift type ratings, the applicant shall:

(1)pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type of powered-lift within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating;

(2)complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:

(i)10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft; or

(ii)1 route sector as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft or FFS, flown with an examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check.

(3)A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements who has passed the operators proficiency check combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the type rating shall be exempted from complying with the requirement in (2).

(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until the a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved.

@@ -1663,9 +1771,12 @@

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for the first issue of an airship type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites:

(a)for multi-pilot airships:

(1)have completed 70 hours of flight time as PIC on airships;

(2)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC on airships.

(3)An applicant who does not comply with the requirement in (2) shall have the type rating issued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall be removed once the pilot has completed 100 hours of flight time as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of airships.

(1)have completed 70 hours of flight time as PIC on airships;

(2)hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC on airships.

### **FCL.735.As** Multi-crew cooperation training course — airships

@@ -1700,6 +1811,8 @@

(b) Applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed:

(1)at least 40 hours of flight time or, in the case of sailplanes, 120 launches as PIC in the appropriate aircraft category, completed after the issue of the licence;

(2)a training course at an ATO, including:

(i)theoretical knowledge instruction appropriate for the rating;

(ii)at least 5 hours or 20 flights of aerobatic instruction in the appropriate aircraft category.

(c) The privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to the aircraft category in which the flight instruction was completed. The privileges will be extended to another category of aircraft if the pilot holds a licence for that aircraft category and has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights covering the full aerobatic training syllabus in that category of aircraft.

@@ -1710,10 +1823,15 @@

(b) Applicants for a sailplane towing rating shall have completed:

(1)at least 30 hours of flight time as PIC and 60 take-offs and landings in aeroplanes, if the activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMGs, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs, completed after the issue of the licence;

(2)a training course at an ATO including:

(i)theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;

(ii)at least 10 instruction flights towing a sailplane, including at least 5 dual instruction flights; and

(iii)except for holders of an LAPL(S) or an SPL, 5 familiarisation flights in a sailplane which is launched by an aircraft.

(1)at least 100 hours of flight time and 200 take-offs and landings as PIC on aeroplanes or TMG, after the issue of the licence. At least 30 of these hours shall be in aeroplanes, if the activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMG, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs;

(2)a training course at an ATO including:

(i)theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;

(ii)at least 10 instruction flights towing a banner, including at least 5 dual flights.

(d) The privileges of the sailplane and banner towing ratings shall be limited to aeroplanes or TMG, depending on which aircraft the flight instruction was completed. The privileges will be extended if the pilot holds a licence for aeroplanes or TMG and has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights covering the full towing training syllabus in either aircraft, as relevant.

@@ -1725,12 +1843,17 @@

(a) Aeroplanes, TMGs, airships.

(1)If the privileges of an LAPL, an SPL or a PPL for aeroplanes, TMGs or airships are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall comprise:

(i)theoretical knowledge instruction;

(ii)at least 5 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation with at least one dual cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM) and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full-stop landings.

(2)Before completing the training at night, LAPL holders shall have completed the basic instrument flight training required for the issue of the PPL.

(3)When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) and a TMG class rating, they may complete the requirements in (1) above in either class or both classes.

(b) Helicopters. If the privileges of a PPL for helicopters are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, the applicant shall have:

(1)completed at least 100 hours of flight time as pilot in helicopters after the issue of the licence, including at least 60 hours as PIC on helicopters and 20 hours of cross-country flight;

(2)completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be completed within a period of 6 months and comprise:

(i)5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction;

(ii)10 hours of helicopter dual instrument instruction time; and

(iii)5 hours of flight time at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

(3)An applicant who holds or has held an IR in an aeroplane or TMG, shall be credited with 5 hours towards the requirement in (2)(ii) above.

(c) Balloons. If the privileges of an LAPL for balloons or a BPL are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall complete at least 2 instruction flights at night of at least 1 hour each.

@@ -1764,34 +1887,53 @@

(b) The obligation to hold a flight test rating established in (a) shall only apply to flight tests conducted on:

(1)helicopters certificated or to be certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 or CS-29 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or

(2)aeroplanes certificated or to be certificated in accordance with:

(i)the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or

(ii)the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes, except for aeroplanes with an maximum take-off mass of less than 2 000 kg.

(1)in the case of a category 1 flight test rating, conduct all categories of flight tests, as defined in Part-21, either as PIC or co-pilot;

(2)in the case of a category 2 flight test rating:

(i)conduct category 1 flight tests, as defined in Part-21:

—as a co-pilot, or

—as PIC, in the case of aeroplanes referred to in (b)(2)(ii), except for those within the commuter category or having a design diving speed above 0,6 mach or a maximum ceiling above 25 000 feet;

(ii)conduct all other categories of flight tests, as defined in Part-21, either as PIC or co-pilot;

(3)in addition, for both category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, to conduct flights specifically related to the activity of design and production organisations, within the scope of their privileges, when the requirements of Subpart H may not be complied with.

(d) Applicants for the first issue of a flight test rating shall:

(1)hold at least a CPL and an IR in the appropriate aircraft category;

(2)have completed at least 1 000 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category, of which at least 400 hours as PIC;

(3)have completed a training course at an ATO appropriate to the intended aircraft and category of flights. The training shall cover at least the following subjects:

—Performance,

—Stability and control/Handling qualities,

—Systems,

—Test management,

—Risk/Safety management.

(e) The privileges of holders of a flight test rating may be extended to another category of flight test and another category of aircraft when they have completed an additional course of training at an ATO.

### **FCL.825** En route instrument rating (EIR)

(a)Privileges and conditions

(1)The privileges of the holder of an en route instrument rating (EIR) are to conduct flights by day under IFR in the en route phase of flight, with an aeroplane for which a class or type rating is held. The privilege may be extended to conduct flights by night under IFR in the en route phase of flight if the pilot holds a night rating in accordance with FCL.810.

(2)The holder of the EIR shall only commence or continue a flight on which he/she intends to exercise the privileges of his/her rating if the latest available meteorological information indicates that:

(i)the weather conditions on departure are such as to enable the segment of the flight from take-off to a planned VFR-to-IFR transition to be conducted in compliance with VFR; and

(ii)at the estimated time of arrival at the planned destination aerodrome, the weather conditions will be such as to enable the segment of the flight from an IFR-to-VFR transition to landing to be conducted in compliance with VFR.

(i)the weather conditions on departure are such as to enable the segment of the flight from take-off to a planned VFR-to-IFR transition to be conducted in compliance with VFR; and

(b)Prerequisites. Applicants for the EIR shall hold at least a PPL(A) and shall have completed at least 20 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes.

(c)Training course. Applicants for an EIR shall have completed, within a period of 36 months at an ATO:

(1)at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.615; and

(2)instrument flight instruction, during which:

(i)the flying training for a single-engine EIR shall include at least 15 hours of instrument flight time under instruction; and

(ii)the flying training for a multi-engine EIR shall include at least 16 hours of instrument flight time under instruction, of which at least 4 hours shall be in multi-engine aeroplanes.

(1)at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.615; and

(2)instrument flight instruction, during which:

(i)the flying training for a single-engine EIR shall include at least 15 hours of instrument flight time under instruction; and

(ii)the flying training for a multi-engine EIR shall include at least 16 hours of instrument flight time under instruction, of which at least 4 hours shall be in multi-engine aeroplanes.

(d)Theoretical knowledge. Prior to taking the skill test, the applicant shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, in the subjects referred to in FCL.615(b).

@@ -1800,45 +1942,66 @@

(f)By way of derogation from points (c) and (d), the holder of a single-engine EIR who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain a multi-engine EIR for the first time, shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 2 hours instrument flight time under instruction in the en route phase of flight in multi-engine aeroplanes and shall pass the skill test referred to in point (e).

(g)Validity, revalidation, and renewal.

(1)An EIR shall be valid for 1 year.

(2)Applicants for the revalidation of an EIR shall:

(i)pass a proficiency check in an aeroplane within a period of 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; or

(ii)within 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 6 hours as PIC under IFR and a training flight of at least 1 hour with an instructor holding privileges to provide training for the IR(A) or EIR.

(3)For each alternate subsequent revalidation, the holder of the EIR shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with point (g)(2)(i).

(4)If an EIR has expired, in order to renew their privileges applicants shall:

(i)complete refresher training provided by an instructor holding privileges to provide training for the IR(A) or EIR to reach the level of proficiency needed; and

(ii)complete a proficiency check.

(5)If the EIR has not been revalidated or renewed within 7 years from the last validity date, the holder will also be required to pass again the EIR theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with FCL.615(b).

(6)For a multi-engine EIR, the proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal, and the training flight required in point (g)(2)(ii) have to be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane. If the pilot also holds a single-engine EIR, this proficiency check shall also achieve revalidation or renewal of the single-engine EIR. The training flight completed in a multi-engine aeroplane shall also fulfil the training flight requirement for the single-engine EIR.

(1)An EIR shall be valid for 1 year.

(2)Applicants for the revalidation of an EIR shall:

(i)pass a proficiency check in an aeroplane within a period of 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; or

(3)For each alternate subsequent revalidation, the holder of the EIR shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with point (g)(2)(i).

(4)If an EIR has expired, in order to renew their privileges applicants shall:

(i)complete refresher training provided by an instructor holding privileges to provide training for the IR(A) or EIR to reach the level of proficiency needed; and

(ii)complete a proficiency check.

(h)When the applicant for the EIR has completed instrument flight time under instruction with an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR or EIR, these hours may be credited towards the hours required in point (c)(2)(i) and (ii) up to a maximum of 5 or 6 hours respectively. The 4 hours of instrument flight instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes required in point (c)(2)(ii) shall not be subject to this credit.

(1)To determine the amount of hours to be credited and to establish the training needs, the applicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at the ATO.

(2)The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor.

(1)To determine the amount of hours to be credited and to establish the training needs, the applicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at the ATO.

(2)The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor.

(i)Applicants for the EIR, holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid IR(A) issued in accordance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country, may be credited in full towards the training course requirements mentioned in point (c). In order to be issued the EIR, the applicant shall:

(1)successfully complete the skill test for the EIR;

(2)by way of derogation from point (d), demonstrate during the skill test towards the examiner that he/she has acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR);

(3)have a minimum experience of at least 25 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.

(1)successfully complete the skill test for the EIR;

(3)have a minimum experience of at least 25 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.

### **FCL.830** Sailplane Cloud Flying Rating

(a)Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly sailplanes shall only operate a sailplane or a powered sailplane, excluding TMG, within cloud when they hold a sailplane cloud flying rating.

(b)Applicants for a sailplane cloud flying rating shall have completed at least:

(1)30 hours as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issue of the licence;

(2)a training course at an ATO including:

(i)theoretical knowledge instruction; and

(ii)at least 2 hours of dual flight instruction in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments, of which a maximum of one hour may be completed on TMGs; and

(3)a skill test with an FE qualified for this purpose.

(1)30 hours as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issue of the licence;

(2)a training course at an ATO including:

(i)theoretical knowledge instruction; and

(3)a skill test with an FE qualified for this purpose.

(c)Holders of an EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited against the requirement of (b)(2)(i). By way of derogation from point (b)(2)(ii), at least one hour of dual flight instruction in a sailplane or powered sailplane, excluding TMG, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments shall be completed.

(d)Holders of a cloud flying rating shall only exercise their privileges when they have completed in the last 24 months at least 1 hour of flight time, or 5 flights as PIC exercising the privileges of the cloud flying rating, in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs.

(e)Holders of a cloud flying rating who do not comply with the requirements in point (d) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges:

(1)undertake a proficiency check with an FE qualified for this purpose; or

(2)perform the additional flight time or flights required in point (d) with a qualified instructor.

(1)undertake a proficiency check with an FE qualified for this purpose; or

(2)perform the additional flight time or flights required in point (d) with a qualified instructor.

(f)Holders of a valid EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited in full against the requirements in point (d).

@@ -1850,6 +2013,8 @@

(a) General. A person shall only carry out:

(1)flight instruction in aircraft when he/she holds:

(i)a pilot licence issued or accepted in accordance with this Regulation;

(ii)an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart;

(2)synthetic flight instruction or MCC instruction when he/she holds an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart.

(b) Special conditions:

@@ -1858,7 +2023,12 @@

(1)Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in the case of flight instruction provided in an ATO located outside the territory of the Member States, the competent authority may issue an instructor certificate to an applicant holding a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, provided that the applicant:

(i)holds at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they are authorised to instruct and in any case at least a CPL;

(ii)complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the relevant instructor certificate;

(iii)demonstrates to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of European aviation safety rules to be able to exercise instructional privileges in accordance with this Part.

(2)The certificate shall be limited to providing flight instruction:

(i)in ATOs located outside the territory of the Member States;

(ii)to student pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which flight instruction is given.

### **FCL.915** General prerequisites and requirements for instructors

@@ -1867,6 +2037,8 @@

(b) Additional requirements for instructors providing flight instruction in aircraft. An applicant for or the holder of an instructor certificate with privileges to conduct flight instruction in an aircraft shall:

(1)hold at least the licence and, where relevant, the rating for which flight instruction is to be given;

(2)except in the case of the flight test instructor, have:

(i)completed at least 15 hours of flight time as a pilot on the class or type of aircraft on which flight instruction is to be given, of which a maximum of 7 hours may be in an FSTD representing the class or type of aircraft, if applicable; or

(ii)passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor on that class or type of aircraft;

(3)be entitled to act as PIC on the aircraft during such flight instruction.

@@ -1904,6 +2076,8 @@

(a) Instructors conducting training for the MPL shall:

(1)have successfully completed an MPL instructor training course at an ATO; and

(2)additionally, for the basic, intermediate and advanced phases of the MPL integrated training course:

(i)be experienced in multi-pilot operations; and

(ii)have completed initial crew resource management training with a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.

(b) (1)The MPL instructor training course shall comprise at least 14 hours of training.

Upon completion of the training course, the applicant shall undertake an assessment of instructor competencies and of knowledge of the competency-based approach to training.

@@ -1956,45 +2130,68 @@

(d)a CPL in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that the FI has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on that aircraft category, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;

(e)the night rating, provided that the FI:

(1)is qualified to fly at night in the appropriate aircraft category;

(2)has demonstrated the ability to instruct at night to an FI qualified in accordance with (i) below; and

(3)complies with the night experience requirement of FCL.060(b)(2);

(1)is qualified to fly at night in the appropriate aircraft category;

(2)has demonstrated the ability to instruct at night to an FI qualified in accordance with (i) below; and

(3)complies with the night experience requirement of FCL.060(b)(2);

(f)a towing, aerobatic or, in the case of an FI(S), a cloud flying rating, provided that such privileges are held and the FI has demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified in accordance with point (i);

(g)an EIR or an IR in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that the FI has:

(1)at least 200 hours of flight time under IFR, of which up to 50 hours may be instrument ground time in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or FNPT II;

(2)completed as a student pilot the IRI training course and has passed an assessment of competence for the IRI certificate; and

(3)in addition:

(i)for multi-engine aeroplanes, met the requirements for a CRI for multi-engine aeroplanes;

(ii)for multi-engine helicopters, met the requirements for the issue of a TRI certificate;

(1)at least 200 hours of flight time under IFR, of which up to 50 hours may be instrument ground time in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or FNPT II;

(2)completed as a student pilot the IRI training course and has passed an assessment of competence for the IRI certificate; and

(3)in addition:

(i)for multi-engine aeroplanes, met the requirements for a CRI for multi-engine aeroplanes;

(ii)for multi-engine helicopters, met the requirements for the issue of a TRI certificate;

(h)single-pilot multi-engine class or type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, provided that the FI meets:

(1)in the case of aeroplanes, the prerequisites for the CRI training course established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements of FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(2)in the case of helicopters, the requirements established in FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and the prerequisites for the TRI(H) training course established in FCL.915.TRI(d)(2);

(1)in the case of aeroplanes, the prerequisites for the CRI training course established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements of FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(2)in the case of helicopters, the requirements established in FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and the prerequisites for the TRI(H) training course established in FCL.915.TRI(d)(2);

(i)an FI, IRI, CRI, STI or MI certificate provided that the FI has:

(1)completed at least:

(i)in the case of an FI(S), at least 50 hours or 150 launches of flight instruction on sailplanes;

(ii)in the case of an FI(B), at least 50 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction on balloons;

(iii)in all other cases, 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category;

(2)passed an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in the appropriate aircraft category to demonstrate to a Flight Instructor Examiner (FIE) the ability to instruct for the FI certificate;

(1)completed at least:

(i)in the case of an FI(S), at least 50 hours or 150 launches of flight instruction on sailplanes;

(ii)in the case of an FI(B), at least 50 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction on balloons;

(iii)in all other cases, 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category;

(j)an MPL, provided that the FI:

(1)for the core flying phase of the training, has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;

(2)for the basic phase of the training:

(i)holds a multi-engine aeroplane IR and the privilege to instruct for an IR; and

(ii)has at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations;

(3)in the case of an FI already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses, the requirement of (2)(ii) may be replaced by the completion of a structured course of training consisting of:

(i)MCC qualification;

(ii)observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 3 of an MPL course;

(iii)observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 4 of an MPL course;

(iv)observing 5 operator recurrent line oriented flight training sessions;

(v)the content of the MCCI instructor course.

In this case, the FI shall conduct its first 5 instructor sessions under the supervision of a TRI(A), MCCI(A) or SFI(A) qualified for MPL flight instruction.

(1)for the core flying phase of the training, has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;

(2)for the basic phase of the training:

(i)holds a multi-engine aeroplane IR and the privilege to instruct for an IR; and

(ii)has at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations;

(i)MCC qualification;

(ii)observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 3 of an MPL course;

(iii)observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 4 of an MPL course;

(iv)observing 5 operator recurrent line oriented flight training sessions;

(v)the content of the MCCI instructor course.

In this case, the FI shall conduct its first 5 instructor sessions under the supervision of a TRI(A), MCCI(A) or SFI(A) qualified for MPL flight instruction.

### **FCL.910.FI** FI — Restricted privileges

@@ -2016,20 +2213,30 @@

An applicant for an FI certificate shall:

(a)in the case of the FI(A) and FI(H):

(1)have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft category, of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FSTD;

(2)have completed 20 hours of VFR cross-country flight on the appropriate aircraft category as PIC; and

(1)have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft category, of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FSTD;

(2)have completed 20 hours of VFR cross-country flight on the appropriate aircraft category as PIC; and

(b)additionally, for the FI(A):

(1)hold at least a CPL(A); or

(2)hold at least a PPL(A) and have:

(i)met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge, except for an FI(A) providing training for the LAPL(A) only; and

(ii)completed at least 200 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 150 hours as PIC;

(3)have completed at least 30 hours on single-engine piston powered aeroplanes of which at least 5 hours shall have been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-entry flight test set out in FCL.930.FI(a);

(4)have completed a VFR cross-country flight as PIC, including a flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at 2 different aerodromes shall be made;

(1)hold at least a CPL(A); or

(2)hold at least a PPL(A) and have:

(i)met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge, except for an FI(A) providing training for the LAPL(A) only; and

(ii)completed at least 200 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 150 hours as PIC;

(4)have completed a VFR cross-country flight as PIC, including a flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at 2 different aerodromes shall be made;

(c)additionally, for the FI(H), have completed 250 hours total flight time as pilot on helicopters of which:

(1)at least 100 hours shall be as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a CPL(H); or

(2)at least 200 hours as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a PPL(H) and has met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge;

(1)at least 100 hours shall be as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a CPL(H); or

(2)at least 200 hours as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a PPL(H) and has met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge;

(d)for an FI(As), have completed 500 hours of flight time on airships as PIC, of which 400 hours shall be as PIC holding a CPL(As);

@@ -2051,6 +2258,10 @@

(a) For revalidation of an FI certificate, the holder shall fulfil 2 of the following 3 requirements:

(1)complete:

(i)in the case of an FI(A) and (H), at least 50 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category during the period of validity of the certificate as, FI, TRI, CRI, IRI, MI or examiner. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been completed within the last 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate;

(ii)in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction in airships as FI, IRI or as examiner during the period of validity of the certificate. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been completed within the last 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate;

(iii)in the case of an FI(S), at least 30 hours or 60 take-offs of flight instruction in sailplanes, powered sailplanes or TMG as, FI or as examiner during the period of validity of the certificate;

(iv)in the case of an FI(B), at least 6 hours of flight instruction in balloons as, FI or as examiner during the period of validity of the certificate;

(2)attend an instructor refresher seminar, within the validity period of the FI certificate;

(3)pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935, within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate.

@@ -2069,27 +2280,42 @@

(b)the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that the holder has 3 years of experience as a TRI; and

(c)in the case of the TRI for single-pilot aeroplanes:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.

The privileges of the TRI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that the TRI:

(i)holds an MCCI certificate; or

(ii)holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(2)the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that he/she has the privileges extended to multi-pilot operations and holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.

The privileges of the TRI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that the TRI:

(i)holds an MCCI certificate; or

(ii)holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(2)the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that he/she has the privileges extended to multi-pilot operations and holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(d)in the case of the TRI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:

(i)multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(ii)single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(2)MCC training;

(3)the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, they hold or have held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate;

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:

(i)multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(ii)single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(2)MCC training;

(3)the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, they hold or have held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate;

(e)in the case of the TRI for helicopters:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;

(2)MCC training, provided he/she holds a multi-pilot helicopter type rating;

(3)the extension of the single-engine IR(H) to multi-engine IR(H);

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;

(2)MCC training, provided he/she holds a multi-pilot helicopter type rating;

(3)the extension of the single-engine IR(H) to multi-engine IR(H);

(f)in the case of the TRI for powered-lift aircraft:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings;

(2)MCC training.

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings;

(2)MCC training.

### **FCL.910.TRI** TRI — Restricted privileges

@@ -2103,6 +2329,9 @@

(1)The privileges of a TRI(H) are restricted to the type of helicopter in which the skill test for the issue of the TRI certificate was taken. Unless otherwise determined by in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the privileges of the TRI shall be extended to further types when the TRI has:

(i)completed the appropriate type technical part of the TRI course on the applicable type of helicopter or an FSTD representing that type;

(ii)conducted at least 2 hours of flight instruction on the applicable type, under the supervision of an adequately qualified TRI(H); and

(iii)passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in order to demonstrate to an FIE or TRE qualified in accordance with Subpart K his/her ability to instruct a pilot to the level required for the issue of a type rating, including pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical knowledge instruction.

(2)Before the privileges of a TRI(H) are extended from single-pilot to multi-pilot privileges on the same type of helicopters, the holder shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type.

(d) Notwithstanding the paragraphs above, holders of a TRI certificate who have been issued with a type rating in accordance with FCL.725(e) shall be entitled to have their TRI privileges extended to that new type of aircraft.

@@ -2114,25 +2343,37 @@

(a)hold a CPL, MPL or ATPL pilot licence on the applicable aircraft category;

(b)for a TRI(MPA) certificate:

(1)have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(2)have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type;

(1)have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(c)for a TRI(SPA) certificate:

(1)have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC on the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type; and

(2) (i)have competed at least 500 hours flight time as pilot on aeroplanes, including 30 hours as PIC on the applicable type of aeroplane; or

(ii)hold or have held an FI certificate for multi-engine aeroplanes with IR(A) privileges;

(d)for TRI(H):

(1)for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot single-engine helicopters, have completed 250 hours as a pilot on helicopters;

(2)for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, have completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;

(3)for a TRI(H) certificate for multi-pilot helicopters, have completed 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including:

(i)350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(ii)for applicants already holding a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, 100 hours as pilot of that type in multi-pilot operations.

(4)Holders of an FI(H) certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirements of (1) and (2) in the relevant single-pilot helicopter;

(1)for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot single-engine helicopters, have completed 250 hours as a pilot on helicopters;

(2)for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, have completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;

(3)for a TRI(H) certificate for multi-pilot helicopters, have completed 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including:

(i)350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(ii)for applicants already holding a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, 100 hours as pilot of that type in multi-pilot operations.

(4)Holders of an FI(H) certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirements of (1) and (2) in the relevant single-pilot helicopter;

(e)for TRI(PL):

(1)have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes, powered-lift, or multi-pilot helicopters; and

(2)have completed, within the 12 months preceding the application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable powered-lift type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type.

(1)have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes, powered-lift, or multi-pilot helicopters; and

### **FCL.930.TRI** TRI — Training course

@@ -2156,15 +2397,22 @@

### (a) ***Revalidation***

(1)Aeroplanes. For revalidation of a TRI(A) certificate, the applicant shall, within the last 12 months preceding the expiry date of the certificate, fulfil one of the following 3 requirements:

(i)conduct one of the following parts of a complete type rating training course: simulator session of at least 3 hours or one air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising a minimum of 2 take-offs and landings;

(ii)receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;

(iii)pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

(ii)receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;

(iii)pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

(2)Helicopters and powered lift. For revalidation of a TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate, the applicant shall, within the validity period of the TRI certificate, fulfil 2 of the following 3 requirements:

(i)complete 50 hours of flight instruction on each of the types of aircraft for which instructional privileges are held or in an FSTD representing those types, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the TRI certificate.

In the case of TRI(PL), these hours of flight instruction shall be flown as a TRI or type rating examiner (TRE), or SFI or synthetic flight examiner (SFE). In the case of TRI(H), time flown as FI, instrument rating instructor (IRI), synthetic training instructor (STI) or as any kind of examiner shall also be relevant for this purpose;

(ii)receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;

(iii)pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

(ii)receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;

(iii)pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

(3)For at least each alternate revalidation of a TRI certificate, the holder shall have to pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

@@ -2175,13 +2423,18 @@

### (b) ***Renewal***

(1)Aeroplanes. If the TRI (A) certificate has lapsed the applicant shall have:

(i)completed within the last 12 months preceding the application at least 30 route sectors, to include take-offs and landings on the applicable aeroplane type, of which not more than 15 sectors may be completed in a flight simulator;

(ii)completed the relevant parts of a TRI course at an approved ATO;

(iii)conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction on the applicable type of aeroplane under the supervision of a TRI(A).

(ii)completed the relevant parts of a TRI course at an approved ATO;

(iii)conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction on the applicable type of aeroplane under the supervision of a TRI(A).

(2)Helicopters and powered lift. If the TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within a period of 12 months before renewal:

(i)receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO, which should cover the relevant elements of the TRI training course; and

(ii)pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in each of the types of aircraft in which renewal of the instructional privileges is sought.

(i)receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO, which should cover the relevant elements of the TRI training course; and

(ii)pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in each of the types of aircraft in which renewal of the instructional privileges is sought.

### **FCL.905.CRI** CRI — Privileges and conditions

@@ -2201,12 +2454,16 @@

An applicant for a CRI certificate shall have completed at least:

(a)for multi-engine aeroplanes:

(1)500 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;

(2)30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane;

(1)500 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;

(2)30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane;

(b)for single-engine aeroplanes:

(1)300 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;

(2)30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane.

(1)300 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;

(2)30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane.

### **FCL.930.CRI** CRI — Training course

@@ -2244,13 +2501,16 @@

An applicant for an IRI certificate shall:

(a)for an IRI(A):

(1)have completed at least 800 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shall be in aeroplanes; and

(2)in the case of applicants of an IRI(A) for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements of paragraphs FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(1)have completed at least 800 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shall be in aeroplanes; and

(2)in the case of applicants of an IRI(A) for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements of paragraphs FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(b)for an IRI(H):

(1)have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 250 hours shall be instrument flight time in helicopters; and

(2)in the case of applicants for an IR(H) for multi-pilot helicopters, meet the requirements of FCL.905.FI(g)(3)(ii);

(1)have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 250 hours shall be instrument flight time in helicopters; and

(2)in the case of applicants for an IR(H) for multi-pilot helicopters, meet the requirements of FCL.905.FI(g)(3)(ii);

(c)for an IRI(As), have completed at least 300 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 100 hours shall be instrument flight time in airships.

@@ -2276,25 +2536,38 @@

(a)the issue, revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided that he/she holds or has held an IR in the relevant aircraft category and has completed an IRI training course; and

(b)in the case of SFI for single-pilot aeroplanes:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.

The privileges of the SFI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that he/she:

(i)holds an MCCI certificate; or

(ii)holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(2)provided that the privileges of the SFI(SPA) have been extended to multi-pilot operations in accordance with (1):

(i)MCC;

(ii)the MPL course on the basic phase;

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.

The privileges of the SFI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that he/she:

(i)holds an MCCI certificate; or

(ii)holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(2)provided that the privileges of the SFI(SPA) have been extended to multi-pilot operations in accordance with (1):

(i)MCC;

(ii)the MPL course on the basic phase;

(c)in the case of SFI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:

(i)multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(ii)single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(2)MCC;

(3)the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, he/she holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:

(i)multi-pilot aeroplanes;

(ii)single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(2)MCC;

(3)the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, he/she holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(d)in the case of SFI for helicopters:

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;

(2)MCC training, when the SFI has privileges to instruct for multi-pilot helicopters.

(1)the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;

(2)MCC training, when the SFI has privileges to instruct for multi-pilot helicopters.

### **FCL.910.SFI** SFI — Restricted privileges

@@ -2315,21 +2588,32 @@

(b)have completed the proficiency check for the issue of the specific aircraft type rating in an FFS representing the applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and

(c)additionally, for an SFI(A) for multi-pilot aeroplanes or SFI(PL), have:

(1)at least 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift, as applicable;

(2)completed, as a pilot or as an observer, within the 12 months preceding the application, at least:

(i)3 route sectors on the flight deck of the applicable aircraft type; or

(ii)2 line-orientated flight training-based simulator sessions conducted by qualified flight crew on the flight deck of the applicable type. These simulator sessions shall include 2 flights of at least 2 hours each between 2 different aerodromes, and the associated pre-flight planning and de-briefing;

(1)at least 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift, as applicable;

(2)completed, as a pilot or as an observer, within the 12 months preceding the application, at least:

(i)3 route sectors on the flight deck of the applicable aircraft type; or

(d)additionally, for an SFI(A) for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes:

(1)have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes;

(2)hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A) rating; and

(3)have met the requirements in (c)(2);

(1)have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes;

(2)hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A) rating; and

(3)have met the requirements in (c)(2);

(e)additionally, for an SFI(H), have:

(1)completed, as a pilot or as an observer, at least 1 hour of flight time on the flight deck of the applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and

(2)in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, at least 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot on helicopters, including at least 350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;

(3)in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;

(4)in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, completed 250 hours as a pilot on helicopters.

(1)completed, as a pilot or as an observer, at least 1 hour of flight time on the flight deck of the applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and

(2)in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, at least 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot on helicopters, including at least 350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;

(3)in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;

(4)in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, completed 250 hours as a pilot on helicopters.

### **FCL.930.SFI** SFI — Training course

@@ -2373,10 +2657,10 @@

(a)hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;

(b)have at least:

(1)in the case of aeroplanes, airships and powered-lift aircraft, 1 500 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi-pilot operations;

(2)in the case of helicopters, 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi-crew operations, of which at least 350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters.

(1)in the case of aeroplanes, airships and powered-lift aircraft, 1 500 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi-pilot operations;

(2)in the case of helicopters, 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi-crew operations, of which at least 350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters.

### **FCL.930.MCCI** MCCI — Training course

@@ -2420,7 +2704,8 @@

(a)hold, or have held within the 3 years prior to the application, a pilot licence and instructional privileges appropriate to the courses on which instruction is intended;

(b)have completed in an FNPT the relevant proficiency check for the class or type rating, within a period of 12 months preceding the application.

An applicant for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on BITDs only, shall complete only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A);

(c)additionally, for an STI(H), have completed at least 1 hour of flight time as an observer on the flight deck of the applicable type of helicopter, within the 12 months preceding the application.

@@ -2497,6 +2782,8 @@

(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of an FTI certificate, the applicant shall, within the validity period of the FTI certificate, fulfil one of the following requirements:

(1)complete at least:

(i)50 hours of flight tests, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FTI certificate; and

(ii)5 hours of flight test flight instruction within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FTI certificate; or

(2)receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall be based on the practical flight instruction element of the FTI training course, in accordance with FCL.930.FTI(a)(3), and include at least 1 instruction flight under the supervision of an FTI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b).

(b) Renewal. If the FTI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall comply at least with the requirements of FCL.930.FTI(a)(3).

@@ -2517,17 +2804,22 @@

(1)Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in the case of skill tests and proficiency checks provided in an ATO located outside the territory of the Member States, the competent authority of the Member State may issue an examiner certificate to an applicant holding a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, provided that the applicant:

(i)holds at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they are authorised to conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence, and in any case at least a CPL;

(ii)complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the relevant examiner certificate; and

(iii)demonstrates to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of European aviation safety rules to be able to exercise examiner privileges in accordance with this Part.

(2)The certificate referred to in paragraph (1) shall be limited to providing skill tests and proficiency tests/checks:

(i)outside the territory of the Member States; and

(ii)to pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which the test/check is given.

### **FCL.1005** Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests

Examiners shall not conduct:

(a)skill tests or assessments of competence of applicants for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate:

(1)to whom they have provided more than 25 % of the required flight instruction for the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test or assessment of competence is being taken; or

(2)when they have been responsible for the recommendation for the skill test, in accordance with FCL.030(b);

(1)to whom they have provided more than 25 % of the required flight instruction for the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test or assessment of competence is being taken; or

(2)when they have been responsible for the recommendation for the skill test, in accordance with FCL.030(b);

(b)skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence whenever they feel that their objectivity may be affected.

@@ -2581,6 +2873,11 @@

(1)inform the applicant of the result of the test. In the event of a partial pass or fail, the examiner shall inform the applicant that he/she may not exercise the privileges of the rating until a full pass has been obtained. The examiner shall detail any further training requirement and explain the applicant’s right of appeal;

(2)in the event of a pass in a proficiency check or assessment of competence for revalidation or renewal, endorse the applicant’s licence or certificate with the new expiry date of the rating or certificate, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence;

(3)provide the applicant with a signed report of the skill test or proficiency check and submit without delay copies of the report to the competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence, and to the competent authority that issued the examiner certificate. The report shall include:

(i)a declaration that the examiner has received information from the applicant regarding his/her experience and instruction, and found that experience and instruction complying with the applicable requirements in this Part;

(ii)confirmation that all the required manoeuvres and exercises have been completed, as well as information on the verbal theoretical knowledge examination, when applicable. If an item has been failed, the examiner shall record the reasons for this assessment;

(iii)the result of the test, check or assessment of competence;

(iv)a declaration that the examiner has reviewed and applied the national procedures and requirements of the applicant’s competent authority if the competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence is not the same that issued the examiner’s certificate;

(v)a copy of the examiner certificate containing the scope of his/her privileges as examiner in the case of skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence of an applicant for which the competent authority is not the same that issued the examiner’s certificate.

(c) Examiners shall maintain records for 5 years with details of all skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence performed and their results.

@@ -2647,7 +2944,11 @@

(2)for the initial issue of a TRE certificate, have completed 50 hours of flight instruction as a TRI, FI or SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type;

(3)in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and have completed 1 500 hours of flight as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;

(4)in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters:

(i)have completed 1 000 hours of flight as pilot on helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;

(ii)hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, a valid IR(H);

(5)in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters:

(i)have completed 750 hours of flight as a pilot on helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;

(ii)hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H).

(6)Before the privileges of a TRE(H) are extended from single-pilot multi-engine to multi-pilot multi-engine privileges on the same type of helicopter, the holder shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type.

(7)In the case of applicants for the first multi-pilot multi-engine TRE certificate, the 1 500 hours of flight experience on multi-pilot helicopters required in (b)(3) may be considered to have been met if they have completed the 500 hours of flight time as PIC on a multi-pilot helicopter of the same type.

@@ -2658,10 +2959,12 @@

(a)skill tests for the issue of class and type ratings;

(b)proficiency checks for:

(1)revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings;

(2)revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that the CRE complies with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a);

(3)revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that the CRE has completed at least 1 500 hours as a pilot on aeroplanes and complies with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2).

(1)revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings;

(2)revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that the CRE complies with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a);

(3)revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that the CRE has completed at least 1 500 hours as a pilot on aeroplanes and complies with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2).

(c)skill tests for the extension of LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane.

@@ -2750,6 +3053,8 @@

(1)hold the relevant instructor certificate;

(2)have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;

(3)have completed:

(i)for applicants wishing to conduct assessments of competence on TMGs, 10 hours or 30 take-offs instructing applicants for an instructor certificate in TMGs;

(ii)in all other cases, 10 hours or 30 launches instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.

(e) FIE(B). Applicants for an FIE certificate for balloons shall:

(1)hold the relevant instructor certificate;

@@ -2767,11 +3072,16 @@

1.1.For the issue of an LAPL, the holder of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited with theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in FCL.120(a).

1.2.Without prejudice to the paragraph above, for the issue of an LAPL, PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of a licence in another category of aircraft shall receive theoretical knowledge instruction and pass theoretical knowledge examinations to the appropriate level in the following subjects:

—Principles of Flight,

—Operational Procedures,

—Flight Performance and Planning,

—Aircraft General Knowledge,

—Navigation.

—Principles of Flight,

—Operational Procedures,

—Flight Performance and Planning,

—Aircraft General Knowledge,

—Navigation.

1.3.For the issue of a PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be credited in full towards the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination requirements.

@@ -2782,51 +3092,74 @@

2.1.An applicant for a CPL holding a CPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction on an approved course according to the differences identified between the CPL syllabi for different aircraft categories.

2.2.The applicant shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Part for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

021 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, Emergency Equipment,

022 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,

032/034 — Performance Aeroplanes or Helicopters, as applicable,

070 — Operational Procedures, and

080 — Principles of Flight.

021 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, Emergency Equipment,

022 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,

032/034 — Performance Aeroplanes or Helicopters, as applicable,

070 — Operational Procedures, and

080 — Principles of Flight.

2.3.An applicant for a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an IR in the same category of aircraft is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

—Human Performance,

—Meteorology.

—Human Performance,

—Meteorology.

### 3. ATPL

3.1.An applicant for an ATPL holding an ATPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO according to the differences identified between the ATPL syllabi for different aircraft categories.

3.2.The applicant shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Part for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

021 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, Emergency Equipment,

022 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,

032/034 — Performance Aeroplanes or Helicopters, as applicable,

070 — Operational Procedures, and

080 — Principles of Flight

021 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, Emergency Equipment,

022 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,

032/034 — Performance Aeroplanes or Helicopters, as applicable,

070 — Operational Procedures, and

080 — Principles of Flight

3.3.An applicant for an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for a CPL(A) is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in subject VFR Communications.

3.4.An applicant for an ATPL(H), having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

—Air Law,

—Principles of Flight (Helicopter),

—VFR Communications.

—Air Law,

—Principles of Flight (Helicopter),

—VFR Communications.

3.5.An applicant for an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for an IR(A) is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in subject IFR Communications.

3.6.An applicant for an ATPL(H) with an IR(H), having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

—Principles of Flight (Helicopter),

—VFR Communications.

—Principles of Flight (Helicopter),

—VFR Communications.

### 4. IR

4.1.An applicant for an IR or an EIR having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL in the same aircraft category is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

—Human Performance,

—Meteorology.

—Human Performance,

—Meteorology.

4.2.An applicant for an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an ATPL(H) VFR is required to pass the following examination subjects:

—Air Law,

—Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring,

—Radio Navigation,

—IFR Communications.

—Air Law,

—Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring,

—Radio Navigation,

—IFR Communications.

## Appendix 2

@@ -2855,9 +3188,12 @@

3.An applicant may be admitted to training either as an *ab-initio* entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b)visual and instrument flying training; and

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b)visual and instrument flying training; and

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -2868,31 +3204,50 @@

8.An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(A).

9.The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 55 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b)70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC). The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;

(c)50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d)5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which will include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(e)115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1)20 hours as SPIC;

(2)15 hours MCC, for which an FFS or FNPT II may be used;

(3)50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i)25 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT I; or

(ii)40 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.

An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(f)5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

(a)95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time;

(e)115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1)20 hours as SPIC;

(2)15 hours MCC, for which an FFS or FNPT II may be used;

(3)50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i)25 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT I; or

(ii)40 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(f)5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

10.Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane and the IR skill test on a multi-engine aeroplane.

### B. ATP modular course — Aeroplanes

1.Applicants for an ATPL(A) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall:

(a)hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and

complete at least the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction:

(1)for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours;

(2)for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours;

(3)for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours;

(4)for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours.

The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.

(a)hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and

complete at least the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction:

(1)for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours;

(2)for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours;

(3)for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours;

(4)for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours.

The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.

### C. CPL/IR integrated course — Aeroplanes

@@ -2903,8 +3258,10 @@

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -2913,17 +3270,28 @@

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A) and an IR.

8.The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 40 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b)70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time which may be flown as SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;

(d)5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(e)100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1)20 hours as SPIC; and

(2)50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i)25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or

(ii)40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(f)5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

(a)80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time;

(e)100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1)20 hours as SPIC; and

(2)50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i)25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or

(ii)40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(f)5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

9.Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test and the IR skill test on either a multi-engine aeroplane or a single-engine aeroplane.

@@ -2936,8 +3304,10 @@

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -2946,12 +3316,18 @@

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A).

8.The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b)70 hours as PIC;

(c)20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(e)10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, FTD 2, FNPT II or FFS. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(f)5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

(a)80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b)70 hours as PIC;

(f)5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

9.Upon completion of the flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.

@@ -2962,14 +3338,18 @@

2.Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

3.Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:

(a)have completed 150 hours flight time;

(b)have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-engine aeroplanes in accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used on the skill test.

(a)have completed 150 hours flight time;

(b)have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-engine aeroplanes in accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used on the skill test.

4.An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(A) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only.

5.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

6.An approved CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.

@@ -2985,18 +3365,26 @@

11.At least 5 hours of the flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons and have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

12.The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed at least 200 hours flight time, including at least:

(a)100 hours as PIC, of which 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, which shall include a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(b)5 hours of flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(c)10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or FNPT II or FFS. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(d)6 hours of flight time shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane, if a multi-engine aeroplane is used for the skill test.

(e)Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(i)30 hours in helicopter, if the applicant holds a PPL(H); or

(ii)100 hours in helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(H); or

(iii)30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(iv)30 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(v)60 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

(d)6 hours of flight time shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane, if a multi-engine aeroplane is used for the skill test.

(e)Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(i)30 hours in helicopter, if the applicant holds a PPL(H); or

(ii)100 hours in helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(H); or

(iii)30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(iv)30 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(v)60 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

13.Upon completion of the flying training and relevant experience requirements the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.

@@ -3007,13 +3395,18 @@

2.An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3.An applicant may be admitted to training either as an *ab-initio* entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level;

(b)visual and instrument flying training; and

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level;

(b)visual and instrument flying training; and

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H)/IR course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3024,23 +3417,40 @@

8.An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(H) and an IR.

9.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)140 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(1)75 hours visual instruction may include:

(i)30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D; or

(ii)25 hours in a FTD 2,3; or

(iii)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(iv)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(2)50 hours instrument instruction may include:

(i)up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II/III; or

(ii)10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane;

(3)15 hours MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or helicopter FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III;

(b)55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c)50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d)5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

(e)50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i)10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii)40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.

(a)140 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(1)75 hours visual instruction may include:

(i)30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D; or

(ii)25 hours in a FTD 2,3; or

(iii)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(iv)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(2)50 hours instrument instruction may include:

(i)up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II/III; or

(ii)10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane;

(3)15 hours MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or helicopter FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.

(b)55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(e)50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i)10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii)40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.

10.Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR certificated multi-engine helicopter and shall comply with the requirements for MCC training.

@@ -3051,13 +3461,18 @@

2.An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level;

(b)visual and basic instrument flying training; and

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level;

(b)visual and basic instrument flying training; and

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3068,32 +3483,50 @@

8.An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL (H).

9.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)95 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)75 hours visual instruction may include:

(1)30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2)25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii)10 hours basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane;

(iii)10 hours MCC, for which a helicopter: helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.

(b)55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c)50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(a)95 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)75 hours visual instruction may include:

(1)30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2)25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii)10 hours basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane;

(iii)10 hours MCC, for which a helicopter: helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.

(b)55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

10.Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-engine helicopter and comply with MCC requirements.

### H. ATP modular course — Helicopters

1.Applicants for an ATPL(H) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction within a period of 18 months:

(a)for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention: 550 hours;

(b)for applicants holding a CPL(H): 300 hours.

(a)for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention: 550 hours;

(b)for applicants holding a CPL(H): 300 hours.

2.Applicants for an ATPL(H)/IR who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction:

(a)for applicants holding a PPL(H): 650 hours;

(b)for applicants holding a CPL(H): 400 hours;

(c)for applicants holding an IR(H): 500 hours;

(d)for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H): 250 hours.

(a)for applicants holding a PPL(H): 650 hours;

(b)for applicants holding a CPL(H): 400 hours;

(c)for applicants holding an IR(H): 500 hours;

(d)for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H): 250 hours.

### I. CPL/IR integrated course — Helicopters

@@ -3102,12 +3535,16 @@

2.An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3.An applicant may be admitted to training either as an *ab-initio* entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50 % of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-engine helicopter type rating; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-engine helicopter type rating; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H)/IR course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3116,23 +3553,40 @@

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H) and an IR.

8.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours including all progress tests. Within the 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)125 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)75 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1)30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2)25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii)50 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1)up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3, or FNPT II, III; or

(2)10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;

(b)55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(d)10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(e)5 hours of flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

(f)50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i)10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii)40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.

(a)125 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)75 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1)30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2)25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii)50 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1)up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3, or FNPT II, III; or

(2)10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;

(b)55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(f)50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i)10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii)40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.

9.Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.

@@ -3143,12 +3597,16 @@

2.An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

(a)40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3157,19 +3615,32 @@

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H).

8.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 135 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 135 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)85 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include:

(1)30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2)25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii)up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;

(b)50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(e)5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

(f)10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter.

(a)85 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include:

(1)30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2)25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3)20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4)20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii)up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;

(b)50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(f)10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter.

9.Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.

@@ -3180,36 +3651,46 @@

2.Before commencing a CPL(H) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

3.Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:

(a)have completed 155 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC in helicopters of which 10 hours shall be cross-country. Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 155 hours flight time as prescribed in paragraph 11 of Section K;

(b)have complied with FCL.725 and FCL.720.H if a multi-engine helicopter is to be used on the skill test.

4.An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(H) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.

5.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

6.An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H).

8.Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 30 hours dual flight instruction, of which:

(a)20 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and

(b)10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

(a)20 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and

(b)10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

9.Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in a helicopter.

10.Applicants without a night rating helicopter shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

11.The applicant for a CPL(H) shall have completed at least 185 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC, of which 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

Hours as pilot-in-command of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(a)20 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a PPL(A); or

(b)50 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a CPL(A); or

(d)20 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(e)50 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

Hours as pilot-in-command of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(a)20 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a PPL(A); or

(b)50 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a CPL(A); or

(d)20 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(e)50 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

12.Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.

@@ -3220,12 +3701,16 @@

2.An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3.An applicant may be admitted to training either as an *ab-initio* entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:

(a)10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has been obtained.

(a)10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has been obtained.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial airship type rating; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial airship type rating; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3234,22 +3719,38 @@

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As) and an IR.

8.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 80 hours including all progress tests. Within the 80 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)60 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)30 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1)12 hours in an airship FFS; or

(2)10 hours in an airship FTD; or

(3)8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III; or

(4)8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG;

(ii)30 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1)up to 12 hours in an airship FFS or FTD or FNPT II, III; or

(2)6 hours in at least a airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

If the airship used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to 8 hours;

(b)20 hours as PIC, of which 5 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c)5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(d)5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;

(e)30 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i)10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii)20 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated airship.

(a)60 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i)30 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1)12 hours in an airship FFS; or

(2)10 hours in an airship FTD; or

(3)8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III; or

(4)8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG;

(ii)30 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1)up to 12 hours in an airship FFS or FTD or FNPT II, III; or

(2)6 hours in at least a airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

If the airship used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to 8 hours;

(b)20 hours as PIC, of which 5 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c)5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(e)30 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i)10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii)20 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated airship.

9.Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine airship and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine airship.

@@ -3260,12 +3761,16 @@

2.An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

(a)10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if a airship night rating has been obtained.

(a)10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b)15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if a airship night rating has been obtained.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3274,12 +3779,18 @@

7.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As).

8.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 50 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 50 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:

(a)30 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b)20 hours as PIC;

(d)5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(e)5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;

(f)10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship.

(a)30 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b)20 hours as PIC;

(d)5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(f)10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship.

9.Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.

@@ -3288,33 +3799,44 @@

1.The aim of the CPL(As) modular course is to train PPL(As) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(As).

2.Before commencing a CPL(As) modular course an applicant shall:

(a)hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(b)have completed 200 hours flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours shall be cross-country.

(a)hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(b)have completed 200 hours flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours shall be cross-country.

3.An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(As) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and

(b)visual and instrument flying training.

5.An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.

6.An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As).

7.Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 20 hours dual flight instruction, of which:

10 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and

10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

10 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and

10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

8.Applicants holding a valid IR(As) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR in another category of aircraft shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in an airship.

9.Applicants without a night rating airship shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

10.The applicant for a CPL(As) shall have completed at least 250 hours flight time in airships, including 125 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM), in the course of which a full stop landing at destination aerodrome.

Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(a)30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a PPL(A) or PPL(H) respectively; or

(b)60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(A) or CPL(H) respectively; or

(d)10 hours in balloons.

Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(a)30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a PPL(A) or PPL(H) respectively; or

(b)60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(A) or CPL(H) respectively; or

(d)10 hours in balloons.

11.Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.

@@ -3347,91 +3869,92 @@

2.The route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and the destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The applicant shall be responsible for the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 90 minutes.

3.The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a)operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b)complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c)exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d)apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e)maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

(a)operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b)complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c)exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d)apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e)maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

4.The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used.

Height

normal flight

± 100 feet

with simulated engine failure

± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids

± 5°

Heading

normal flight

± 10°

with simulated engine failure

± 15°

Speed

take-off and approach

± 5 knots

all other flight regimes

± 10 knots

Height

normal flight ± 100 feet

with simulated engine failure ± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids ± 5°

Heading

normal flight ± 10°

with simulated engine failure ± 15°

Speed

take-off and approach ± 5 knots

all other flight regimes ± 10 knots

5.Items in section 2(c) and (e)(iv), and the whole of sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS.

Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, anti-icing/de-icing procedures and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE

a Pre-flight, including:

Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS

b Aeroplane inspection and servicing

c Taxiing and take-off

d Performance considerations and trim

e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations

f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)

g ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK

a Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout

b Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls

c Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45°

d Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives

e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:

(i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed

(ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°-30° bank

(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes

(iv) limited panel instruments

f ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration Range/Endurance considerations

b Orientation, map reading

c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout

d Altimeter setting. ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

e Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct tracking

f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning

g Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)

SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES

a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout

b ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

c Go-around action from low height

d Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)

e Short field landing

f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)

g Landing without use of flaps

h Post-flight actions

SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4

a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill

b Equipment malfunctions

including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure

c Forced landing (simulated)

d ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

e Oral questions

SECTION 6 — SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5

a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)

b Asymmetric approach and go-around

c Asymmetric approach and full stop landing

d Engine shutdown and restart

e ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship

f As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable:

(i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot

(ii) operation of pressurisation system

(iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system

g Oral questions

Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, anti-icing/de-icing procedures and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

| SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE | |

| --- | --- |

| a | Pre-flight, including: Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS |

| b | Aeroplane inspection and servicing |

| c | Taxiing and take-off |

| d | Performance considerations and trim |

| e | Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations |

| f | Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout) |

| g | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK | |

| a | Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout |

| b | Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls |

| c | Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45° |

| d | Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives |

| e | Flight by reference solely to instruments, including: (i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed (ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°-30° bank (iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes (iv) limited panel instruments |

| f | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES | |

| a | Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration Range/Endurance considerations |

| b | Orientation, map reading |

| c | Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout |

| d | Altimeter setting. ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| e | Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct tracking |

| f | Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning |

| g | Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight) |

| SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES | |

| a | Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout |

| b | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| c | Go-around action from low height |

| d | Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) |

| e | Short field landing |

| f | Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only) |

| g | Landing without use of flaps |

| h | Post-flight actions |

| SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES | |

| This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4 | |

| a | Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill |

| b | Equipment malfunctions including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure |

| c | Forced landing (simulated) |

| d | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| e | Oral questions |

| SECTION 6 — SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS | |

| This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5 | |

| a | Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS) |

| b | Asymmetric approach and go-around |

| c | Asymmetric approach and full stop landing |

| d | Engine shutdown and restart |

| e | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship |

| f | As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable: (i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot (ii) operation of pressurisation system (iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system |

| g | Oral questions |

### C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL — Helicopters

@@ -3440,90 +3963,96 @@

2.The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and all low level and hover work shall be at an approved aerodrome/site. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 90 minutes.

3.The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a)operate the helicopter within its limitations;

(b)complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c)exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d)apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e)maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

(a)operate the helicopter within its limitations;

(b)complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c)exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d)apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e)maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

4.The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used.

Height

normal flight

± 100 feet

simulated major emergency

± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids

± 10°

Heading

normal flight

± 10°

simulated major emergency

± 15°

Speed

take-off and approach multi-engine

± 5 knots

all other flight regimes

± 10 knots

Ground drift

T.O. hover I.G.E.

± 3 feet

landing no sideways or backwards movement

Height

normal flight ± 100 feet

simulated major emergency ± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids ± 10°

Heading

normal flight ± 10°

simulated major emergency ± 15°

Speed

take-off and approach multi-engine ± 5 knots

all other flight regimes ± 10 knots

Ground drift

T.O. hover I.G.E. ± 3 feet

landing no sideways or backwards movement

5.Items in section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS. Use of helicopter checklists, airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT/POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES

a Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning, documentation, NOTAMS, weather

b Pre-flight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose

c Cockpit inspection, starting procedure

d Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies

e Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure, ATC liaison-compliance

f Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure

SECTION 2 — HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS

a Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown)

b Taxi, hover taxi

c Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind

d Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)

e Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring

f Simulated engine failure from the hover

g Quick stops into and downwind

h Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs

i Take-offs (various profiles)

j Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable)

k Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)

l Approaches (various profiles)

m Limited power take-off and landing

n Autorotations (FE to select two items from — Basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns)

o Autorotative landing

p Practice forced landing with power recovery

q Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique

SECTION 3 — NAVIGATION — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading

b Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting

c Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct track, instrument monitoring

d Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning

e Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities

f ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc.

SECTION 4 — FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS

a Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed

b Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180° to 360° left and right

c Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings

d Recovery from unusual attitudes

e Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right

SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHERE APPROPRIATE)

*Note 1:* Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter a simulated engine failure drill, including a single-engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test.

*Note 2:* The FE shall select four items from the following:

a Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as appropriate

b Fuel system malfunction

c Electrical system malfunction

d Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable

e Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)

f Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable

g Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual, including for multi-engine helicopters:

Simulated engine failure at take-off:

rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO, shortly after TDP or DPATO.

Landing with simulated engine failure:

landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL,

following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL.

| SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT/POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES | |

| --- | --- |

| a | Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning, documentation, NOTAMS, weather |

| b | Pre-flight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose |

| c | Cockpit inspection, starting procedure |

| d | Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies |

| e | Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure, ATC liaison-compliance |

| f | Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure |

| SECTION 2 — HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS | |

| a | Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown) |

| b | Taxi, hover taxi |

| c | Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind |

| d | Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns) |

| e | Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring |

| f | Simulated engine failure from the hover |

| g | Quick stops into and downwind |

| h | Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs |

| i | Take-offs (various profiles) |

| j | Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable) |

| k | Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated) |

| l | Approaches (various profiles) |

| m | Limited power take-off and landing |

| n | Autorotations (FE to select two items from — Basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns) |

| o | Autorotative landing |

| p | Practice forced landing with power recovery |

| q | Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique |

| SECTION 3 — NAVIGATION — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES | |

| a | Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading |

| b | Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting |

| c | Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct track, instrument monitoring |

| d | Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning |

| e | Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities |

| f | ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc. |

| SECTION 4 — FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS | |

| a | Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed |

| b | Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180° to 360° left and right |

| c | Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings |

| d | Recovery from unusual attitudes |

| e | Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right |

| SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHERE APPROPRIATE) | |

| *Note 1:* Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter a simulated engine failure drill, including a single-engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test. | |

| *Note 2:* The FE shall select four items from the following: | |

| a | Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as appropriate |

| b | Fuel system malfunction |

| c | Electrical system malfunction |

| d | Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable |

| e | Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only) |

| f | Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable |

| g | Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual, including for multi-engine helicopters: Simulated engine failure at take-off: rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO, shortly after TDP or DPATO. Landing with simulated engine failure: landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL, following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL. |

### D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Airships

@@ -3532,84 +4061,84 @@

2.The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 60 minutes.

3.The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a)operate the airship within its limitations;

(b)complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c)exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d)apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e)maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

(a)operate the airship within its limitations;

(b)complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c)exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d)apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e)maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

4.The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the airship used.

Height

normal flight

± 100 feet

simulated major emergency

± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids

± 10°

Heading

normal flight

± 10°

simulated major emergency

± 15°

Height

normal flight ± 100 feet

simulated major emergency ± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids ± 10°

Heading

normal flight ± 10°

simulated major emergency ± 15°

5.Items in sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an Airship FNPT or an airship FFS. Use of airship checklists, airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE

a Pre-flight, including:

Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and Balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS

b Airship inspection and servicing

c Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off

d Performance considerations and trim

e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations

f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)

g ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK

a Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout

b Flight at pressure height

c Turns

d Steep descents and climbs

e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:

(i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed

(ii) climbing and descending turns

(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes

(iv) limited panel instruments

f ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Control of airship by external visual reference,

Range/Endurance considerations

b Orientation, map reading

c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout

d Altimeter setting, ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

e Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct tracking

f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning

g Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)

SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES

a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout

b ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

c Go-around action from low height

d Normal landing

e Short field landing

f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)

g Landing without use of flaps

h Post-flight actions

SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4

a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill

b Equipment malfunctions

c Forced landing (simulated)

d ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

e Oral questions

SECTION 6 — RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5

a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)

b Approach and go-around with failed engine(s)

c Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s)

d Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system

e ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship

f As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable:

(i) airship systems

(ii) operation of envelope pressure system

g Oral questions

| SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE | |

| --- | --- |

| a | Pre-flight, including: Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and Balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS |

| b | Airship inspection and servicing |

| c | Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off |

| d | Performance considerations and trim |

| e | Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations |

| f | Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout) |

| g | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK | |

| a | Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout |

| b | Flight at pressure height |

| c | Turns |

| d | Steep descents and climbs |

| e | Flight by reference solely to instruments, including: (i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed (ii) climbing and descending turns (iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes (iv) limited panel instruments |

| f | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES | |

| a | Control of airship by external visual reference, Range/Endurance considerations |

| b | Orientation, map reading |

| c | Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout |

| d | Altimeter setting, ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| e | Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct tracking |

| f | Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning |

| g | Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight) |

| SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES | |

| a | Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout |

| b | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| c | Go-around action from low height |

| d | Normal landing |

| e | Short field landing |

| f | Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only) |

| g | Landing without use of flaps |

| h | Post-flight actions |

| SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES | |

| This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4 | |

| a | Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill |

| b | Equipment malfunctions |

| c | Forced landing (simulated) |

| d | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| e | Oral questions |

| SECTION 6 — RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS | |

| This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5 | |

| a | Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS) |

| b | Approach and go-around with failed engine(s) |

| c | Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s) |

| d | Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system |

| e | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship |

| f | As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable: (i) airship systems (ii) operation of envelope pressure system |

| g | Oral questions |

## Appendix 5

@@ -3626,10 +4155,14 @@

4.Only *ab-initio* applicants shall be admitted to the course.

5.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b)visual and instrument flying training;

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(d)type rating training.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b)visual and instrument flying training;

(c)training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(d)type rating training.

6.An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire MPL course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

@@ -3640,23 +4173,36 @@

#### FLYING TRAINING

8.The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as PF and PNF, in actual and simulated flight, and covering the following 4 phases of training:

(a)Phase 1 — Core flying skills

Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane.

(b)Phase 2 — Basic

Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight.

(c)Phase 3 — Intermediate

Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a high performance aeroplane in accordance with Part-21.

(d)Phase 4 — Advanced

Type rating training within an airline oriented environment.

Flight experience in actual flight shall include all the experience requirements of Subpart H, upset recovery training, night flying, flight solely by reference to instruments and the experience required to achieve the relevant airmanship.

MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above.

Training in asymmetric flight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS.

(a)Phase 1 — Core flying skills

Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane.

(b)Phase 2 — Basic

Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight.

(c)Phase 3 — Intermediate

Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a high performance aeroplane in accordance with Part-21.

(d)Phase 4 — Advanced

Type rating training within an airline oriented environment.

MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above.

Training in asymmetric flight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS.

9.Each phase of training in the flight instruction syllabus shall be composed of both instruction in the underpinning knowledge and in practical training segments.

10.The training course shall include a continuous evaluation process of the training syllabus and a continuous assessment of the students following the syllabus. Evaluation shall ensure that:

(a)the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of a co-pilot of a multi-pilot aeroplane; and

(b)the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory manner.

(a)the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of a co-pilot of a multi-pilot aeroplane; and

(b)the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory manner.

11.The training course shall include at least 12 take-offs and landings to ensure competency. These take-offs and landings shall be performed under the supervision of an instructor in an aeroplane for which the type rating shall be issued.

@@ -3667,31 +4213,52 @@

#### COMPETENCY UNITS

13.The applicant shall demonstrate competency in the following 9 competency units:

(1)apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management;

(2)perform aeroplane ground operations;

(3)perform take-off;

(4)perform climb;

(5)perform cruise;

(6)perform descent;

(7)perform approach;

(8)perform landing; and

(9)perform after landing and aeroplane post-flight operations.

(1)apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management;

(2)perform aeroplane ground operations;

(3)perform take-off;

(4)perform climb;

(5)perform cruise;

(6)perform descent;

(7)perform approach;

(8)perform landing; and

(9)perform after landing and aeroplane post-flight operations.

#### SIMULATED FLIGHT

14.Minimum requirements for FSTDs:

(a)Phase 1 — Core flying skills

E-training and part tasking devices approved by the competent authority that have the following characteristics:

—involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers, such as functional replicas of a throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller, or an FMS keypad, and

—involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of responses.

(b)Phase 2 — Basic

An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane.

(c)Phase 3 — Intermediate

An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot and qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally including:

—a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum collimated visual field of view providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40° vertical field of view, and

—ATC environment simulation.

(d)Phase 4 — Advanced

An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual system, including ATC environment simulation.

(a)Phase 1 — Core flying skills

E-training and part tasking devices approved by the competent authority that have the following characteristics:

—involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers, such as functional replicas of a throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller, or an FMS keypad, and

—involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of responses.

(b)Phase 2 — Basic

An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane.

(c)Phase 3 — Intermediate

An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot and qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally including:

—a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum collimated visual field of view providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40° vertical field of view, and

—ATC environment simulation.

(d)Phase 4 — Advanced

An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual system, including ATC environment simulation.

## Appendix 6

@@ -3700,21 +4267,28 @@

### A. IR(A) — Modular flying training course

1.The aim of the IR(A) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined:

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module

This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module

This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(A), 40 hours single-engine or 45 hours multi-engine instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(A).

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module

2.An applicant for a modular IR(A) course shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(A), shall be holder of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.

The ATO shall ensure that the applicant for a multi-engine IR(A) course who has not held a multi-engine aeroplane class or type rating has received the multi-engine training specified in Subpart H prior to commencing the flight training for the IR(A) course.

3.An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(A) course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.

4.The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.

5.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

6.An approved modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

@@ -3731,30 +4305,54 @@

10.3.The total instrument flight instruction in aeroplane shall comply with paragraph 7 or 8, as appropriate.

11.The flying exercises up to the IR(A) skill test shall comprise:

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module: Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

—horizontal flight,

—climbing,

—descent,

—turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

instrument pattern;

steep turn;

radionavigation;

recovery from unusual attitudes;

limited panel;

recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls;

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

—transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

—standard instrument departures and arrivals,

—en-route IFR procedures,

—holding procedures,

—instrument approaches to specified minima,

—missed approach procedures,

—landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii)in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(iv)if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module: Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

—horizontal flight,

—climbing,

—descent,

—turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

instrument pattern;

steep turn;

radionavigation;

recovery from unusual attitudes;

limited panel;

recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls;

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

—transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

—standard instrument departures and arrivals,

—en-route IFR procedures,

—holding procedures,

—instrument approaches to specified minima,

—missed approach procedures,

—landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii)in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

### Aa. IR(A) — Competency-based modular flying training course

@@ -3765,66 +4363,110 @@

3.The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The instrument flight instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass of the theoretical knowledge examinations.

4.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR(A) knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR(A) knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

5.An approved competency-based modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction. The theoretical knowledge course may contain computer-based training and e-learning elements. A minimum amount of classroom teaching as required by ORA.ATO.305 has to be provided.

6.The method of attaining an IR(A) following this modular course is competency-based. However, the minimum requirements below shall be completed by the applicant. Additional training may be required to reach required competencies.

(a)A single-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 40 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 25 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(i)When the applicant has:

(A)completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or

(B)prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating providing the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

these hours may be credited towards the 40 hours above up to maximum of 30 hours,

(ii)When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point (a)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 40 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii)In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in an aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv)The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours.

(b)A multi-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 45 hours instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 30 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(i)When the applicant has:

(A)completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or

(B)prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating giving the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

these hours may be credited towards the 45 hours above up to a maximum of 35 hours.

(ii)When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point (b)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 45 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii)In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in a multi-engine aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv)The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours, of which at least 15 hours shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.

(c)To determine the amount of hours credited and to establish the training needs, the applicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at an ATO.

(d)The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) in accordance with point (a)(i) or (b)(i) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor.

(i)When the applicant has:

(A)completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or

(B)prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating providing the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

these hours may be credited towards the 40 hours above up to maximum of 30 hours,

(ii)When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point (a)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 40 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii)In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in an aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv)The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours.

(i)When the applicant has:

(A)completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or

(B)prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating giving the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

these hours may be credited towards the 45 hours above up to a maximum of 35 hours.

(ii)When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point (b)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 45 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii)In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in a multi-engine aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv)The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours, of which at least 15 hours shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.

(c)To determine the amount of hours credited and to establish the training needs, the applicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at an ATO.

7.The flight instruction for the competency-based modular IR(A) shall comprise:

(a)procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least:

(i)basic instrument flight without external visual cues;

(ii)horizontal flight;

(iii)climbing;

(iv)descent;

(v)turns in level flight, climbing and descent;

(vi)instrument pattern;

(vii)steep turn;

(viii)radio navigation;

(ix)recovery from unusual attitudes;

(x)limited panel; and

(xi)recognition and recovery from incipient and full stall;

(b)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents for the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(c)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions covering at least:

(i)transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(ii)standard instrument departures and arrivals;

(iii)en route IFR procedures;

(iv)holding procedures;

(v)instrument approaches to specified minima;

(vi)missed approach procedures; and

(vii)landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(d)in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(e)if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including:

(i)operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative;

(ii)engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

(a)procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least:

(i)basic instrument flight without external visual cues;

(ii)horizontal flight;

(iii)climbing;

(iv)descent;

(v)turns in level flight, climbing and descent;

(vi)instrument pattern;

(vii)steep turn;

(viii)radio navigation;

(ix)recovery from unusual attitudes;

(x)limited panel; and

(xi)recognition and recovery from incipient and full stall;

(b)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents for the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(c)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions covering at least:

(i)transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(ii)standard instrument departures and arrivals;

(iii)en route IFR procedures;

(iv)holding procedures;

(v)instrument approaches to specified minima;

(vi)missed approach procedures; and

(vii)landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(d)in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(e)if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including:

(i)operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative;

(ii)engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

8.Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid IR(A) issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be credited in full towards the training course mentioned in paragraph 4. In order to be issued the IR(A), the applicant shall:

(a)successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;

(b)demonstrate to the examiner during the skill test that he/she has acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR); and

(c)have a minimum experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.

(a)successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;

(b)demonstrate to the examiner during the skill test that he/she has acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR); and

(c)have a minimum experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.

9.The content and duration of the pre-entry assessment shall be determined by the ATO based on the prior instrument experience of the applicant.

@@ -3841,20 +4483,28 @@

4.The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The flight instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

5.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

6.An approved modular IR(H) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of instruction.

7.A single-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction, of which:

(a)up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I(H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction time in FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or

(b)up to 35 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.

The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter.

(b)up to 35 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.

The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter.

8.A multi-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction of which;

(a)up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction time in FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or

(b)up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.

The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.

(a)up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction time in FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or

(b)up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.

The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.

9.1.Holders of an ATPL(H) shall have the theoretical knowledge instruction hours reduced by 50 hours.

@@ -3863,25 +4513,40 @@

9.3.The holder of a PPL(H) with a helicopter night rating or a CPL(H) may have the total amount of instrument time under instruction required reduced by 5 hours.

10.The flying exercises up to the IR(H) skill test shall comprise:

(a)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(b)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

transition from visual to instrument flight on takeoff,

standard instrument departures and arrivals,

en-route IFR procedures,

holding procedures,

instrument approaches to specified minima,

missed approach procedures,

landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(c)in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(d)if required, operation of a multi-engine helicopter in the above exercises, including operation of the helicopter solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out in an FFS or FNPT II or FTD 2/3).

(a)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(b)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

transition from visual to instrument flight on takeoff,

standard instrument departures and arrivals,

en-route IFR procedures,

holding procedures,

instrument approaches to specified minima,

missed approach procedures,

landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(c)in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

### C. IR(As) — Modular flying training course

1.The aim of the IR(As) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate airships under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined:

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module

This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As).

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module

This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As).

2.An applicant for a modular IR(As) course shall be the holder of a PPL(As) including the privileges to fly at night or a CPL(As). An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(As), shall be holder of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.

@@ -3890,8 +4555,10 @@

5.The course shall comprise:

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

(a)theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b)instrument flight instruction.

6.An approved modular IR(As) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

@@ -3902,29 +4569,52 @@

9.If the applicant is the holder of an IR in another category of aircraft the total amount of flight instruction required may be reduced to 10 hours on airships.

10.The flying exercises up to the IR(As) skill test shall comprise:

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module:

Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

—horizontal flight,

—climbing,

—descent,

—turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

instrument pattern;

radionavigation;

recovery from unusual attitudes;

limited panel;

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

—transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

—standard instrument departures and arrivals,

—en-route IFR procedures,

—holding procedures,

—instrument approaches to specified minima,

—missed approach procedures,

—landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii)inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(iv)operation of airship in the above exercises, including operation of the airship solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shut-down and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

(a)Basic Instrument Flight Module:

Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

—horizontal flight,

—climbing,

—descent,

—turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

instrument pattern;

radionavigation;

recovery from unusual attitudes;

limited panel;

(b)Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i)pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii)procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

—transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

—standard instrument departures and arrivals,

—en-route IFR procedures,

—holding procedures,

—instrument approaches to specified minima,

—missed approach procedures,

—landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii)inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

## Appendix 7

@@ -3953,35 +4643,44 @@

#### FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES

10.The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

operate the aircraft within its limitations;

complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

exercise good judgment and airmanship;

apply aeronautical knowledge; and

maintain control of the aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

operate the aircraft within its limitations;

complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

exercise good judgment and airmanship;

apply aeronautical knowledge; and

maintain control of the aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

11.The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aircraft used.

Height

Generally

± 100 feet

Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude

+ 50 feet/– 0 feet

Minimum descent height/MAP/altitude

+ 50 feet/– 0 feet

Tracking

On radio aids

± 5°

Precision approach

half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path

Heading

all engines operating

± 5°

with simulated engine failure

± 10°

Speed

all engines operating

± 5 knots

with simulated engine failure

+ 10 knots/– 5 knots

Height

Generally ± 100 feet

Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet

Minimum descent height/MAP/altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet

Tracking

On radio aids ± 5°

Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path

Heading

all engines operating ± 5°

with simulated engine failure ± 10°

Speed

all engines operating ± 5 knots

with simulated engine failure + 10 knots/– 5 knots

#### CONTENT OF THE TEST

@@ -4039,7 +4738,7 @@

| b | Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative |

| c | Approach and landing with one engine inoperative |

| d | ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures |

| (1)May be performed in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II. (+) May be performed in either section 4 or section 5. (o) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments. | |

| (*1)May be performed in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II. (+) May be performed in either section 4 or section 5. (o) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments. | |

| SECTION 1 — DEPARTURE | |

| --- | --- |

@@ -4093,7 +4792,7 @@

| c | Limited panel |

| d | Autorotation and recovery to a pre-set altitude |

| e | Precision approach manually without flight director (3) Precision approach manually with flight director (3) |

| (1)To be performed in section 4 or section 5. (2)Multi-engine helicopter only. (3)Only one item to be tested. | |

| (*1)To be performed in section 4 or section 5. (*2)Multi-engine helicopter only. (*3)Only one item to be tested. | |

| SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE | |

| --- | --- |

@@ -4166,7 +4865,7 @@

| SP ME class rating, restricted to MP operation | SE class and type rating (1), and SP ME class (1), and SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating (1) |

| SP SE class rating | SE class and type rating |

| SP SE type rating | SE class and type rating |

| (1)Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicant has flown at least three IFR departures and approaches on an SP class or type of aeroplane in single pilot operations, or, for multi-engine non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes, the applicant has passed section 6 of the skill test for single-pilot non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes flown solely by reference to instruments in single-pilot operation. | |

| (*1)Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicant has flown at least three IFR departures and approaches on an SP class or type of aeroplane in single pilot operations, or, for multi-engine non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes, the applicant has passed section 6 of the skill test for single-pilot non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes flown solely by reference to instruments in single-pilot operation. | |

### B. Helicopters

@@ -4177,7 +4876,7 @@

| MPH type rating | SE type rating (1), and SP ME type rating (1). |

| SP ME type rating, operated as single-pilot | SE type rating, SP ME type rating. |

| SP ME type rating, restricted to multi-pilot operation | SE type rating, (1) SP ME type rating (1). |

| (1)Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least 3 IFR departures and approaches have been performed on an SP type of helicopter in an SP operation. | |

| (*1)Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least 3 IFR departures and approaches have been performed on an SP type of helicopter in an SP operation. | |

## Appendix 9

@@ -4767,86 +5466,22 @@

(c)demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(d)comply with the requirements set out in the following table:

National licence held

Total flying hours experience

Any further requirements

Replacement Part-FCL licence and conditions *(where applicable)*

Removal of conditions

(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

ATPL(A)

> 1 500 as PIC on multi-pilot aeroplanes

None

ATPL(A)

Not applicable

(a)

ATPL(A)

> 1 500 on multi-pilot aeroplanes

None

as in (c)(4)

as in (c)(5)

(b)

ATPL(A)

> 500 on multi-pilot aeroplanes

Demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and performance as required by FCL.515

ATPL(A), with type rating restricted to co-pilot

Demonstrate ability to act as PIC as required by Appendix 9 to Part-FCL

(c)

CPL/IR(A) and passed an ICAO ATPL theory test in the Member State of licence issue

(i) demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b)

(ii) meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.A(c)

CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theory credit

Not applicable

(d)

CPL/IR(A)

> 500 on multi-pilot aeroplanes, or in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot aeroplanes CS-23 commuter category or equivalent in accordance with the relevant requirements of Part-CAT and Part-ORO for commercial air transport

(i) pass an examination for ATPL(A) knowledge in the Member State of licence issue (1)

(ii) meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.A(c)

CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theory credit

Not applicable

(e)

CPL/IR(A)

> 500 as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes

None

CPL/IR(A) with class ratings and type ratings restricted to single-pilot aeroplanes

Obtain multi-pilot type rating in accordance with Part-FCL

(f)

CPL/IR(A)

< 500 as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes

Demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance for CPL/IR level

As (4)(f)

As (5)(f)

(g)

CPL(A)

> 500 as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes

Night rating, if applicable

CPL(A), with type/class ratings restricted to single-pilot aeroplanes

(h)

CPL(A)

< 500 as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes

(i) Night rating, if applicable;

(ii) demonstrate knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.310

as (4)(h)

(i)

PPL/IR(A)

≥ 75 in accordance with IFR

PPL/IR(A) (the IR restricted to PPL)

Demonstrate knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.615(b)

(j)

PPL(A)

≥ 70 on aeroplanes

Demonstrate the use of radio navigation aids

PPL(A)

(k)

(1)CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same aeroplane type, but will not be given ATPL(A) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot aeroplane, they must comply with column (3), row (e)(i) of the above table.

| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |

| (1) | (2) | (3) | (4) | (5) | |

| CPL/IR(A) and passed an ICAO ATPL theory test in the Member State of licence issue | | (i) demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b) (ii) meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.A(c) | CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theory credit | Not applicable | (d) |

| CPL/IR(A) | > 500 on multi-pilot aeroplanes, or in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot aeroplanes CS-23 commuter category or equivalent in accordance with the relevant requirements of Part-CAT and Part-ORO for commercial air transport | (i) pass an examination for ATPL(A) knowledge in the Member State of licence issue (*1) (ii) meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.A(c) | CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theory credit | Not applicable | (e) |

| CPL/IR(A) | < 500 as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes | Demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance for CPL/IR level | As (4)(f) | As (5)(f) | (g) |

| (*1)CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same aeroplane type, but will not be given ATPL(A) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot aeroplane, they must comply with column (3), row (e)(i) of the above table. | | | | | |

### 2. Instructor certificates

@@ -4894,111 +5529,27 @@

(c)demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(d)comply with the requirements set out in the following table:

National licence held

Total flying hours experience

Any further requirements

Replacement Part-FCL licence and conditions *(where applicable)*

Removal of conditions

(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

ATPL(H) valid IR(H)

> 1 000 as PIC on multi-pilot helicopters

none

ATPL(H) and IR

Not applicable

(a)

ATPL(H) no IR(H) privileges

> 1 000 as PIC on multi-pilot helicopters

none

ATPL(H)

(b)

ATPL(H) valid IR(H)

> 1 000 on multi-pilot helicopters

None

ATPL(H), and IR with type rating restricted to co-pilot

demonstrate ability to act as PIC as required by Appendix 9 to Part-FCL

(c)

ATPL(H) no IR(H) privileges

> 1 000 on multi-pilot helicopters

None

ATPL(H) type rating restricted to co-pilot

demonstrate ability to act as PIC as required by Appendix 9 to Part-FCL

(d)

ATPL(H) valid IR(H)

> 500 on multi-pilot helicopters

demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.515 and FCL.615(b)

as (4)(c)

as (5)(c)

(e)

ATPL(H) no IR(H) privileges

> 500 on multi-pilot helicopters

as (3)(e)

as (4)(d)

as (5)(d)

(f)

CPL/IR(H) and passed an ICAO ATPL(H) theory test in the Member State of licence issue

(i) demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b);

(ii) meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.H(b)

CPL/IR(H) with ATPL(H) theory credit, provided that the ICAO ATPL(H) theory test is assessed as being at Part-FCL ATPL level

Not applicable

(g)

CPL/IR(H)

> 500 hrs on multi-pilot helicopters

(i) to pass an examination for Part-FCL ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge in the Member State of licence issue (1)

(ii) to meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.H(b)

CPL/IR(H) with Part-FCL ATPL(H) theory credit

Not applicable

(h)

CPL/IR(H)

> 500 as PIC on single-pilot helicopters

None

CPL/IR(H) with type ratings restricted to single-pilot helicopters

obtain multi-pilot type rating as required by Part-FCL

(i)

CPL/IR(H)

< 500 as PIC on single-pilot helicopters

demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b)

as (4)(i)

(j)

CPL(H)

> 500 as PIC on single-pilot helicopters

night rating

CPL(H), with type ratings restricted to single-pilot helicopters

(k)

CPL(H)

< 500 as PIC on single-pilot helicopters

night rating demonstrate knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.310

as (4)(k)

(l)

CPL(H) Without night rating

> 500 as PIC on single-pilot helicopters

As (4)(k) and restricted to day VFR operations

Obtain multi-pilot type rating as required by Part-FCL and a night rating

(m)

CPL(H) Without night rating

< 500 as PIC on single-pilot helicopters

demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.310

As (4)(k) and restricted to day VFR operations

(n)

PPL/IR(H)

≥ 75 in accordance with IFR

PPL/IR(H) (the IR restricted to PPL)

Demonstrate knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.615(b)

(o)

PPL(H)

≥ 75 on helicopters

demonstrate the use of radio navigation aids

PPL (H)

(p)

(1)CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with column (3), row (h)(i) of the table.

| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |

| (1) | (2) | (3) | (4) | (5) | |

| ATPL(H) valid IR(H) | > 500 on multi-pilot helicopters | demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.515 and FCL.615(b) | as (4)(c) | as (5)(c) | (e) |

| ATPL(H) no IR(H) privileges | > 500 on multi-pilot helicopters | as (3)(e) | as (4)(d) | as (5)(d) | (f) |

| CPL/IR(H) and passed an ICAO ATPL(H) theory test in the Member State of licence issue | | (i) demonstrate knowledge of flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b); (ii) meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.H(b) | CPL/IR(H) with ATPL(H) theory credit, provided that the ICAO ATPL(H) theory test is assessed as being at Part-FCL ATPL level | Not applicable | (g) |

| CPL/IR(H) | > 500 hrs on multi-pilot helicopters | (i) to pass an examination for Part-FCL ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge in the Member State of licence issue (1) (ii) to meet remaining requirements of FCL.720.H(b) | CPL/IR(H) with Part-FCL ATPL(H) theory credit | Not applicable | (h) |

| (*1)CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with column (3), row (h)(i) of the table. | | | | | |

### 2. Instructor certificates

@@ -5042,146 +5593,135 @@

### A. **VALIDATION OF LICENCES**

1.A pilot licence issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be validated by the competent authority of a Member State.

Pilots shall apply to the competent authority of the Member State where they reside or are established. If they are not residing in the territory of a Member State, pilots shall apply to the competent authority of the Member State where the operator for which they are flying or intend to fly has its principal place of business, or where the aircraft on which they are flying or intend to fly is registered.

2.The period of validation of a licence shall not exceed 1 year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

This period may only be extended once by the competent authority that issued the validation when, during the validation period, the pilot has applied, or is undergoing training, for the issuance of a licence in accordance with Part-FCL. This extension shall cover the period of time necessary for the licence to be issued in accordance with Part-FCL.

The holders of a licence accepted by a Member State shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the requirements stated in Part-FCL.

3.In the case of pilot licences for commercial air transport and other commercial activities, the holder shall comply with the following requirements:

(a)complete, as a skill test, the type or class rating revalidation requirements of Part-FCL relevant to the privileges of the licence held;

(b)demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-FCL;

(c)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(d)hold a valid Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;

(e)in the case of aeroplanes, comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table:

Licence held

Total flying hours experience

Privileges

(1) (2)

(3)

ATPL(A)

> 1 500 hours as PIC on multi- pilot aeroplanes

Commercial air transport in multi- pilot aeroplanes as PIC

(a)

ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR (1)

> 1 500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes according to operational requirements

Commercial air transport in multi- pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot

(b)

CPL(A)/IR

> 1 000 hours as PIC in commercial air transport since gaining an IR

Commercial air transport in single-pilot aeroplanes as PIC

(c)

CPL(A)/IR

> 1 000 hours as PIC or as co-pilot in single-pilot aeroplanes according to operational requirements

Commercial air transport in single-pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot according to the operational requirements

(d)

ATPL(A), CPL (A)/IR, CPL(A)

> 700 hours in aeroplanes other than TMGs, including 200 hours in the activity role for which acceptance is sought, and 50 hours in that role in the last 12 months

Exercise of privileges in aeroplanes in operations other than commercial air transport

(e)

CPL(A)

> 1 500 hours as PIC in commercial air transport including 500 hours on seaplane operations

Commercial air transport in single-pilot aeroplanes as PIC

(f)

(1)CPL(A)/IR holders on multi-pilot aeroplanes shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL(A) level knowledge before acceptance.

(f)in the case of helicopters, comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table:

Licence held

Total flying hours experience

Privileges

(1) (2)

(3)

ATPL(H) valid IR

> 1 000 hours as PIC on multi-pilot helicopters

Commercial air transport in multi-pilot helicopters as PIC in VFR and IFR operations

(a)

ATPL(H) no IR privileges

> 1 000 hours as PIC on multi-pilot helicopters

Commercial air transport in multi-pilot helicopters as PIC in VFR operations

(b)

ATPL(H) valid IR

> 1 000 hours as pilot on multi-pilot helicopters

Commercial air transport in multi-pilot helicopters as co-pilot in VFR and IFR operations

(c)

ATPL(H) no IR privileges

> 1 000 hours as pilot on multi-pilot helicopters

Commercial air transport in multi-pilot helicopters as co-pilot in VFR operations

(d)

CPL(H)/IR (1)

> 1 000 hours as pilot on multi-pilot helicopters

Commercial air transport in multi-pilot helicopters as co-pilot

(e)

CPL(H)/IR

> 1 000 hours as PIC in commercial air transport since gaining an IR

Commercial air transport in single-pilot helicopters as PIC

(f)

ATPL(H) with or without IR privileges, CPL(H)/IR, CPL(H)

> 700 hours in helicopters other than those certificated under CS-27/29 or equivalent, including 200 hours in the activity role for which acceptance is sought, and 50 hours in that role in the last 12 months

Exercise of privileges in helicopters in operations other than commercial air transport

(g)

(1)CPL(H)/IR holders on multi-pilot helicopters shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL(H) level knowledge before acceptance.

(a)complete, as a skill test, the type or class rating revalidation requirements of Part-FCL relevant to the privileges of the licence held;

(b)demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-FCL;

(c)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(d)hold a valid Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;

(e)in the case of aeroplanes, comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table:

| --- | --- | --- | --- |

| (1) | (2) | (3) | |

| ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR (1) | > 1 500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes according to operational requirements | Commercial air transport in multi- pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot | (b) |

| CPL(A)/IR | > 1 000 hours as PIC or as co-pilot in single-pilot aeroplanes according to operational requirements | Commercial air transport in single-pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot according to the operational requirements | (d) |

| ATPL(A), CPL (A)/IR, CPL(A) | > 700 hours in aeroplanes other than TMGs, including 200 hours in the activity role for which acceptance is sought, and 50 hours in that role in the last 12 months | Exercise of privileges in aeroplanes in operations other than commercial air transport | (e) |

| (*1)CPL(A)/IR holders on multi-pilot aeroplanes shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL(A) level knowledge before acceptance. | | | |

(f)in the case of helicopters, comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table:

| --- | --- | --- | --- |

| (1) | (2) | (3) | |

| ATPL(H) with or without IR privileges, CPL(H)/IR, CPL(H) | > 700 hours in helicopters other than those certificated under CS-27/29 or equivalent, including 200 hours in the activity role for which acceptance is sought, and 50 hours in that role in the last 12 months | Exercise of privileges in helicopters in operations other than commercial air transport | (g) |

| (*1)CPL(H)/IR holders on multi-pilot helicopters shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL(H) level knowledge before acceptance. | | | |

4.In the case of private pilot licences with an instrument rating, or CPL and ATPL licences with an instrument rating where the pilot intends only to exercise private pilot privileges, the holder shall comply with the following requirements:

(a)complete the skill test for instrument rating and the type or class ratings relevant to the privileges of the licence held, in accordance with Appendix 7 and Appendix 9 to Part-FCL;

(b)demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of Air Law, Aeronautical Weather Codes, Flight Planning and Performance (IR), and Human Performance;

(c)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(d)hold at least a valid Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(e)have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours of instrument flight time as PIC in the relevant category of aircraft.

(a)complete the skill test for instrument rating and the type or class ratings relevant to the privileges of the licence held, in accordance with Appendix 7 and Appendix 9 to Part-FCL;

(b)demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of Air Law, Aeronautical Weather Codes, Flight Planning and Performance (IR), and Human Performance;

(c)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(d)hold at least a valid Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(e)have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours of instrument flight time as PIC in the relevant category of aircraft.

5.In the case of private pilot licences, or CPL and ATPL licences without an instrument rating where the pilot intends only to exercise private pilot privileges, the holder shall comply with the following requirements:

(a)demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of Air Law and Human Performance;

(b)pass the PPL skill test as set out in Part-FCL;

(c)fulfil the relevant requirements of Part-FCL for the issuance of a type or class rating as relevant to the privileges of the licence held;

(d)hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(e)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(f)have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours as pilot in the relevant category of aircraft.

(a)demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of Air Law and Human Performance;

(b)pass the PPL skill test as set out in Part-FCL;

(c)fulfil the relevant requirements of Part-FCL for the issuance of a type or class rating as relevant to the privileges of the licence held;

(d)hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(e)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(f)have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours as pilot in the relevant category of aircraft.

6.Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, in the case of manufacturer flights, Member States may accept a licence issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country for a maximum of 12 months for specific tasks of limited duration, such as instruction flights for initial entry into service, demonstration, ferry or test flights, provided the applicant complies with the following requirements:

(a)holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(b)is employed, directly or indirectly, by an aircraft manufacturer or by an aviation authority.

In this case, the privileges of the holder shall be limited to performing flight instruction and testing for initial issue of type ratings, the supervision of initial line flying by the operators’ pilots, delivery or ferry flights, initial line flying, flight demonstrations or test flights.

(a)holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(b)is employed, directly or indirectly, by an aircraft manufacturer or by an aviation authority.

7.Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, Member States may, for, competition flights or display flights of limited duration, accept a licence issued by a third country allowing the holder to exercise the privileges of a PPL, SPL or BPL provided:

(a)prior to the event, the organiser of the competition or display flights provides the competent authority with adequate evidence on how it will ensure that the pilot will be familiarised with the relevant safety information and manage any risk associated with the flights; and

(b)the applicant holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

8.Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, Member States may accept a PPL, SPL or BPL issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country for a maximum of 28 days per calendar year for specific non-commercial tasks provided the applicant:

(a)holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and

(b)has completed at least one acclimatisation flight with a qualified instructor prior to carrying out the specific tasks of limited duration.

(a)holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and

(b)has completed at least one acclimatisation flight with a qualified instructor prior to carrying out the specific tasks of limited duration.

### B. **CONVERSION OF LICENCES**

1.A PPL/BPL/SPL, a CPL or an ATPL licence issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be converted into a Part-FCL PPL/BPL/SPL with a single-pilot class or type rating by the competent authority of a Member State.

2.The holder of the licence shall comply with the following minimum requirements, for the relevant aircraft category:

(a)pass a written examination in Air Law and Human Performance;

(b)pass the PPL, BPL or SPL skill test, as relevant, in accordance with Part-FCL;

(c)fulfil the requirements for the issue of the relevant class or type rating, in accordance with Subpart H;

(d)hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;

(e)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(f)have completed at least 100 hours of flight time as a pilot.

(a)pass a written examination in Air Law and Human Performance;

(b)pass the PPL, BPL or SPL skill test, as relevant, in accordance with Part-FCL;

(c)fulfil the requirements for the issue of the relevant class or type rating, in accordance with Subpart H;

(d)hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;

(e)demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

(f)have completed at least 100 hours of flight time as a pilot.

### C. **ACCEPTANCE OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS**

1.A valid class or type rating contained in a licence issued by a third country may be inserted in a Part-FCL licence provided that the applicant:

(a)complies with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL;

(b)passes the relevant skill test for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL;

(c)is in current flying practice;

(d)has no less than:

(i)for aeroplane class ratings, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class;

(ii)for aeroplane type ratings, 500 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;

(iii)for single-engine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of up to 3 175 kg, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;

(iv)for all other helicopters, 350 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class.

(a)complies with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL;

(b)passes the relevant skill test for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL;

(c)is in current flying practice;

(d)has no less than:

(i)for aeroplane class ratings, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class;

(ii)for aeroplane type ratings, 500 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;

(iii)for single-engine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of up to 3 175 kg, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;

(iv)for all other helicopters, 350 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class.

## ANNEX IV

@@ -5196,12 +5736,16 @@

For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be:

(a)for aero-medical centres (AeMC):

(1)the authority designated by the Member State where the AeMC has its principal place of business;

(2)where the AeMC is located in a third country, the Agency;

(1)the authority designated by the Member State where the AeMC has its principal place of business;

(2)where the AeMC is located in a third country, the Agency;

(b)for aero-medical examiners (AME):

(1)the authority designated by the Member State where the AMEs have their principal place of practice;

(2)if the principal place of practice of an AME is located in a third country, the authority designated by the Member State to which the AME applies for the issue of the AME certificate;

(1)the authority designated by the Member State where the AMEs have their principal place of practice;

(2)if the principal place of practice of an AME is located in a third country, the authority designated by the Member State to which the AME applies for the issue of the AME certificate;

(c)for general medical practitioners (GMP), the authority designated by the Member State to which the GMP notifies his/her activity;

@@ -5310,6 +5854,9 @@

(b) Applicants for a medical certificate shall provide the AeMC, AME or GMP as applicable, with:

(1)proof of their identity;

(2)a signed declaration:

(i)of medical facts concerning their medical history;

(ii)as to whether they have previously undergone an examination for a medical certificate and, if so, by whom and with what result;

(iii)as to whether they have ever been assessed as unfit or had a medical certificate suspended or revoked.

(c) When applying for a revalidation or renewal of the medical certificate, applicants shall present the medical certificate to the AeMC, AME or GMP prior to the relevant examinations.

@@ -5343,21 +5890,30 @@

(1)Class 1 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of 12 months.

(2)The period of validity of Class 1 medical certificates shall be reduced to 6 months for licence holders who:

(i)are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers and have reached the age of 40;

(ii)have reached the age of 60.

(i)are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers and have reached the age of 40;

(ii)have reached the age of 60.

(3)Class 2 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of:

(i)60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 42;

(ii)24 months between the age of 40 and 50. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 50 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 51; and

(iii)12 months after the age of 50.

(i)60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 42;

(ii)24 months between the age of 40 and 50. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 50 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 51; and

(iii)12 months after the age of 50.

(4)LAPL medical certificates shall be valid for a period of:

(i)60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 42;

(ii)24 months after the age of 40.

(i)60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 42;

(ii)24 months after the age of 40.

(5)The validity period of a medical certificate, including any associated examination or special investigation, shall be:

(i)determined by the age of the applicant at the date when the medical examination takes place; and

(ii)calculated from the date of the medical examination in the case of initial issue and renewal, and from the expiry date of the previous medical certificate in the case of revalidation.

(i)determined by the age of the applicant at the date when the medical examination takes place; and

(ii)calculated from the date of the medical examination in the case of initial issue and renewal, and from the expiry date of the previous medical certificate in the case of revalidation.

### (b) ***Revalidation***

@@ -5368,8 +5924,10 @@

(1)If the holder of a medical certificate does not comply with (b), a renewal examination and/or assessment shall be required.

(2)In the case of Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates:

(i)if the medical certificate has expired for more than 2 years, the AeMC or AME shall only conduct the renewal examination after assessment of the aero-medical records of the applicant;

(ii)if the medical certificate has expired for more than 5 years, the examination requirements for initial issue shall apply and the assessment shall be based on the revalidation requirements.

(i)if the medical certificate has expired for more than 2 years, the AeMC or AME shall only conduct the renewal examination after assessment of the aero-medical records of the applicant;

(ii)if the medical certificate has expired for more than 5 years, the examination requirements for initial issue shall apply and the assessment shall be based on the revalidation requirements.

(3)In the case of LAPL medical certificates, the AeMC, AME or GMP shall assess the medical history of the applicant and perform the aero-medical examination and/or assessment in accordance with MED.B.095.

@@ -5820,6 +6378,12 @@

(a) An initial aero-medical assessment shall include at least:

(1)an assessment of the applicant cabin crew member’s medical history; and

(2)a clinical examination of the following:

(i)cardiovascular system;

(ii)respiratory system;

(iii)musculoskeletal system;

(iv)otorhino-laryngology;

(v)visual system; and

(vi)colour vision.

(b) Each subsequent aero-medical re-assessment shall include:

(1)an assessment of the cabin crew member’s medical history; and

@@ -5878,8 +6442,10 @@

(b)have undertaken a basic training course in aviation medicine;

(c)demonstrate to the competent authority that they:

(1)have adequate facilities, procedures, documentation and functioning equipment suitable for aero-medical examinations; and

(2)have in place the necessary procedures and conditions to ensure medical confidentiality.

(1)have adequate facilities, procedures, documentation and functioning equipment suitable for aero-medical examinations; and

(2)have in place the necessary procedures and conditions to ensure medical confidentiality.

### **MED.D.015** Requirements for the extension of privileges

@@ -5964,8 +6530,10 @@

(a)The privileges of holders of a cabin crew attestation are to act as cabin crew members in commercial air transport operation of aircraft referred to in Article 4(1)(b) and (c) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

(b)Cabin crew members may exercise the privileges specified in (a) only if they:

(1)hold a valid cabin crew attestation as specified in CC.CCA.105; and

(2)comply with CC.GEN.030, CC.TRA.225 and the applicable requirements of Part-MED.

(1)hold a valid cabin crew attestation as specified in CC.CCA.105; and

(2)comply with CC.GEN.030, CC.TRA.225 and the applicable requirements of Part-MED.

To show compliance with the applicable requirements as specified in CC.GEN.025(b), each holder shall keep, and provide upon request, the cabin crew attestation, the list and the training and checking records of his/her aircraft type or variant qualification(s), unless the operator employing his/her services keeps such records and can make them readily available upon request by a competent authority or by the holder.

@@ -5976,8 +6544,10 @@

(a)Cabin crew attestations shall only be issued to applicants who have passed the examination following completion of the initial training course in accordance with this Part.

(b)Cabin crew attestations shall be issued:

(1)by the competent authority; and/or

(2)by an organisation approved to do so by the competent authority.

(1)by the competent authority; and/or

(2)by an organisation approved to do so by the competent authority.

The cabin crew attestation shall be issued with unlimited duration and shall remain valid unless:

@@ -5988,10 +6558,14 @@

(a)If holders do not comply with this Part, their cabin crew attestation may be suspended or revoked by the competent authority.

(b)In case of suspension or revocation of their cabin crew attestation by the competent authority, holders shall:

(1)be informed in writing of this decision, and of their right of appeal in accordance with national law;

(2)not exercise the privileges granted by their cabin crew attestation;

(3)inform, without undue delay, the operator(s) employing their services; and

(4)return their attestation in accordance with the applicable procedure established by the competent authority.

(1)be informed in writing of this decision, and of their right of appeal in accordance with national law;

(2)not exercise the privileges granted by their cabin crew attestation;

(3)inform, without undue delay, the operator(s) employing their services; and

(4)return their attestation in accordance with the applicable procedure established by the competent authority.

#### SUBPART TRA

@@ -6014,11 +6588,16 @@

(a)Holders of a valid cabin crew attestation shall only operate on an aircraft if they are qualified in accordance with the applicable requirements of Part-ORO.

(b)To be qualified for an aircraft type or a variant, the holder:

(1)shall comply with the applicable training, checking and validity requirements, covering as relevant to the aircraft to be operated:

(i)aircraft-type specific training, operator conversion training and familiarisation;

(ii)differences training;

(iii)recurrent training; and

(2)shall have operated within the preceding 6 months on the aircraft type, or shall have completed the relevant refresher training and checking before operating again on that aircraft type.

(1)shall comply with the applicable training, checking and validity requirements, covering as relevant to the aircraft to be operated:

(i)aircraft-type specific training, operator conversion training and familiarisation;

(ii)differences training;

(iii)recurrent training; and

(2)shall have operated within the preceding 6 months on the aircraft type, or shall have completed the relevant refresher training and checking before operating again on that aircraft type.

## Appendix 1 to Part-CC

@@ -6081,36 +6660,58 @@

5.2.the physiological effects of flying with particular emphasis on hypoxia, oxygen requirements, Eustachian tubal function and barotraumas;

5.3.basic first-aid, including care of:

(a)air sickness;

(b)gastro-intestinal disturbances;

(c)hyperventilation;

(d)burns;

(e)wounds;

(f)the unconscious; and

(g)fractures and soft tissue injuries;

(a)air sickness;

(b)gastro-intestinal disturbances;

(c)hyperventilation;

(d)burns;

(e)wounds;

(f)the unconscious; and

(g)fractures and soft tissue injuries;

5.4.in-flight medical emergencies and associated first-aid covering at least:

(a)asthma;

(b)stress and allergic reactions;

(c)shock;

(d)diabetes;

(e)choking;

(f)epilepsy;

(g)childbirth;

(h)stroke; and

(i)heart attack;

(a)asthma;

(b)stress and allergic reactions;

(c)shock;

(d)diabetes;

(e)choking;

(f)epilepsy;

(g)childbirth;

(h)stroke; and

(i)heart attack;

5.5.the use of appropriate equipment including first-aid oxygen, first-aid kits and emergency medical kits and their contents;

5.6.practical cardio-pulmonary resuscitation training by each cabin crew member using a specifically designed dummy and taking account of the characteristics of an aircraft environment; and

5.7.travel health and hygiene, including:

(a)hygiene on board;

(b)risk of contact with infectious diseases and means to reduce such risks;

(c)handling of clinical waste;

(d)aircraft disinsection;

(e)handling of death on board; and

(f)alertness management, physiological effects of fatigue, sleep physiology, circadian rhythm and time zone changes.

(a)hygiene on board;

(b)risk of contact with infectious diseases and means to reduce such risks;

(c)handling of clinical waste;

(d)aircraft disinsection;

(e)handling of death on board; and

(f)alertness management, physiological effects of fatigue, sleep physiology, circadian rhythm and time zone changes.

### 6. Dangerous goods in accordance with the applicable ICAO Technical Instructions**.**

@@ -6163,8 +6764,10 @@

6.‘Flight instructor (FI)’ means an instructor with the privileges to provide training in an aircraft, in accordance with Part-FCL;

7.‘Flight simulation training device (FSTD)’ means a training device which is:

(a)in the case of aeroplanes, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD), a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT), or a basic instrument training device (BITD);

(b)in the case of helicopters, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD) or a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT);

(a)in the case of aeroplanes, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD), a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT), or a basic instrument training device (BITD);

(b)in the case of helicopters, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD) or a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT);

8.‘FSTD qualification’ means the level of technical ability of an FSTD as defined in the compliance document;

@@ -6207,15 +6810,22 @@

(c)The competent authority shall establish a system to consistently evaluate that all alternative means of compliance used by itself or by organisations and persons under its oversight allow the establishment of compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.

(d)The competent authority shall evaluate all alternative means of compliance proposed by an organisation in accordance with ORA.GEN.120 by analysing the documentation provided and, if considered necessary, conducting an inspection of the organisation.

When the competent authority finds that the alternative means of compliance are in accordance with the Implementing Rules, it shall without undue delay:

(1)notify the applicant that the alternative means of compliance may be implemented and, if applicable, amend the approval or certificate of the applicant accordingly; and

(2)notify the Agency of their content, including copies of all relevant documentation;

(3)inform other MS about alternative means of compliance that were accepted.

When the competent authority finds that the alternative means of compliance are in accordance with the Implementing Rules, it shall without undue delay:

(1)notify the applicant that the alternative means of compliance may be implemented and, if applicable, amend the approval or certificate of the applicant accordingly; and

(2)notify the Agency of their content, including copies of all relevant documentation;

(3)inform other MS about alternative means of compliance that were accepted.

(e)When the competent authority itself uses alternative means of compliance to achieve compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules it shall:

(1)make them available to all organisations and persons under its oversight; and

(2)without undue delay notify the Agency.

The competent authority shall provide the Agency with a full description of the alternative means of compliance, including any revisions to procedures that may be relevant, as well as an assessment demonstrating that the Implementing Rules are met.

(1)make them available to all organisations and persons under its oversight; and

(2)without undue delay notify the Agency.

### **ARA.GEN.125** Information to the Agency

@@ -6225,7 +6835,7 @@

### **ARA.GEN.135** Immediate reaction to a safety problem

(a)Without prejudice to Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council (5) the competent authority shall implement a system to appropriately collect, analyse and disseminate safety information.

(a)Without prejudice to Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council (3) the competent authority shall implement a system to appropriately collect, analyse and disseminate safety information.

(b)The Agency shall implement a system to appropriately analyse any relevant safety information received and without undue delay provide to Member States and the Commission any information, including recommendations or corrective actions to be taken, necessary for them to react in a timely manner to a safety problem involving products, parts, appliances, persons or organisations subject to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.

@@ -6236,11 +6846,16 @@

### **ARA.GEN.200** Management system

(a)The competent authority shall establish and maintain a management system, including as a minimum:

(1)documented policies and procedures to describe its organisation, means and methods to achieve compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. The procedures shall be kept up-to-date and serve as the basic working documents within that competent authority for all related tasks;

(2)a sufficient number of personnel to perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities. Such personnel shall be qualified to perform their allocated tasks and have the necessary knowledge, experience, initial and recurrent training to ensure continuing competence. A system shall be in place to plan the availability of personnel, in order to ensure the proper completion of all tasks;

(3)adequate facilities and office accommodation to perform the allocated tasks;

(4)a function to monitor compliance of the management system with the relevant requirements and adequacy of the procedures including the establishment of an internal audit process and a safety risk management process. Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of audit findings to the senior management of the competent authority to ensure implementation of corrective actions as necessary; and

(5)a person or group of persons, ultimately responsible to the senior management of the competent authority for the compliance monitoring function.

(3)adequate facilities and office accommodation to perform the allocated tasks;

(5)a person or group of persons, ultimately responsible to the senior management of the competent authority for the compliance monitoring function.

(b)The competent authority shall, for each field of activity including management system, appoint one or more persons with the overall responsibility for the management of the relevant task(s).

@@ -6251,14 +6866,22 @@

### **ARA.GEN.205** Allocation of tasks to qualified entities

(a)Tasks related to the initial certification or continuing oversight of persons or organisations subject to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules shall be allocated by Member States only to qualified entities. When allocating tasks, the competent authority shall ensure that it has:

(1)a system in place to initially and continuously assess that the qualified entity complies with Annex V to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

This system and the results of the assessments shall be documented;

(2)established a documented agreement with a the qualified entity, approved by both parties at the appropriate management level, which clearly defines:

(i)the tasks to be performed;

(ii)the declarations, reports and records to be provided;

(iii)the technical conditions to be met in performing such tasks;

(iv)the related liability coverage; and

(v)the protection given to information acquired in carrying out such tasks.

(1)a system in place to initially and continuously assess that the qualified entity complies with Annex V to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

This system and the results of the assessments shall be documented;

(2)established a documented agreement with a the qualified entity, approved by both parties at the appropriate management level, which clearly defines:

(i)the tasks to be performed;

(ii)the declarations, reports and records to be provided;

(iii)the technical conditions to be met in performing such tasks;

(iv)the related liability coverage; and

(v)the protection given to information acquired in carrying out such tasks.

(b)The competent authority shall ensure that the internal audit process and a safety risk management process required by ARA.GEN.200(a)(4) cover all certification or continuing oversight tasks performed on its behalf.

@@ -6273,18 +6896,30 @@

### **ARA.GEN.220** Record-keeping

(a)The competent authority shall establish a system of record-keeping providing for adequate storage, accessibility and reliable traceability of:

(1)the management system’s documented policies and procedures;

(2)training, qualification and authorisation of its personnel;

(3)the allocation of tasks, covering the elements required by ARA.GEN.205 as well as the details of tasks allocated;

(4)certification processes and continuing oversight of certified organisations;

(5)processes for issuing personnel licences, ratings, certificates and attestations and for the continuing oversight of the holders of those licences, ratings, certificates and attestations;

(6)processes for issuing FSTD qualification certificates and for the continuing oversight of the FSTD and of the organisation operating it;

(7)oversight of persons and organisations exercising activities within the territory of the Member State, but overseen or certified by the competent authority of another Member State or the Agency, as agreed between these authorities;

(8)the evaluation and notification to the Agency of alternative means of compliance proposed by organisations and the assessment of alternative means of compliance used by the competent authority itself;

(9)findings, corrective actions and date of action closure;

(10)enforcement measures taken;

(11)safety information and follow-up measures; and

(12)the use of flexibility provisions in accordance with Article 14 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

(1)the management system’s documented policies and procedures;

(2)training, qualification and authorisation of its personnel;

(3)the allocation of tasks, covering the elements required by ARA.GEN.205 as well as the details of tasks allocated;

(4)certification processes and continuing oversight of certified organisations;

(5)processes for issuing personnel licences, ratings, certificates and attestations and for the continuing oversight of the holders of those licences, ratings, certificates and attestations;

(6)processes for issuing FSTD qualification certificates and for the continuing oversight of the FSTD and of the organisation operating it;

(9)findings, corrective actions and date of action closure;

(10)enforcement measures taken;

(11)safety information and follow-up measures; and

(12)the use of flexibility provisions in accordance with Article 14 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

(b)The competent authority shall maintain a list of all organisation certificates, FSTD qualification certificates and personnel licences, certificates and attestations it issued.

@@ -6293,15 +6928,22 @@

### **ARA.GEN.300** Oversight

(a)The competent authority shall verify:

(1)compliance with the requirements applicable to organisations or persons prior to the issue of an organisation certificate, approval, FSTD qualification certificate or personnel licence, certificate, rating, or attestation, as applicable;

(2)continued compliance with the applicable requirements of organisations it has certified, of persons and of FSTD qualification certificate holders;

(3)implementation of appropriate safety measures mandated by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.135(c) and (d).

(2)continued compliance with the applicable requirements of organisations it has certified, of persons and of FSTD qualification certificate holders;

(3)implementation of appropriate safety measures mandated by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.135(c) and (d).

(b)This verification shall:

(1)be supported by documentation specifically intended to provide personnel responsible for safety oversight with guidance to perform their functions;

(2)provide the persons and organisations concerned with the results of safety oversight activity;

(3)be based on audits and inspections, including ramp and unannounced inspections; and

(4)provide the competent authority with the evidence needed in case further action is required, including the measures foreseen by ARA.GEN.350 and ARA.GEN.355.

(1)be supported by documentation specifically intended to provide personnel responsible for safety oversight with guidance to perform their functions;

(2)provide the persons and organisations concerned with the results of safety oversight activity;

(3)be based on audits and inspections, including ramp and unannounced inspections; and

(4)provide the competent authority with the evidence needed in case further action is required, including the measures foreseen by ARA.GEN.350 and ARA.GEN.355.

(c)The scope of oversight defined in (a) and (b) shall take into account the results of past oversight activities and the safety priorities.

@@ -6316,24 +6958,38 @@

(a)The competent authority shall establish and maintain an oversight programme covering the oversight activities required by ARA.GEN.300 and by ARO.RAMP.

(b)For organisations certified by the competent authority and FSTD qualification certificate holders, the oversight programme shall be developed taking into account the specific nature of the organisation, the complexity of its activities, the results of past certification and/or oversight activities and shall be based on the assessment of associated risks. It shall include within each oversight planning cycle:

(1)audits and inspections, including ramp and unannounced inspections as appropriate; and

(2)meetings convened between the accountable manager and the competent authority to ensure both remain informed of significant issues.

(1)audits and inspections, including ramp and unannounced inspections as appropriate; and

(2)meetings convened between the accountable manager and the competent authority to ensure both remain informed of significant issues.

(c)For organisations certified by the competent authority and FSTD qualification certificate holders an oversight planning cycle not exceeding 24 months shall be applied.

The oversight planning cycle may be reduced if there is evidence that the safety performance of the organisation or the FTSD qualification certificate holder has decreased.

The oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 36 months if the competent authority has established that, during the previous 24 months:

(1)the organisation has demonstrated an effective identification of aviation safety hazards and management of associated risks;

(2)the organisation has continuously demonstrated under ORA.GEN.130 that it has full control over all changes;

(3)no level 1 findings have been issued; and

(4)all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or extended by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d)(2).

The oversight planning cycle may be further extended to a maximum of 48 months if, in addition to the above, the organisation has established, and the competent authority has approved, an effective continuous reporting system to the competent authority on the safety performance and regulatory compliance of the organisation itself.

The oversight planning cycle may be reduced if there is evidence that the safety performance of the organisation or the FTSD qualification certificate holder has decreased.

The oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 36 months if the competent authority has established that, during the previous 24 months:

(1)the organisation has demonstrated an effective identification of aviation safety hazards and management of associated risks;

(2)the organisation has continuously demonstrated under ORA.GEN.130 that it has full control over all changes;

(3)no level 1 findings have been issued; and

(4)all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or extended by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d)(2).

(ca)Notwithstanding (c), for organisations only providing training towards the LAPL, PPL, SPL or BPL and associated ratings and certificates, an oversight planning cycle not exceeding 48 months shall be applied. The oversight planning cycle shall be reduced if there is evidence that the safety performance of the organisation holder has decreased.

The oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 72 months, if the competent authority has established that, during the previous 48 months:

(1)the organisation has demonstrated an effective identification of aviation safety hazards and management of associated risks, as demonstrated by the results of the annual review in accordance with ORA.GEN.200(c);

(2)the organisation has continuously maintained control over all changes in accordance with ORA.GEN.130 as demonstrated by the results of the annual review in accordance with ORA.GEN.200(c);

(3)no level 1 findings have been issued; and

(4)all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or extended by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d)(2).

The oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 72 months, if the competent authority has established that, during the previous 48 months:

(2)the organisation has continuously maintained control over all changes in accordance with ORA.GEN.130 as demonstrated by the results of the annual review in accordance with ORA.GEN.200(c);

(3)no level 1 findings have been issued; and

(4)all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or extended by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d)(2).

(d)For persons holding a licence, certificate, rating, or attestation issued by the competent authority the oversight programme shall include inspections, including unannounced inspections, as appropriate.

@@ -6356,35 +7012,50 @@

### **ARA.GEN.330** Changes – organisations

(a)Upon receiving an application for a change that requires prior approval, the competent authority shall verify the organisation’s compliance with the applicable requirements before issuing the approval.

The competent authority shall prescribe the conditions under which the organisation may operate during the change, unless the competent authority determines that the organisation’s certificate needs to be suspended.

When satisfied that the organisation is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority shall approve the change.

(b)Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the organisation implements changes requiring prior approval without having received competent authority approval as defined in (a), the competent authority shall suspend, limit or revoke the organisation’s certificate.

(c)For changes not requiring prior approval, the competent authority shall assess the information provided in the notification sent by the organisation in accordance with ORA.GEN.130 to verify compliance with the applicable requirements. In case of any non-compliance, the competent authority shall:

(1)notify the organisation about the non-compliance and request further changes; and

(2)in case of level 1 or level 2 findings, act in accordance with ARA.GEN.350.

(1)notify the organisation about the non-compliance and request further changes; and

(2)in case of level 1 or level 2 findings, act in accordance with ARA.GEN.350.

### **ARA.GEN.350** Findings and corrective actions – organisations

(a)The competent authority for oversight in accordance with ARA.GEN.300 (a) shall have a system to analyse findings for their safety significance.

(b)A level 1 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any significant non-compliance is detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, with the organisation’s procedures and manuals or with the terms of an approval or certificate which lowers safety or seriously hazards flight safety.

The level 1 findings shall include:

(1)failure to give the competent authority access to the organisation’s facilities as defined in ORA.GEN.140 during normal operating hours and after two written requests;

(2)obtaining or maintaining the validity of the organisation certificate by falsification of submitted documentary evidence;

(3)evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the organisation certificate; and

(4)the lack of an accountable manager.

The level 1 findings shall include:

(1)failure to give the competent authority access to the organisation’s facilities as defined in ORA.GEN.140 during normal operating hours and after two written requests;

(2)obtaining or maintaining the validity of the organisation certificate by falsification of submitted documentary evidence;

(3)evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the organisation certificate; and

(4)the lack of an accountable manager.

(c)A level 2 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any non-compliance is detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, with the organisation’s procedures and manuals or with the terms of an approval or certificate which could lower safety or hazard flight safety.

(d)When a finding is detected during oversight or by any other means, the competent authority shall, without prejudice to any additional action required by Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, communicate the finding to the organisation in writing and request corrective action to address the non-compliance(s) identified. Where relevant, the competent authority shall inform the State in which the aircraft is registered.

(1)In the case of level 1 findings the competent authority shall take immediate and appropriate action to prohibit or limit activities and, if appropriate, it shall take action to revoke the certificate or specific approval or to limit or suspend it in whole or in part, depending upon the extent of the level 1 finding, until successful corrective action has been taken by the organisation.

(2)In the case of level 2 findings, the competent authority shall:

(i)grant the organisation a corrective action implementation period appropriate to the nature of the finding that in any case initially shall not be more than 3 months. At the end of this period, and subject to the nature of the finding, the competent authority may extend the 3-month period subject to a satisfactory corrective action plan agreed by the competent authority; and

(ii)assess the corrective action and implementation plan proposed by the organisation and, if the assessment concludes that they are sufficient to address the non-compliance(s), accept these.

(3)Where an organisation fails to submit an acceptable corrective action plan, or to perform the corrective action within the time period accepted or extended by the competent authority, the finding shall be raised to a level 1 finding and action taken as laid down in (d)(1).

(4)The competent authority shall record all findings it has raised or that have been communicated to it and, where applicable, the enforcement measures it has applied, as well as all corrective actions and date of action closure for findings.

(2)In the case of level 2 findings, the competent authority shall:

(ii)assess the corrective action and implementation plan proposed by the organisation and, if the assessment concludes that they are sufficient to address the non-compliance(s), accept these.

(e)Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the authority of a Member State acting under the provisions of ARA.GEN.300(d) identifies any non-compliance with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules by an organisation certified by the competent authority of another Member State or the Agency, it shall inform that competent authority and provide an indication of the level of finding.

@@ -6393,8 +7064,10 @@

(a)If, during oversight or by any other means, evidence is found by the competent authority responsible for oversight in accordance with ARA.GEN.300(a) that shows a non-compliance with the applicable requirements by a person holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation issued in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, the competent authority shall raise a finding, record it and communicate it in writing to the licence, certificate, rating or attestation holder.

(b)When such finding is raised, the competent authority shall carry out an investigation. If the finding is confirmed, it shall:

(1)limit, suspend or revoke the licence, certificate, rating or attestation as applicable, when a safety issue has been identified; and

(2)take any further enforcement measures necessary to prevent the continuation of the non-compliance.

(1)limit, suspend or revoke the licence, certificate, rating or attestation as applicable, when a safety issue has been identified; and

(2)take any further enforcement measures necessary to prevent the continuation of the non-compliance.

(c)Where applicable, the competent authority shall inform the person or organisation that issued the medical certificate or attestation.

@@ -6415,8 +7088,10 @@

(a)Issue of licences and ratings. The competent authority shall issue a pilot licence and associated ratings, using the form as established in Appendix I to this Part.

(b)Issue of instructor and examiner certificates. The competent authority shall issue an instructor or examiner certificate as:

(1)an endorsement of the relevant privileges in the pilot licence as established in Appendix I to this Part; or

(2)a separate document, in a form and manner specified by the competent authority.

(1)an endorsement of the relevant privileges in the pilot licence as established in Appendix I to this Part; or

(2)a separate document, in a form and manner specified by the competent authority.

(c)Endorsement of licence by examiners. Before specifically authorising certain examiners to revalidate or renew ratings or certificates, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.

@@ -6425,8 +7100,10 @@

### **ARA.FCL.205** Monitoring of examiners

(a)The competent authority shall develop an oversight programme to monitor the conduct and performance of examiners taking into account:

(1)the number of examiners it has certified; and

(2)the number of examiners certified by other competent authorities exercising their privileges within the territory where the competent authority exercises oversight.

(1)the number of examiners it has certified; and

(2)the number of examiners certified by other competent authorities exercising their privileges within the territory where the competent authority exercises oversight.

(b)The competent authority shall maintain a list of examiners it has certified. The list shall state the privileges of the examiners and be published and kept updated by the competent authority.

@@ -6453,21 +7130,30 @@

### **ARA.FCL.220** Procedure for the re-issue of a pilot licence

(a)The competent authority shall re-issue a licence whenever necessary for administrative reasons and:

(1)after initial issue of a rating; or

(2)when paragraph XII of the licence established in Appendix I to this Part is completed and no further spaces remain.

(1)after initial issue of a rating; or

(2)when paragraph XII of the licence established in Appendix I to this Part is completed and no further spaces remain.

(b)Only valid ratings and certificates shall be transferred to the new licence document.

### **ARA.FCL.250** Limitation, suspension or revocation of licences, ratings and certificates

(a)The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke as applicable a pilot licence and associated ratings or certificates in accordance with ARA.GEN.355 in, but not limited to, the following circumstances:

(1)obtaining the pilot licence, rating or certificate by falsification of submitted documentary evidence;

(2)falsification of the logbook and licence or certificate records;

(3)the licence holder no longer complies with the applicable requirements of Part-FCL;

(4)exercising the privileges of a licence, rating or certificate when adversely affected by alcohol or drugs;

(5)non-compliance with the applicable operational requirements;

(6)evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the certificate; or

(7)unacceptable performance in any phase of the flight examiner’s duties or responsibilities.

(1)obtaining the pilot licence, rating or certificate by falsification of submitted documentary evidence;

(2)falsification of the logbook and licence or certificate records;

(3)the licence holder no longer complies with the applicable requirements of Part-FCL;

(4)exercising the privileges of a licence, rating or certificate when adversely affected by alcohol or drugs;

(5)non-compliance with the applicable operational requirements;

(6)evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the certificate; or

(7)unacceptable performance in any phase of the flight examiner’s duties or responsibilities.

(b)The competent authority may also limit, suspend or revoke a licence, rating or certificate upon the written request of the licence or certificate holder.

@@ -6478,9 +7164,12 @@

(a)The competent authority shall put in place the necessary arrangements and procedures to allow applicants to undergo theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with the applicable requirements of Part-FCL.

(b)In the case of the ATPL, MPL, commercial pilot licence (CPL), and instrument ratings, those procedures shall comply with all of the following:

(1)Examinations shall be done in written or computer-based form.

(2)Questions for an examination shall be selected by the competent authority, according to a common method which allows coverage of the entire syllabus in each subject, from the European Central Question Bank (ECQB). The ECQB is a database of multiple choice questions held by the Agency.

(3)The examination in communications may be provided separately from those in other subjects. An applicant who has previously passed one or both of the examinations in visual flight rules (VFR) and instrument flight rules (IFR) communications shall not be re-examined in the relevant sections.

(1)Examinations shall be done in written or computer-based form.

(c)The competent authority shall inform applicants of the languages available for examinations.

@@ -6499,14 +7188,20 @@

(a)The competent authority shall establish procedures for the issue, record-keeping and oversight of cabin crew attestations in accordance with ARA.GEN.315, ARA.GEN.220 and ARA.GEN.300 respectively.

(b)Cabin crew attestations shall be issued, using the format and specifications established in Appendix II to this Part,

either

(1)by the competent authority;

and/or, if so decided by a Member State

(2)by an organisation approved to do so by the competent authority.

either

(1)by the competent authority;

and/or, if so decided by a Member State

(2)by an organisation approved to do so by the competent authority.

(c)The competent authority shall make publicly available:

(1)which body(ies) issue cabin crew attestations in their territory; and

(2)if organisations are approved to do so, the list of such organisations.

(1)which body(ies) issue cabin crew attestations in their territory; and

(2)if organisations are approved to do so, the list of such organisations.

### **ARA.CC.105** Suspension or revocation of cabin crew attestations

@@ -6523,14 +7218,20 @@

### **ARA.CC.200** Approval of organisations to provide cabin crew training or to issue cabin crew attestations

(a)Before issuing an approval to a training organisation or a commercial air transport operator to provide cabin crew training, the competent authority shall verify that:

(1)the conduct, the syllabi and associated programmes of the training courses provided by the organisation comply with the relevant requirements of Part-CC;

(2)the training devices used by the organisation realistically represent the passenger compartment environment of the aircraft type(s) and the technical characteristics of the equipment to be operated by the cabin crew; and

(3)the trainers and instructors conducting the training sessions are suitably experienced and qualified in the training subject covered.

(1)the conduct, the syllabi and associated programmes of the training courses provided by the organisation comply with the relevant requirements of Part-CC;

(3)the trainers and instructors conducting the training sessions are suitably experienced and qualified in the training subject covered.

(b)If in a Member State organisations may be approved to issue cabin crew attestations, the competent authority shall only grant such approvals to organisations complying with the requirements in (a). Before granting such an approval, the competent authority shall:

(1)assess the capability and accountability of the organisation to perform the related tasks;

(2)ensure that the organisation has established documented procedures for the performance of the related tasks, including for the conduct of examination(s) by personnel who are qualified for this purpose and free from conflict of interest, and for the issue of cabin crew attestations in accordance with ARA.GEN.315 and ARA.CC.100(b); and

(3)require the organisation to provide information and documentation related to the cabin crew attestations it issues and their holders, as relevant for the competent authority to conduct its record-keeping, oversight and enforcement tasks.

(1)assess the capability and accountability of the organisation to perform the related tasks;

#### SUBPART ATO

@@ -6551,16 +7252,22 @@

### **ARA.FSTD.100** Initial evaluation procedure

(a)Upon receiving an application for an FSTD qualification certificate, the competent authority shall:

(1)evaluate the FSTD submitted for initial evaluation or for upgrading against the applicable qualification basis;

(2)assess the FSTD in those areas that are essential to completing the flight crew member training, testing and checking process, as applicable;

(3)conduct objective, subjective and functions tests in accordance with the qualification basis and review the results of such tests to establish the qualification test guide (QTG); and

(4)verify if the organisation operating the FSTD is in compliance with the applicable requirements. This does not apply to the initial evaluation of basic instrument training devices (BITDs).

(1)evaluate the FSTD submitted for initial evaluation or for upgrading against the applicable qualification basis;

(2)assess the FSTD in those areas that are essential to completing the flight crew member training, testing and checking process, as applicable;

(3)conduct objective, subjective and functions tests in accordance with the qualification basis and review the results of such tests to establish the qualification test guide (QTG); and

(4)verify if the organisation operating the FSTD is in compliance with the applicable requirements. This does not apply to the initial evaluation of basic instrument training devices (BITDs).

(b)The competent authority shall only approve the QTG after completion of the initial evaluation of the FSTD and when all discrepancies in the QTG have been addressed to the satisfaction of the competent authority. The QTG resulting from the initial evaluation procedure shall be the master QTG (MQTG), which shall be the basis for the FSTD qualification and subsequent recurrent FSTD evaluations.

(c)Qualification basis and special conditions.

(1)The competent authority may prescribe special conditions for the FSTD qualification basis when the requirements of ORA.FSTD.210(a) are met and when it is demonstrated that the special conditions ensure an equivalent level of safety to that established in the applicable certification specification.

(2)When the competent authority, if other than the Agency, has established special conditions for the qualification basis of an FSTD, it shall without undue delay notify the Agency thereof. The notification shall be accompanied by a full description of the special conditions prescribed, and a safety assessment demonstrating that an equivalent level of safety to that established in the applicable Certification Specification is met.

### **ARA.FSTD.110** Issue of an FSTD qualification certificate

@@ -6577,13 +7284,18 @@

### **ARA.FSTD.120** Continuation of an FSTD qualification

(a)The competent authority shall continuously monitor the organisation operating the FSTD to verify that:

(1)the complete set of tests in the MQTG is rerun progressively over a 12-month period;

(2)the results of recurrent evaluations continue to comply with the qualification standards and are dated and retained; and

(3)a configuration control system is in place to ensure the continued integrity of the hardware and software of the qualified FSTD.

(1)the complete set of tests in the MQTG is rerun progressively over a 12-month period;

(2)the results of recurrent evaluations continue to comply with the qualification standards and are dated and retained; and

(3)a configuration control system is in place to ensure the continued integrity of the hardware and software of the qualified FSTD.

(b)The competent authority shall conduct recurrent evaluations of the FSTD in accordance with the procedures detailed in ARA.FSTD.100. These evaluations shall take place:

(1)every year, in the case of a full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD) or flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT); the start for each recurrent 12-month period is the date of the initial qualification. The FSTD recurrent evaluation shall take place within the 60 days prior to the end of this 12-month recurrent evaluation period;

(2)every 3 years, in the case of a BITD.

### **ARA.FSTD.130** Changes

@@ -6652,24 +7364,42 @@

The medical certificate shall conform to the following specifications:

(a)Content

(1)State where the pilot licence has been issued or applied for (I),

(2)Class of medical certificate (II),

(3)Certificate number commencing with the UN country code of the State where the pilot licence has been issued or applied for and followed by a code of numbers and/or letters in Arabic numerals and latin script (III),

(4)Name of holder (IV),

(5)Nationality of holder (VI),

(6)Date of birth of holder: (dd/mm/yyyy) (XIV),

(7)Signature of holder (VII),

(8)Limitation(s) (XIII),

(9)Expiry date of the medical certificate (IX) for:

(i)Class 1 single pilot commercial operations carrying passengers,

(ii)Class 1 other commercial operations,

(iii)Class 2,

(iv)LAPL

(10)Date of medical examination

(11)Date of last electrocardiogram

(12)Date of last audiogram

(13)Date of issue and signature of the AME or medical assessor that issued the certificate. GMP may be added to this field if they have the competence to issue medical certificates under the national law of the Member State where the licence is issued.

(14)Seal or stamp (XI)

(1)State where the pilot licence has been issued or applied for (I),

(2)Class of medical certificate (II),

(4)Name of holder (IV),

(5)Nationality of holder (VI),

(6)Date of birth of holder: (dd/mm/yyyy) (XIV),

(7)Signature of holder (VII),

(8)Limitation(s) (XIII),

(9)Expiry date of the medical certificate (IX) for:

(i)Class 1 single pilot commercial operations carrying passengers,

(ii)Class 1 other commercial operations,

(iii)Class 2,

(iv)LAPL

(10)Date of medical examination

(11)Date of last electrocardiogram

(12)Date of last audiogram

(14)Seal or stamp (XI)

(b)Material: Except for the case of LAPL issued by a GMP the paper or other material used shall prevent or readily show any alterations or erasures. Any entries or deletions to the form shall be clearly authorised by the licensing authority.

@@ -6698,19 +7428,28 @@

(b)All aero-medical records of licence holders shall be kept for a minimum period of 10 years after the expiry of their last medical certificate.

(c)For the purpose of aero-medical assessments and standardisation, aero-medical records shall be made available after written consent of the applicant/licence holder to:

(1)an AeMC, AME or GMP for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical assessment;

(2)a medical review board that may be established by the competent authority for secondary review of borderline cases;

(3)relevant medical specialists for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical assessment;

(4)the medical assessor of the competent authority of another Member State for the purpose of cooperative oversight;

(5)the applicant/licence holder concerned upon their written request; and

(6)after disidentification of the applicant/licence holder to the Agency for standardisation purposes.

(1)an AeMC, AME or GMP for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical assessment;

(2)a medical review board that may be established by the competent authority for secondary review of borderline cases;

(3)relevant medical specialists for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical assessment;

(4)the medical assessor of the competent authority of another Member State for the purpose of cooperative oversight;

(5)the applicant/licence holder concerned upon their written request; and

(6)after disidentification of the applicant/licence holder to the Agency for standardisation purposes.

(d)The competent authority may make aero-medical records available for other purposes than those mentioned in (c) in accordance with Directive 95/46/EC as implemented under national law.

(e)The competent authority shall maintain lists:

(1)of all AMEs that hold a valid certificate issued by that authority; and

(2)where applicable, of all GMPs acting as AMEs on their territory.

These lists shall be disclosed to other Member States and the Agency upon request.

(1)of all AMEs that hold a valid certificate issued by that authority; and

(2)where applicable, of all GMPs acting as AMEs on their territory.

These lists shall be disclosed to other Member States and the Agency upon request.

### **ARA.MED.200** Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal or change of an AME certificate

@@ -6729,17 +7468,26 @@

### **ARA.MED.250** Limitation, suspension or revocation of an AME certificate

(a)The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke an AME certificate in cases where:

(1)the AME no longer complies with applicable requirements;

(2)failure to meet the criteria for certification or continuing certification;

(3)deficiency of aero-medical record-keeping or submission of incorrect data or information;

(4)falsification of medical records, certificates or documentation;

(5)concealment of facts appertaining to an application for, or holder of, a medical certificate or false or fraudulent statements or representations to the competent authority;

(6)failure to correct findings from audit of the AME practice; and

(7)at the request of the certified AME.

(1)the AME no longer complies with applicable requirements;

(2)failure to meet the criteria for certification or continuing certification;

(3)deficiency of aero-medical record-keeping or submission of incorrect data or information;

(4)falsification of medical records, certificates or documentation;

(5)concealment of facts appertaining to an application for, or holder of, a medical certificate or false or fraudulent statements or representations to the competent authority;

(6)failure to correct findings from audit of the AME practice; and

(7)at the request of the certified AME.

(b)The certificate of an AME shall be automatically revoked in either of the following circumstances:

(1)revocation of medical licence to practice; or

(2)removal from the Medical Register.

(1)revocation of medical licence to practice; or

(2)removal from the Medical Register.

### **ARA.MED.255** Enforcement measures

@@ -6766,23 +7514,34 @@

(c)AeMCs and AMEs may only issue medical certificates on the basis of a research protocol if instructed to do so by the competent authority.

(d)The protocol shall be agreed between the competent authorities concerned and shall include as a minimum:

(1)a risk assessment;

(2)a literature review and evaluation to provide evidence that issuing a medical certificate based on the research protocol would not jeopardise the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence;

(3)detailed selection criteria for pilots to be admitted to the protocol;

(4)the limitations that will be endorsed on the medical certificate;

(5)the monitoring procedures to be implemented by the competent authorities concerned;

(6)the determination of end points for terminating the protocol.

(1)a risk assessment;

(2)a literature review and evaluation to provide evidence that issuing a medical certificate based on the research protocol would not jeopardise the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence;

(3)detailed selection criteria for pilots to be admitted to the protocol;

(4)the limitations that will be endorsed on the medical certificate;

(5)the monitoring procedures to be implemented by the competent authorities concerned;

(6)the determination of end points for terminating the protocol.

(e)The protocol shall be compliant with relevant ethical principles.

(f)The exercise of licence privileges by licence holders with a medical certificate issued on the basis of the protocol shall be restricted to flights in aircraft registered in the Member States involved in the research protocol. This restriction shall be indicated on the medical certificate.

(g)The participating competent authorities shall:

(1)provide the Agency with:

(i)the research protocol before implementation;

(ii)the details and qualifications of the nominated focal point of each participating competent authority;

(iii)documented reports of regular evaluations of its effectiveness;

(2)provide the AeMCs and AMEs within their jurisdiction with details of the protocol before implementation for their information.

(1)provide the Agency with:

(i)the research protocol before implementation;

(ii)the details and qualifications of the nominated focal point of each participating competent authority;

(iii)documented reports of regular evaluations of its effectiveness;

(2)provide the AeMCs and AMEs within their jurisdiction with details of the protocol before implementation for their information.

## Appendix I

@@ -6791,23 +7550,40 @@

The flight crew licence issued by a Member State in accordance with Part-FCL shall conform to the following specifications:

(a)Content. The item number shown shall always be printed in association with the item heading. Items I to XI are the ‘permanent’ items and items XII to XIV are the ‘variable’ items which may appear on a separate or detachable part of the main form. Any separate or detachable part shall be clearly identifiable as part of the licence.

(1)Permanent items:

(I)State of licence issue;

(II)title of licence;

(III)serial number of the licence commencing with the UN country code of the State of licence issue and followed by ‘FCL’ and a code of numbers and/or letters in Arabic numerals and in Latin script;

(IV)name of holder (in Latin script, even if the script of the national language(s) is other than Latin);

(IVa)date of birth;

(V)holder's address;

(VI)nationality of holder;

(VII)signature of holder;

(VIII)competent authority and, where necessary, conditions under which the licence was issued;

(IX)certification of validity and authorisation for the privileges granted;

(X)signature of the officer issuing the licence and the date of issue; and

(XI)seal or stamp of the competent authority.

(2)Variable items:

(XII)ratings and certificates: class, type, instructor certificates, etc., with dates of expiry. Radio telephony (R/T) privileges may appear on the licence form or on a separate certificate;

(XIII)remarks: i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements for privileges, including endorsements of language proficiency, ratings for Annex II aircraft when used for commercial air transportation; and

(XIV)any other details required by the competent authority (e.g. place of birth/place of origin).

(1)Permanent items:

(I)State of licence issue;

(II)title of licence;

(IV)name of holder (in Latin script, even if the script of the national language(s) is other than Latin);

(IVa)date of birth;

(V)holder's address;

(VI)nationality of holder;

(VII)signature of holder;

(VIII)competent authority and, where necessary, conditions under which the licence was issued;

(IX)certification of validity and authorisation for the privileges granted;

(X)signature of the officer issuing the licence and the date of issue; and

(XI)seal or stamp of the competent authority.

(2)Variable items:

(XII)ratings and certificates: class, type, instructor certificates, etc., with dates of expiry. Radio telephony (R/T) privileges may appear on the licence form or on a separate certificate;

(XIV)any other details required by the competent authority (e.g. place of birth/place of origin).

(b)Material. The paper or other material used will prevent or readily show any alterations or erasures. Any entries or deletions to the form will be clearly authorised by the competent authority.

@@ -6894,14 +7670,22 @@

### **ORA.GEN.105** Competent authority

(a)For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority exercising oversight over:

(1)organisations subject to a certification obligation shall be:

(i)for organisations having their principal place of business in a Member State, the authority designated by that Member State;

(ii)for organisations having their principal place of business located in a third country, the Agency;

(2)FSTDs shall be:

(i)the Agency, for FSTDs:

—located outside the territory of the Member States, or,

—located within the territory of the Member States and operated by organisations having their principal place of business located in a third country,

(ii)for FSTDs located within the territory of the Member States and operated by organisations having their principal place of business in a Member State, the authority designated by the Member State where the organisation operating it has its principle place of business, or the Agency, if so requested by the Member State concerned.

(1)organisations subject to a certification obligation shall be:

(i)for organisations having their principal place of business in a Member State, the authority designated by that Member State;

(ii)for organisations having their principal place of business located in a third country, the Agency;

(2)FSTDs shall be:

(i)the Agency, for FSTDs:

—located outside the territory of the Member States, or,

—located within the territory of the Member States and operated by organisations having their principal place of business located in a third country,

(b)When the FSTD located outside the territory of the Member States is operated by an organisation certified by a Member State, the Agency shall qualify this FSTD in coordination with the Member State that has certified the organisation that operates such FSTD.

@@ -6916,7 +7700,8 @@

(a)Alternative means of compliance to the AMC adopted by the Agency may be used by an organisation to establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.

(b)When an organisation wishes to use an alternative means of compliance, it shall, prior to implementing it, provide the competent authority with a full description of the alternative means of compliance. The description shall include any revisions to manuals or procedures that may be relevant, as well as an assessment demonstrating that Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules are met.

The organisation may implement these alternative means of compliance subject to prior approval by the competent authority and upon receipt of the notification as prescribed in ARA.GEN.120(d).

### **ORA.GEN.125** Terms of approval and privileges of an organisation

@@ -6925,23 +7710,32 @@

### **ORA.GEN.130** Changes to organisations

(a)Any change affecting:

(1)the scope of the certificate or the terms of approval of an organisation; or

(2)any of the elements of the organisation’s management system as required in ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) and (a)(2),

shall require prior approval by the competent authority.

(1)the scope of the certificate or the terms of approval of an organisation; or

(2)any of the elements of the organisation’s management system as required in ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) and (a)(2),

shall require prior approval by the competent authority.

(b)For any changes requiring prior approval in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, the organisation shall apply for and obtain an approval issued by the competent authority. The application shall be submitted before any such change takes place, in order to enable the competent authority to determine continued compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules and to amend, if necessary, the organisation certificate and related terms of approval attached to it.

The organisation shall provide the competent authority with any relevant documentation.

The change shall only be implemented upon receipt of formal approval by the competent authority in accordance with ARA.GEN.330.

The organisation shall operate under the conditions prescribed by the competent authority during such changes, as applicable.

The organisation shall provide the competent authority with any relevant documentation.

The change shall only be implemented upon receipt of formal approval by the competent authority in accordance with ARA.GEN.330.

The organisation shall operate under the conditions prescribed by the competent authority during such changes, as applicable.

(c)All changes not requiring prior approval shall be managed and notified to the competent authority as defined in the procedure approved by the competent authority in accordance with ARA.GEN.310(c).

### **ORA.GEN.135** Continued validity

(a)The organisation’s certificate shall remain valid subject to:

(1)the organisation remaining in compliance with the relevant requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, taking into account the provisions related to the handling of findings as specified under ORA.GEN.150;

(2)the competent authority being granted access to the organisation as defined in ORA.GEN.140 to determine continued compliance with the relevant requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules; and

(3)the certificate not being surrendered or revoked.

(b)Upon revocation or surrender the certificate shall be returned to the competent authority without delay.

@@ -6973,11 +7767,11 @@

### **ORA.GEN.160** Occurrence reporting

(a)The organisation shall report to the competent authority, and to any other organisation required by the State of the operator to be informed, any accident, serious incident and occurrence as defined in Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council (6) and Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council (7).

(b)Without prejudice to paragraph (a) the organisation shall report to the competent authority and to the organisation responsible for the design of the aircraft any incident, malfunction, technical defect, exceeding of technical limitations and any occurrence that would highlight inaccurate, incomplete or ambiguous information contained in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (8) or other irregular circumstance that has or may have endangered the safe operation of the aircraft and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.

(c)Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 996/2010, Directive 2003/42/EC, Commission Regulation (EC) No 1321/2007 (9) and Commission Regulation (EC) No 1330/2007 (10), the reports referred in paragraphs (a) and (b) shall be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority and contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation.

(a)The organisation shall report to the competent authority, and to any other organisation required by the State of the operator to be informed, any accident, serious incident and occurrence as defined in Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council (4) and Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council (5).

(b)Without prejudice to paragraph (a) the organisation shall report to the competent authority and to the organisation responsible for the design of the aircraft any incident, malfunction, technical defect, exceeding of technical limitations and any occurrence that would highlight inaccurate, incomplete or ambiguous information contained in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (6) or other irregular circumstance that has or may have endangered the safe operation of the aircraft and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.

(c)Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 996/2010, Directive 2003/42/EC, Commission Regulation (EC) No 1321/2007 (7) and Commission Regulation (EC) No 1330/2007 (8), the reports referred in paragraphs (a) and (b) shall be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority and contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation.

(d)Reports shall be made as soon as practicable, but in any case within 72 hours of the organisation identifying the condition to which the report relates, unless exceptional circumstances prevent this.

@@ -6986,13 +7780,20 @@

### **ORA.GEN.200** Management system

(a)The organisation shall establish, implement and maintain a management system that includes:

(1)clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the organisation, including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager;

(2)a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the organisation with regard to safety, referred to as the safety policy;

(3)the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the organisation, their evaluation and the management of associated risks, including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness;

(4)maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks;

(5)documentation of all management system key processes, including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation;

(6)a function to monitor compliance of the organisation with the relevant requirements. Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary; and

(7)any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant subparts of this Part or other applicable Parts.

(1)clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the organisation, including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager;

(2)a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the organisation with regard to safety, referred to as the safety policy;

(4)maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks;

(5)documentation of all management system key processes, including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation;

(7)any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant subparts of this Part or other applicable Parts.

(b)The management system shall correspond to the size of the organisation and the nature and complexity of its activities, taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities.

@@ -7039,19 +7840,30 @@

### **ORA.ATO.105** Application

(a)Applicants for the issue of a certificate as an approved training organisation (ATO) shall provide the competent authority with:

(1)the following information:

(i)name and address of the training organisation;

(ii)date of intended commencement of activity;

(iii)personal details and qualifications of the head of training (HT), the flight instructor(s), flight simulation training instructors and the theoretical knowledge instructor(s);

(iv)name(s) and address(es) of the aerodromes(s) and/or operating site(s) at which the training is to be conducted;

(v)list of aircraft to be operated for training, including their group, class or type, registration, owners and category of the certificate of airworthiness, if applicable

(vi)list of flight simulation training devices (FSTDs) that the training organisation intends to use, if applicable;

(vii)the type of training that the training organisation wishes to provide and the corresponding training programme; and

(2)the operations and training manuals.

(1)the following information:

(i)name and address of the training organisation;

(ii)date of intended commencement of activity;

(iii)personal details and qualifications of the head of training (HT), the flight instructor(s), flight simulation training instructors and the theoretical knowledge instructor(s);

(iv)name(s) and address(es) of the aerodromes(s) and/or operating site(s) at which the training is to be conducted;

(v)list of aircraft to be operated for training, including their group, class or type, registration, owners and category of the certificate of airworthiness, if applicable

(vi)list of flight simulation training devices (FSTDs) that the training organisation intends to use, if applicable;

(vii)the type of training that the training organisation wishes to provide and the corresponding training programme; and

(2)the operations and training manuals.

(b)Flight test training organisations. Notwithstanding (a)(1)(iv) and (v), training organisations providing flight test training shall only need to provide:

(1)the name(s) and address(es) of the main aerodromes and/or operating site(s) at which the training is to be conducted; and

(2)a list of the types or categories of aircraft to be used for flight test training.

(1)the name(s) and address(es) of the main aerodromes and/or operating site(s) at which the training is to be conducted; and

(2)a list of the types or categories of aircraft to be used for flight test training.

(c)In the case of a change to the certificate, applicants shall provide the competent authority with the relevant parts of the information and documentation referred to in (a).

@@ -7060,13 +7872,18 @@

(a)An HT shall be nominated. The HT shall have extensive experience as an instructor in the areas relevant for the training provided by the ATO and shall possess sound managerial capability.

(b)The HT’s responsibilities shall include:

(1)ensuring that the training provided is in compliance with Part-FCL and, in the case of flight test training, that the relevant requirements of Part-21 and the training programme have been established;

(2)ensuring the satisfactory integration of flight training in an aircraft or a flight simulation training device (FSTD) and theoretical knowledge instruction; and

(3)supervising the progress of individual students.

(2)ensuring the satisfactory integration of flight training in an aircraft or a flight simulation training device (FSTD) and theoretical knowledge instruction; and

(3)supervising the progress of individual students.

(c)Theoretical knowledge instructors shall have:

(1)practical background in aviation in the areas relevant for the training provided and have undergone a course of training in instructional techniques; or

(2)previous experience in giving theoretical knowledge instruction and an appropriate theoretical background in the subject on which they will provide theoretical knowledge instruction.

(1)practical background in aviation in the areas relevant for the training provided and have undergone a course of training in instructional techniques; or

(2)previous experience in giving theoretical knowledge instruction and an appropriate theoretical background in the subject on which they will provide theoretical knowledge instruction.

(d)Flight instructors and flight simulation training instructors shall hold the qualifications required by Part-FCL for the type of training that they are providing.

@@ -7101,10 +7918,14 @@

(a)The ATO shall use an adequate fleet of training aircraft or FSTDs appropriate to the courses of training provided.

(b)The ATO shall only provide training in FSTDs when it demonstrates to the competent authority:

(1)the adequacy between the FSTD specifications and the related training programme;

(2)that the FSTDs used comply with the relevant requirements of Part-FCL;

(3)in the case of full flight simulators (FFSs), that the FFS adequately represents the relevant type of aircraft; and

(4)that it has put in place a system to adequately monitor changes to the FSTD and to ensure that those changes do not affect the adequacy of the training programme.

(1)the adequacy between the FSTD specifications and the related training programme;

(2)that the FSTDs used comply with the relevant requirements of Part-FCL;

(3)in the case of full flight simulators (FFSs), that the FFS adequately represents the relevant type of aircraft; and

(4)that it has put in place a system to adequately monitor changes to the FSTD and to ensure that those changes do not affect the adequacy of the training programme.

(c)If the aircraft used for the skill test is of a different type to the FFS used for the visual flight training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for flight and navigation procedures trainer II (FNPT II) for aeroplanes and FNPT II/III for helicopters in the relevant flight training programme.

@@ -7145,10 +7966,14 @@

### **ORA.ATO.230** Training manual and operations manual

(a)The training manual shall state the standards, objectives and training goals for each phase of training that the students are required to comply with and shall address the following subjects:

—training plan,

—briefing and air exercises,

—flight training in an FSTD, if applicable,

—theoretical knowledge instruction.

—training plan,

—briefing and air exercises,

—flight training in an FSTD, if applicable,

—theoretical knowledge instruction.

(b)The operations manual shall provide relevant information to particular groups of personnel, as flight instructors, flight simulation training instructors, theoretical knowledge instructors, operations and maintenance personnel, and shall include general, technical, route and staff training information.

@@ -7195,8 +8020,10 @@

### **ORA.ATO.355** Flight test training organisations

(a)The ATO that has been approved to provide flight test training for the issue of a category 1 or 2 flight test rating in accordance with Part-FCL may have its privileges extended to providing training for other categories of flight tests and other categories of flight test personnel, provided that:

(1)the relevant requirements of Part-21 are met; and

(2)a specific arrangement exists between the ATO and the Part-21 organisation that employs, or intends to employ, such personnel.

(1)the relevant requirements of Part-21 are met; and

(2)a specific arrangement exists between the ATO and the Part-21 organisation that employs, or intends to employ, such personnel.

(b)The training records shall include the written reports by the student, as required by the training programme, including, where applicable, data processing and analysis of recorded parameters relevant to the type of flight test.

@@ -7209,8 +8036,10 @@

(a)The applicant for an FSTD qualification certificate shall demonstrate to the competent authority that it has established a management system in accordance with ORA.GEN Section II. This demonstration shall ensure that the applicant has, directly or through contract, the capability to maintain the performance, functions and other characteristics specified for the FSTD’s qualification level and to control the installation of the FSTD.

(b)If the applicant is the holder of a qualification certificate issued in accordance with this Part, the FSTD specifications shall be detailed:

(1)in the terms of the ATO certificate; or

(2)in the case of an AOC holder, in the training manual.

(1)in the terms of the ATO certificate; or

(2)in the case of an AOC holder, in the training manual.

### **ORA.FSTD.105** Maintaining the FSTD qualification

@@ -7223,8 +8052,10 @@

### **ORA.FSTD.110** Modifications

(a)The holder of an FSTD qualification certificate shall establish and maintain a system to identify, assess and incorporate any important modifications into the FSTDs it operates, especially:

(1)any aircraft modifications that are essential for training, testing and checking, whether or not enforced by an airworthiness directive; and

(2)any modification of an FSTD, including motion and visual systems, when essential for training, testing and checking, as in the case of data revisions.

(1)any aircraft modifications that are essential for training, testing and checking, whether or not enforced by an airworthiness directive; and

(2)any modification of an FSTD, including motion and visual systems, when essential for training, testing and checking, as in the case of data revisions.

(b)Modifications of the FSTD hardware and software that affect handling, performance and systems operation or any major modifications of the motion or visual system shall be evaluated to determine the impact on the original qualification criteria. The organisation shall prepare amendments for any affected validation tests. The organisation shall test the FSTD to the new criteria.

@@ -7233,9 +8064,12 @@

### **ORA.FSTD.115** Installations

(a)The holder of an FSTD qualification certificate shall ensure that:

(1)the FSTD is housed in a suitable environment that supports safe and reliable operation;

(2)all FSTD occupants and maintenance personnel are briefed on FSTD safety to ensure that they are aware of all safety equipment and procedures in the FSTD in case of an emergency; and

(3)the FSTD and its installations comply with the local regulations for health and safety.

(1)the FSTD is housed in a suitable environment that supports safe and reliable operation;

(2)all FSTD occupants and maintenance personnel are briefed on FSTD safety to ensure that they are aware of all safety equipment and procedures in the FSTD in case of an emergency; and

(3)the FSTD and its installations comply with the local regulations for health and safety.

(b)The FSTD safety features, such as emergency stops and emergency lighting, shall be checked at least annually and recorded.

@@ -7246,8 +8080,10 @@

### **ORA.FSTD.200** Application for FSTD qualification

(a)The application for an FSTD qualification certificate shall be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority:

(1)in the case of basic instrument training devices (BITDs), by the BITD manufacturer;

(2)in all other cases, by the organisation intending to operate the FSTD.

(1)in the case of basic instrument training devices (BITDs), by the BITD manufacturer;

(2)in all other cases, by the organisation intending to operate the FSTD.

(b)Applicants for an initial qualification shall provide the competent authority with documentation demonstrating how they will comply with the requirements established in this Regulation. Such documentation shall include the procedure established to ensure compliance with ORA.GEN.130 and ORA.FSTD.230.

@@ -7260,26 +8096,34 @@

### **ORA.FSTD.210** Qualification basis

(a)The qualification basis for the issuance of an FSTD qualification certificate shall consist of:

(1)the applicable Certification Specifications established by the Agency that are effective on the date of the application for the initial qualification;

(2)the aircraft validation data defined by the mandatory part of the operational suitability data as approved under Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, if applicable; and

(3)any special conditions prescribed by the competent authority if the related Certification Specifications do not contain adequate or appropriate standards for the FSTD because the FSTD has novel or different features to those upon which the applicable Certification Specifications are based.

(1)the applicable Certification Specifications established by the Agency that are effective on the date of the application for the initial qualification;

(2)the aircraft validation data defined by the mandatory part of the operational suitability data as approved under Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, if applicable; and

(b)The qualification basis shall be applicable for future recurrent qualifications of the FSTD, unless it is recategorised.

### **ORA.FSTD.225** Duration and continued validity

(a)The full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD) or flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT) qualification shall remain valid subject to:

(1)the FSTD and the operating organisation remaining in compliance with the applicable requirements;

(3)the qualification certificate not being surrendered or revoked.

(1)the FSTD and the operating organisation remaining in compliance with the applicable requirements;

(3)the qualification certificate not being surrendered or revoked.

(b)The period of 12 months established in ARA.FSTD.120(b)(1) may be extended up to a maximum of 36 months, in the following circumstances:

(1)the FSTD has been subject to an initial and at least one recurrent evaluation that has established its compliance with the qualification basis;

(2)the FSTD qualification certificate holder has a satisfactory record of successful regulatory FSTD evaluations during the previous 36 months;

(3)the competent authority performs a formal audit of the compliance monitoring system defined in ORA.GEN.200(a)(6) of the organisation every 12 months; and

(4)an assigned person of the organisation with adequate experience reviews the regular reruns of the qualification test guide (QTG) and conducts the relevant functions and subjective tests every 12 months and sends a report of the results to the competent authority.

(1)the FSTD has been subject to an initial and at least one recurrent evaluation that has established its compliance with the qualification basis;

(2)the FSTD qualification certificate holder has a satisfactory record of successful regulatory FSTD evaluations during the previous 36 months;

(3)the competent authority performs a formal audit of the compliance monitoring system defined in ORA.GEN.200(a)(6) of the organisation every 12 months; and

(c)A BITD qualification shall remain valid subject to regular evaluation for compliance with the applicable qualification basis by the competent authority in accordance with ARA.FSTD.120.

@@ -7288,18 +8132,24 @@

### **ORA.FSTD.230** Changes to the qualified FSTD

(a)The holder of an FSTD qualification certificate shall inform the competent authority of any proposed changes to the FSTD, such as:

(1)major modifications;

(2)relocation of the FSTD; and

(3)any de-activation of the FSTD.

(1)major modifications;

(2)relocation of the FSTD; and

(3)any de-activation of the FSTD.

(b)In case of an upgrade of the FSTD qualification level, the organisation shall apply to the competent authority for an upgrade evaluation. The organisation shall run all validation tests for the requested qualification level. Results from previous evaluations shall not be used to validate FSTD performance for the current upgrade.

(c)When an FSTD is moved to a new location, the organisation shall inform the competent authority before the planned activity along with a schedule of related events.

Prior to returning the FSTD to service at the new location, the organisation shall perform at least one third of the validation tests, and functions and subjective tests to ensure that the FSTD performance meets its original qualification standard. A copy of the test documentation shall be retained together with the FSTD records for review by the competent authority.

The competent authority may perform an evaluation of the FSTD after relocation. The evaluation shall be in accordance with the original qualification basis of the FSTD.

(d)If an organisation plans to remove an FSTD from active status for prolonged periods, the competent authority shall be notified and suitable controls established for the period during which the FSTD is inactive.

The organisation shall agree with the competent authority a plan for the de-activation, any storage and re-activation to ensure that the FSTD can be restored to active status at its original qualification level.

### **ORA.FSTD.235** Transferability of an FSTD qualification

@@ -7352,8 +8202,10 @@

### **ORA.AeMC.210** Personnel requirements

(a)The AeMC shall:

(1)have an aero-medical examiner (AME) nominated as head of the AeMC, with privileges to issue class 1 medical certificates and sufficient experience in aviation medicine to exercise his/her duties; and

(2)have on staff an adequate number of fully qualified AMEs and other technical staff and experts.

(b)The head of the AeMC shall be responsible for coordinating the assessment of examination results and signing reports, certificates, and initial class 1 medical certificates.

@@ -7369,22 +8221,18 @@

(b)keep all medical records in a way that ensures that medical confidentiality is respected at all times.

(1) OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1.

(2) OJ L 373, 31.12.1991, p. 21.

(3) OJ L 243, 27.9.2003, p. 6.

(4) OJ L 373, 31.12.1991, p. 4.

(1) OJ L 243, 27.9.2003, p. 6.

(2) OJ L 373, 31.12.1991, p. 4.

(3) OJ L 167, 4.7.2003, p. 23.

(4) OJ L 295, 12.11.2010, p. 35.

(5) OJ L 167, 4.7.2003, p. 23.

(6) OJ L 295, 12.11.2010, p. 35.

(7) OJ L 167, 4.7.2003, p. 23.

(8) OJ L 224, 21.8.2012, p. 1.

(9) OJ L 294, 13.11.2007, p. 3.

(10) OJ L 295, 14.11.2007, p. 7.

(6) OJ L 224, 21.8.2012, p. 1.

(7) OJ L 294, 13.11.2007, p. 3.

(8) OJ L 295, 14.11.2007, p. 7.

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