Reform history

(3a) ‘Complex aeroplane’ means an aeroplane that meets either of the following characteristics:

(i) with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700  kg;

(ii) certificated for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen;

(iii) certificated for operation with a minimum crew of two pilots;

(iv) equipped with a turbojet engine or turbojet engines or more than one turboprop engine;

(3b) ‘Complex helicopter’ means a helicopter that meets either of the following characteristics:

(i) with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 3 175  kg;

(ii) certificated for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine;

(iii) certificated for operation with a minimum crew of two pilots;

(8c) ‘SEP aeroplane’ means a single-engine, single-pilot aeroplane for which no type rating is required and whose single centric propulsion unit is operated by a single thrust control and driven by either of the following types of engine:

(a) a piston engine;

(b) an electric engine system which, if so specified following the certification process in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, may consist of more than one electric engine;

(c) a hybrid engine system that consists of piston and electric engines, if so specified following the certification process in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012;

(8d) ‘SEP helicopter’ means a single-engine, single-pilot helicopter which is powered by a piston engine;

#### Article 3a

##### Transitional measures for medical assessment protocols applied in accordance with point ARA.MED.330 of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and medical certificates issued on the basis thereof

(iii) SEP aeroplanes and SEP helicopters, both with a maximum take-off mass not exceeding 2 000  kg;

#### Article 4h

##### Transitional measures for holders of a mountain rating

Holders of a mountain rating which was issued before 13 August 2024 with an expiry date endorsed in accordance with point FCL.815 of Annex I shall, in order to continue to exercise their privileges after that date, take the following steps:

(a) have their mountain rating re-issued by the competent authority without an expiry date;

(b) comply with point FCL.815(d) of Annex I, unless, within the preceding 2 years, they have revalidated their mountain rating in accordance with point FCL.815(e) of Annex I applicable until 12 August 2024.

(a) by 8 April 2021 at the latest, transfer to EASA all records related to the oversight of organisations that provide training for pilot licences in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 and for which EASA is the competent authority in accordance with Article 78 of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council (⁶);

(e) The holder of a licence that has been issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) may apply to the competent authority designated by another Member State for a change of competent authority relating to all licences held, as specified in point (d). Holders of an medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex IV (Part-MED) who do not yet hold a pilot licence shall be entitled to make such an application for a change of competent authority relating to all medical records kept by the competent authority.

(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless he or she meets the following conditions:

(1) is authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor;

(2) prior to receiving the authorisation specified in point (1), has acquired the competence to safely operate the relevant aircraft during the intended solo flight.

(4) If applicants for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), a private pilot licence (PPL), or a basic instrument rating (BIR) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts or have failed to pass all papers within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.

(5) Before retaking the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers, applicants shall undertake further training at a DTO or an ATO. The extent and scope of the training needed shall be determined by the DTO or the ATO, based on the needs of the applicants.

(ii) for the issue of a commercial pilot licence, a multi-crew pilot licence or an instrument rating (IR), for a period of 36 months;

(6) When Appendix 1 includes a credit for the subject Communications, all of the following shall apply:

(i) such credit shall only be granted for training and examination for that subject if applicants, during previous theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with point ARA.FCL.300 of Annex VI, have completed either the subject Communications or both subjects VFR communications and IFR communications;

(ii) applicants who have completed either only the subject VFR communications or only the subject IFR communications shall complete theoretical knowledge instruction in the subject Communications, the duration of which may be reduced based on an assessment of the applicants by the ATO. For applicants who have completed the subject VFR communications, aspects purely related to VFR communication may be reduced. For applicants who have completed the subject IFR communications, aspects purely related to IFR communication may be reduced. In any case, applicants shall complete the theoretical knowledge examination in the subject Communications.

(d) A student pilot shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required by point FCL.020(a)(1).

(a) Applicants for an LAPL shall complete a training course at a DTO or an ATO. That training course shall include:

(1) theoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges of the LAPL applied for;

(2) additionally, for the LAPL(H), the mandatory training elements for the relevant helicopter type as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.

(b) Theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction may be completed at a DTO or at an ATO different from the one where applicants have commenced their training.

(c) For the training for the SEP aeroplanes-sea class privilege, the elements of Section B (Specific requirements for the aeroplane category), point 7 (Class ratings — sea), of Appendix 9 shall be considered.

(d) Applicants for an LAPL may receive credits for previous PPL training they have undergone in accordance with Subpart C in the same aircraft category, based on an assessment of the applicant by the ATO or the DTO that is responsible for the LAPL training course. In any case, applicants shall comply with the experience requirements set out in points FCL.110.A(a) or FCL.110.H(a), as applicable.

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for aeroplanes are to act as PIC on SEP aeroplanes-land (SEP(land)), SEP aeroplanes-sea (SEP(sea)) or TMG with a maximum certified take-off mass of 2 000  kg or less, carrying a maximum of three passengers, such that there are never more than four persons on board the aircraft.

(c) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements of point (a) under the following conditions:

(a) Applicants for an LAPL(A) shall be issued with privileges for the class of aeroplanes or TMGs in which the skill test was taken. In order to extend their privileges to another class, holders of an LAPL(A) shall complete, in that other class, all of the following:

(b) In order to extend the privileges to another variant within a class, the pilot shall either undergo differences training or do familiarisation. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or in an equivalent record and shall be signed by the instructor. When extending the privileges for an SEP aeroplane class to a variant with another type of engine referred to in Article 2, point (8c), the differences training shall consist of dual flight instruction and theoretical knowledge instruction which shall include, with regard to that other type of engine and related aircraft systems, at least all of the following subjects:

(1) they have completed at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC or flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, including:

(i) 12 take-offs and landings;

(ii) refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with and to the satisfaction of an instructor who shall select those flight exercises that allow the applicant to refresh their competence in safely operating the aircraft and applying normal, abnormal and emergency procedures;

(c)Holders of an LAPL(A) with privileges for SEP aeroplanes who, in accordance with point FCL.135.A(b), have extended their privileges to a variant with a different type of engine referred to in Article 2, point (8c), if they have not flown that variant within the preceding 2 years, shall complete any of the following in that variant, before exercising their privileges in that variant:

(1) further differences training in accordance with point FCL.135.A(b);

(2) a proficiency check;

(3) refresher training in accordance with point FCL.140.A(a)(1)(ii).

(d)The dual flights, flights under supervision referred to in the introductory phrase of point (a)(1), the refresher training referred to in point (a)(1)(ii) and point (c)(3) and the proficiency check referred to in point (a)(2) and point (c)(2) shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and shall be signed by the instructor or examiner, as applicable.

(b) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements of point (a) under the following conditions:

(a) Applicants for an LAPL(H) shall be issued with privileges for the specific type of helicopter in which the skill test was taken. In order to extend their privileges to another type of helicopter, holders of an LAPL(H) shall complete, in that other type, all of the following:

(b) Before the holder of an LAPL(H) can exercise the privileges of the licence in another variant of helicopter than the one used for the skill test, the pilot shall undergo differences training or do familiarisation, as determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and shall be signed by the instructor.

(a) Holders of an LAPL(H) shall exercise the privileges of their licence on a specific type only if in the last 12 months they have, in the relevant type, taken one of the following steps:

(1) completed both of the following:

(i) at least 6 hours of flight time on helicopters of that type as PIC, or flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, including six take-offs, approaches and landings;

(ii) a refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with and to the satisfaction of an instructor who shall select those flight exercises that allow the applicant to refresh their competence in safely operating the aircraft and applying normal, abnormal and emergency procedures;

(2) passed a proficiency check with an examiner on the specific type before resuming the exercise of the privileges of their licence. That proficiency check programme shall be based on the skill test for the LAPL(H).

(b) Applicants may choose to complete the refresher training referred to in point (a)(1)(ii) in the aircraft or an FSTD representing the relevant type, or in a combination of both.

(c) The dual flights, flights under supervision referred to in point (a)(1)(i), the refresher training referred to in point (a)(1)(ii) and the proficiency check referred to in point (a)(2) shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and shall be signed by the instructor or examiner, as applicable.

(a) Applicants for a PPL(A) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 5 hours may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least the following:

(b) Specific requirements for applicants that have undergone LAPL(A) training. Applicants for a PPL(A) shall receive credits for previous LAPL(A) training they have undergone and shall be issued with a PPL(A), provided that the LAPL(A) training and the PPL(A) training that they completed in total complies with the experience requirements in point (a). However, in such a case all of the following shall apply:

(a) Applicants for a PPL(H) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction on helicopters, of which 5 hours may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:

(b) Specific requirements for applicants that have undergone LAPL(H) training. Applicants for a PPL(H) shall receive credits for previous LAPL(H) training they have undergone and shall be issued with a PPL(H), provided that the LAPL(H) training and the PPL(H) training that they completed in total complies with the experience requirements in point (a).

(a) Applicants for a CPL(A) who hold an MPL shall have completed in aeroplanes:

(1) 70 hours of flight time in one of the following ways:

(i) as PIC;

(ii) made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision (PICUS).

Of those 70 hours, 20 hours shall be of VFR cross-country flight time as PIC, or cross-country flight time made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. That shall include a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be flown as PIC;

(2) the elements of the CPL(A) modular course as specified in Chapter E, point 10(a) and point 11, of Appendix 3;

(3) the CPL(A) skill test, in accordance with point FCL.320.

(b) When being issued with a CPL in accordance with point (a), applicants shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) comply with the requirements of point FCL.405.A(c) in order to have the privileges of their IR(A) extended to single-pilot operations in aeroplanes;

(2) have the privileges of their type ratings restricted to exercise the privileges of a co-pilot only. That restriction shall be removed when applicants complete a proficiency check for the relevant type in accordance with Appendix 9 in the role of the PIC.

(b) Holders of an MPL shall, upon application:

(a)Pilots shall complete differences training or familiarisation in order to extend their privileges to another variant of aircraft within a class or type rating, or, in the case of point FCL.710(d)(1) of this Annex, in order to maintain those privileges. In the case of variants within a class or type rating, the differences training or familiarisation shall include the relevant elements defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, where applicable. When extending the privileges of an SEP aeroplane class rating to a variant with another type of engine referred to in Article 2, point (8c), of this Regulation, the differences training shall consist of dual flight instruction and theoretical knowledge instruction which shall include, with regard to that other type of engine and related aircraft systems, at least all of the following subjects:

(1) Aircraft general knowledge;

(2) Operational procedures;

(3) Flight performance and planning.

(c)Notwithstanding the requirement in point (b), differences training for the following aircraft may be conducted by an appropriately qualified instructor unless otherwise provided in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012:

(1) aeroplanes requiring a class rating:

(i) TMGs;

(ii) SEP aeroplanes;

(iii) MEP aeroplanes;

(iv) SET aeroplanes, except for complex or high-performance SET aeroplanes;

(2) single-engine helicopters with a maximum take-off mass not exceeding 3 175  kg.

(d)Pilots who, after having extended their privileges to another variant within a class or type rating in accordance with this point, have not flown that variant within the preceding 2 years shall, before exercising their privileges in that variant, complete any of the following in that variant:

(1) further differences training in accordance with points (a) and (b) or, if applicable, (c);

(2) a proficiency check;

(3) in the case of a variant within the SEP class rating with a particular engine type referred to in Article 2, point (8c), refresher training in accordance with point FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii)(C).

(da)Point FCL.710(d) shall not apply in the case of variants within the TMG class rating and variants within the SEP class rating that have the same type of engine referred to in Article 2, point (8c), of this Regulation.

(a) Training course. An applicant for a class or type rating shall complete a training course at an ATO. An applicant for a non-high-performance SEP aeroplane class rating, a TMG class rating or a single-engine type rating for helicopters referred to in point DTO.GEN.110(a)(2)(c) of Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation may complete the training course at a DTO. The type rating training course shall include the mandatory training elements for the relevant type as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.

(d) Single- and multi-pilot operations in single-pilot aircraft – type ratings

(da) Single- and multi-pilot operations – aeroplane class ratings

The privileges of holders of a class rating for a single-pilot aeroplane include the privileges to fly the aeroplane in multi-pilot operations, provided that such holders:

(db) If a skill test or proficiency check for a single-pilot aircraft class or type rating is conducted in either of the following, the form or forms of operation in which that skill test or a proficiency check is conducted shall be entered in the logbook of the applicants and signed by the examiner:

(ii) at a DTO or at an ATO, if the expired rating concerned a non-high-performance SEP aeroplane class rating, a TMG class rating or a single-engine type rating for helicopters referred to in point DTO.GEN.110(a)(2)(c) of Annex VIII;

(iii) at a DTO, at an ATO or with an instructor, if the rating expired no more than 3 years ago and the rating concerned a non-high-performance SEP aeroplane class rating or a TMG class rating;

(i) they completed, within the preceding 3 years, the training and checking in accordance with points ORO.FC.220 or ORO.FC.230 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;

(c) Notwithstanding point FCL.720.A(b), applicants who comply with Section B, point 6(i), of Appendix 9 shall be issued with a type rating with restricted privileges for a multi-pilot aeroplane that allows holders of such a rating to act as cruise relief co-pilots above Flight Level 200, provided that two other members of the crew have a type rating in accordance with point FCL.720.A(b).

To remove the restriction, applicants shall comply with all of the following:

(c) for single-pilot non-high-performance complex aeroplanes, single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes, the training courses shall include UPRT theoretical knowledge and flight instruction related to the specificities of the relevant class or type. For the flight instruction, FSTDs may be used in accordance with Section A, point 18 of Appendix 9.

(3) 3 hours of dual flight instruction with a flight instructor for aeroplanes FI(A) qualified in accordance with point FCL.915(e) and consisting of advanced UPRT in an aeroplane qualified for the training task. Flight time that does not include advanced UPRT but serves to go to or return from the UPRT training area shall not count towards those 3 hours.

(a) Revalidation. For the revalidation of type ratings for helicopters, applicants shall comply with one of the following, as applicable:

(1) they shall take the following steps:

(i) within the validity period of the type rating, complete at least 2 hours as pilot in the relevant helicopter type;

(ii) within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the type rating, pass a proficiency check:

(A) which is conducted in accordance with Appendix 9 in the relevant type of helicopter or an FSTD representing that type;

(B) the duration of which may be counted towards the flight time specified in point (i);

(2) for type ratings for single-engine helicopters up to a maximum take-off mass of 3 175  kg, they shall meet one of the following conditions:

(i) comply with point (a)(1);

(ii) complete, in the relevant type of helicopter, both of the following:

(A) within the validity period of the type rating, at least 6 hours as PIC;

(B) within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating, a refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with and to the satisfaction of an instructor who shall select those flight exercises that allow the applicant to refresh their competence in safely operating the aircraft and applying normal, abnormal and emergency procedures. Applicants may choose to complete the refresher training in the aircraft or an FSTD representing the relevant type, or in a combination of both.

(b) When applicants hold more than one type rating for SEP helicopters, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by passing the proficiency check in accordance with point (a)(1)(ii) or completing the refresher training in accordance with point (a)(2)(ii)(B) in only one of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed either of the following flight times as PIC in each of the other relevant types during the validity period:

(1) if they completed a proficiency check in accordance with point (a)(1)(ii), at least 2 hours;

(2) if they completed a refresher training in accordance with point (a)(2)(ii)(B), at least 6 hours.

The proficiency check or the refresher training, as applicable, shall be performed each time on a different type. The new validity period of all type ratings revalidated in accordance with this point shall commence together with the validity period of the type rating for which the proficiency check or the refresher training is performed.

(c) When applicants hold more than one type rating for SET helicopters with a maximum certified take-off mass up to 3 175  kg, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by passing the proficiency check in accordance with point (a)(1)(ii) or completing the refresher training in accordance with point (a)(2)(ii)(B) in only one of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed all of the following:

(1) 300 hours as PIC on helicopters;

(2) 15 hours on each of the types held;

(3) either of the following flight times as PIC in each of the other relevant types during the validity period:

(i) if they completed a proficiency check in accordance with point (a)(1)(ii), at least 2 hours;

(ii) if they completed a refresher training in accordance with point (a)(2)(ii)(B), at least 6 hours.

The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type. The new validity period of all type ratings revalidated in accordance with this point shall commence together with the validity period of the type rating for which the proficiency check or the refresher training is completed.

(d) Applicants who successfully complete a skill test for the issue of an additional type rating or a proficiency check for the renewal of a type rating shall achieve revalidation for the relevant type ratings already held in the common groups, as specified in points (b) and (c).

The new validity period of all type ratings revalidated in accordance with this point shall commence together with the validity period of the type rating for which the skill test or proficiency check is completed.

(e) The revalidation of an IR(H), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for a type rating.

(f) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved. In the case of points (b) and (c), applicants shall not exercise their privileges in any of the types.

(d) In order to exercise the privileges of the mountain rating, the holder of the rating shall, during the last 2 years, have complied with either of the following conditions:

(b) The obligation to hold a flight test rating established in point (a) shall only apply to flight tests conducted on:

(1) The privileges of a BIR holder are to conduct flights under IFR on single-pilot aeroplanes for which class ratings are held, with the exception of the following:

(i) high-performance aeroplanes;

(ii) aeroplane variants if operational suitability data has determined that an IR is required.

(ii) passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor on that class or type of aircraft;

(4) be entitled to act as PIC in the aircraft during such flight instruction; and

(5) when providing flight instruction in a variant of the SEP aeroplane class with a particular type of engine referred to in Article 2, point (8c), of this Regulation, have complied with one of the following conditions:

(i) completed at least 5 hours of flight time as pilots in that variant;

(ii) passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor in that variant.

(a) An applicant for an instructor certificate shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO.

Upon completion of the training flight for the revalidation of an SEP aeroplane or TMG class rating in accordance with point FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii)(C) or for the revalidation of a single-engine helicopter type rating in accordance with point FCL.740.H(a)(2)(ii)(B), and only in the event of fulfilment of all the other revalidation criteria required by point FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) or point FCL.740.H(a)(2)(ii), as applicable, the instructor shall endorse the applicant’s licence with the new expiry date of the rating, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence.

(2) hold at least a PPL(A), or hold an MPL with additional PPL privileges in accordance with point FCL.405.A(b)(1), and have complied with the following conditions:

(i) except for an FI(A) providing training for the LAPL(A) only, passed the CPL theoretical knowledge examination, which may be taken without completing a CPL theoretical knowledge training course and which in that case shall not be valid for any of the following:

(A) the issue of a CPL;

(B) receiving credits for CPL theoretical knowledge in accordance with point FCL.035 and Appendix 1;

(3) have completed at least 30 hours in the class or type of aeroplane used for the FI(A) training course, of which at least 5 hours shall have been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-entry flight assessment set out in point FCL.930.FI(a);

(a) Applicants for the FI certificate shall, at an ATO, have passed a specific pre-entry flight assessment with an FI qualified in accordance with point FCL.905.FI(j) within the 6 months preceding the start of the course, to assess their ability to undertake the course. That pre-entry flight assessment shall be based on the proficiency check for the class and type ratings as set out in Appendix 9.

(ii) they have completed instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO or at the competent authority;

If the FI certificate has expired, applicants shall, within a period of 12 months before the application date for the renewal, complete instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO or at a competent authority and complete an assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935.

(ii) has conducted the flight instruction syllabus of the relevant part of the TRI training course in accordance with point FCL.930.TRI(ab)(3) to the satisfaction of the head of training of an ATO;

(1) LIFUS, provided that the TRI training course has included the relevant training specified in point FCL.930.TRI(ab)(4)

(2) landing training, provided that the TRI training course has included the relevant training specified in point FCL.930.TRI(ab)(4); or

(3) The privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further variants, provided that they comply with point FCL.710 in those other variants and, where applicable, the elements set out in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for those variants.

(iii) The privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further variants, provided that they comply with point FCL.710 in those other variants and, where applicable, the elements set out in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for those variants.

(a) The TRI training course shall be conducted:

(aa) By way of derogation from point (a), the TRI training course:

(ab) The TRI training course shall include:

(b) Flight instruction shall be given by an FI qualified in accordance with point FCL.905.FI(j).

Unless otherwise specified in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, to extend the privileges of SFIs to other FSTDs representing further types of the same category of aircraft, SFIs shall have:

(b) An applicant for an SFI certificate who:

1.3. For the issue of a PPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge instruction and examination. That credit shall also apply to applicants for a PPL who have already successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examination for the LAPL in the same aircraft category, as long as it is within the validity period specified in point FCL.025(c).

1.4. By way of derogation from point 1.2, for the issue of an LAPL(A), the holder of an SPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 with privileges to fly TMGs shall demonstrate an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the SEP aeroplane-land class in accordance with point FCL.135.A(a)(2).

2.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as set out in this Annex (Part-FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

2.4. Applicants for a CPL that have passed the relevant theoretical knowledge examinations for an IR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the communications subject.

5. Items in Section 2(c) and (e)(iv), Section 3(g), and the whole of Sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS. The examiner may decide not to perform items in Section 6(d).

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| g | Tracking, positioning (NDB, VOR, or track between waypoints), identification of facilities (instrument flight). |

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| h | Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight) |

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| d | Engine shut-down and restart (if selected by the examiner) |

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### Cross-crediting of the IR part of a class or type rating proficiency check or EBT practical assessment

| | |

| If a skill test, proficiency check or EBT practical assessment including IR is performed, and holders have a valid: | Credit is valid towards the IR part in proficiency check for: |

| MPA type rating; single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type rating | SE class rating (^*1), and SE type rating (^*1), and SP ME class or type rating except for high-performance complex type ratings, only credits for Section 3B of the proficiency check in point B.5 of Appendix 9 (^*1) |

| | |

### **Training, skill test and proficiency check for the MPL, and the ATPL, and for type and class ratings, and proficiency checks for the BIR and the IR**

1a. Training in FFS in accordance with points 1b and 1c of this Section shall be complemented with take-off and landing training in a single-pilot aircraft operated in single-pilot or multi-pilot operations, or in a multi-pilot aircraft, as applicable, in accordance with point 17 of this Section, unless the training is completed in accordance with point FCL.730.A or constitutes training for cruise relief co-pilots in accordance with Section B, point 6(i), of this Appendix.

1b. The training for MPA and PL type ratings shall be conducted in an FFS or in a combination of FSTD(s) and FFS. The skill test or proficiency check for MPA and PL type ratings and the issue of an ATPL and an MPL, shall be conducted in an FFS, if available.

1c. The training, skill test or proficiency check for class or type ratings for SPA and helicopters shall be conducted in either of the following:

1d. By way of derogation from point 1c, the training, skill test or proficiency check for class or type ratings for non-complex SPA and for non-complex helicopters may be conducted in a combination of FSTD(s) and the aircraft even if an FFS is available and accessible.

1e. By way of derogation from point 1c, the training, skill test or proficiency check for any of the following may be conducted in accordance with points 1c(a), (b) or (c), irrespective of the availability and accessibility of FFS or FSTD:

1f. If FSTDs are used during training, testing or checking, the suitability of the FSTDs used shall be verified against the applicable ‘Table of functions and subjective tests’ and the applicable ‘Table of FSTD validation tests’ contained in the primary reference document applicable for the device used. All restrictions and limitations indicated on the device’s qualification certificate shall be considered.

17. When their type rating course has included less than 2 hours of flight training in the aircraft, applicants shall, before or after the skill test, complete flight training in the aircraft.

Such approved flight training shall include take-off and landing manoeuvres and shall be performed by a qualified instructor under the responsibility of:

| 5. | Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise, an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (---->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A = aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred (*) items of Section 3B and, for multi-engine, Section 6, shall be flown solely by reference to instruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or proficiency check. If the starred (*) items are not flown solely by reference to instruments during the skill test or proficiency check, and when there is no crediting of IR privileges, the class or type rating will be restricted to VFR only. (d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where the required experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. Section 3A is not required if Section 3B is completed. (e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears. (f) An FSTD shall be used for practical training for type or ME class ratings if they form part of an approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); (ii) the qualifications of the instructors; (iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course; and (iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (g) To exercise the privileges of a class or type rating in multi-pilot operations in accordance with point FCL.725(d) or (da), pilots that are already entitled to operate the relevant class or type of aeroplane in single-pilot operations shall meet the following conditions: (1) complete a bridge course containing manoeuvres and procedures including MCC as well as the exercises of Section 7 using threat and error management (TEM), CRM and human factors at an organisation that is specified in point FCL.725(d)(1)(i); (2) pass a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations. (h) To exercise the privileges of a type rating in single-pilot operations in accordance with point FCL.725(d), pilots that are already entitled to operate the relevant type of aeroplane in multi-pilot operations shall be trained at an organisation that is specified in point FCL.725(d)(1)(i) and checked for the following additional manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operations: (i) for SE aeroplanes, 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B; (ii) for ME aeroplanes, 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B. (i) Pilots that are entitled to exercise the privileges of a class or type rating in both single-pilot and multi-pilot operations in accordance with points (g) and (h) may maintain privileges for both forms of operation by completing either of the following: (i) two proficiency checks, one in single-pilot operations and one in multi-pilot operations; (ii) a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations in addition to the exercises referred to in points (h)(i) or (h)(ii), as applicable, in single-pilot operations. Proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of class ratings shall always include the exercises referred to in points (h)(i) or (h)(ii), as applicable, in single-pilot operations. (j) To remove a restriction to multi-pilot operations from a single-pilot aeroplane type rating in accordance with point FCL.725(d)(2), pilots shall comply with point (h). (k) The training, testing and checking shall follow the table mentioned below. (1) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for single-pilot privileges (2) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for multi-pilot privileges (3) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding single-pilot privileges seeking multi-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (4) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding multi-pilot privileges seeking single-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (5) Training at an ATO and checking requirements for combined revalidation and renewal of single and multi-pilot privileges **(1)** **(2)** **(3)** **(4)** **(5)** *Type of operation* *Type of aircraft* **SP** **MP** **SP → MP (initial)** **MP → SP (initial)** **SP** **+** **MP** *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training* *Testing/checking* *Training, testing and checking (SE aeroplanes)* *Training, testing and checking (ME aeroplanes)* *SE aeroplanes* *ME aeroplanes* **Initial issue** All (except SP complex) Sections 1-6 Sections 1-6 MCC CRM Human factors TEM Sections 1-7 Sections 1-6 MCC CRM Human factors TEM Section 7 Sections 1-6 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B SP complex 1-7 1-6 **Revalidation** All n/a Sections 1-6 n/a Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Section 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B MPO: Sections 1-7 (training) Sections 1-6 (checking) SPO: 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B **Renewal** All FCL.740 Sections 1-6 FCL.740 Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation Training: FCL.740 Check: as for the revalidation (l) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. By way of derogation from the first paragraph, in cases where a proficiency check for revalidation of PBN privileges is performed in an aircraft or an FSTD representing that aircraft, which are not equipped for RNP APCH manoeuvres, the proficiency check may not include RNP APCH exercises. In such cases, the PBN privileges of the pilot shall not include RNP APCH. The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise for the relevant class or type. TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A Instructor initials when training completed Tested or checked in FSTD or A Examiner initials when test or check completed SECTION 1 1 1.1 Departure Preflight including: — documentation; — mass and balance; — weather briefing; and — NOTAM. OTD 1.2 Pre-start checks 1.2.1 External OTD P# P M 1.2.2 Internal OTD P# P M 1.3 Engine starting: normal malfunctions. P----> ----> M 1.4 Taxiing P----> ----> M 1.5 Pre-departure checks: engine run-up (if applicable) P----> ----> M 1.6 Take-off procedure: — normal with flight manual flap settings; and — crosswind (if conditions are available). P----> ----> M 1.7 Climbing: — Vx/Vy; — turns onto headings; and — level off. P----> ----> M 1.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> M SECTION 2 2 2.1 Airwork (visual meteorological conditions (VMC)) Straight and level flight at various airspeeds including flight at critically low airspeed with and without flaps (including approach to V Vmca when applicable) P----> ----> 2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank) P----> ----> M 2.3 Stalls and recovery: (i) clean stall; (ii) approach to stall in descending turn with bank with approach configuration and power; (iii) approach to stall in landing configuration and power; and (iv) approach to stall, climbing turn with take-off flap and climb power (single-engine aeroplanes only) P----> ----> M 2.4 Handling using autopilot and flight director (may be conducted in Section 3), if applicable P----> ----> M 2.5 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 3A 3A 3A.1 En route procedures VFR (see B.5 (c) and (d)) Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading P----> ----> 3A.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed P----> ----> 3A.3 Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs P----> ----> 3A.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable) P----> ----> 3A.5 Flight management (flight log, routine checks including fuel, systems and icing) P----> ----> 3A.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> SECTION 3B 3B 3B.1* Instrument flight Departure IFR P----> ----> M 3B.2* En route IFR P----> ----> M 3B.3* Holding procedures P----> ----> M 3B.4* 3D operations to decision height/altitude (DH/A) of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure (autopilot may be used to the final approach segment vertical path intercept) P----> ----> M 3B.5* 2D operations to minimum descent height/altitude (MDH/A) P----> ----> M 3B.6* Flight exercises including simulated failure of the compass and attitude indicator: — rate 1 turns; and — recoveries from unusual attitudes. P----> ----> M 3B.7* Failure of localiser or glideslope P----> ----> 3B.8* ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M Intentionally left blank SECTION 4 4 4.1 Arrival and landings Aerodrome arrival procedure P----> ----> M 4.2 Normal landing P----> ----> M 4.3 Flapless landing P----> ----> M 4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) P----> ----> 4.5 Approach and landing with idle power from up to 2 000 ft above the runway (single-engine aeroplanes only) P----> ----> 4.6 Go-around from minimum height P----> ----> M 4.7 Night go-around and landing (if applicable) P----> ----> 4.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 5 5 Abnormal and emergency procedures (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4.) 5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed P----> ----> M 5.2 Simulated engine failure after take-off (single-engine aeroplanes only) P M 5.3 Simulated forced landing without power (single-engine aeroplanes only) P M 5.4 Simulated emergencies: (i) fire or smoke in flight; and (ii) systems' malfunctions as appropriate P----> ----> 5.5 ME aeroplanes and TMG training only: engine shutdown and restart (at a safe altitude if performed in the aircraft) P----> ----> 5.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 6 6.1* Simulated asymmetric flight (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5.) Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II) P----> --->X M 6.2* Asymmetric approach and go-around P----> ----> M 6.3* Asymmetric approach and full-stop landing P----> ----> M 6.4 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 7 7 UPRT 7.1 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 7.1.1 Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 7.1.1.1 At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD training envelope. P-----> ----> 7.1.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 7.1.1.3 Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 7.1.1.4 Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, and visual approach P-----> ----> 7.2 7.2.1 Upset recovery training Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration P-----> ----> 7.2.2 The following upset exercises: — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles. P X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise 7.3 Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P---> -----> 7.4 Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH 15 m (50 ft) above the runway threshold — after touchdown (baulked landing) — In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. P-----> -----> | | | | | | | | | |

| 6. | Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable. OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (----->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A = aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. (d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears. (e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualifications of the instructors; (ii) the qualification and the amount of training provided on the course in an FSTD; and (iii) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations. (g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in single-pilot operations. (h) To remove a restriction to multi-pilot operations in accordance with point FCL.725(d)(2) from a single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type rating, pilots shall complete the manoeuvres/procedures in 2.5, 3.8.3.4, 4.4, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure from Section 3.4 in single-pilot operation. (i) Applicants for and holders of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with point FCL.720.A(c) shall complete training, skill tests and proficiency checks in accordance with this Appendix. However, unless they undergo a skill test in accordance with point FCL.720.A(c)(3), they shall, during a skill test or a proficiency check, perform at least the landing manoeuvres in the role of the pilot monitoring but shall not be required to perform the following: (i) take-off manoeuvres; (ii) landing manoeuvres in the role of the pilot flying. (j) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. By way of derogation from the first paragraph, in cases where a proficiency check for revalidation of PBN privileges is performed in an aircraft or an FSTD representing that aircraft, which are not equipped for RNP APCH manoeuvres, the proficiency check may not include RNP APCH exercises. In such cases, the PBN privileges of the pilot shall not include RNP APCH. The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise for the relevant class or type. MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR PROF. CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A Instructor initials when training completed Tested or checked in FSTD or A Examiner initials when test or check completed SECTION 1 1 Flight preparation 1.1.  Performance calculation OTD P 1.2.  Aeroplane external visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection OTD P# P 1.3.  Cockpit inspection P-----> -----> 1.4.  Use of checklist prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies P-----> -----> M 1.5.  Taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions or instructions of instructor P-----> -----> 1.6.  Before take-off checks P-----> -----> M SECTION 2 2 Take-offs 2.1.  Normal take-offs with different flap settings, including expedited take-off P-----> -----> 2.2*  Instrument take-off; transition to instrument flight is required during rotation or immediately after becoming airborne P-----> -----> 2.3.  Crosswind take-off P-----> -----> 2.4.  Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P-----> -----> 2.5.  Take-offs with simulated engine failure: 2.5.1*  shortly after reaching V2 P-----> -----> (In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category or commuter category aeroplanes, the engine failure shall not be simulated until reaching a minimum height of 500 ft above the runway end. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure shortly after reaching V2) 2.5.2*  between V1 and V2 P X M FFS only 2.6.  Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed before reaching V1 P-----> ---->X M SECTION 3 3 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 3.1.  Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 3.1.1.  At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD training envelope P-----> ----> 3.1.2.  Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 3.1.3.  Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 3.1.4.  Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, and visual approach P-----> ----> 3.2.  Tuck under and Mach buffets (if applicable), and other specific flight characteristics of the aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) P-----> ---->X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 3.3.  Normal operation of systems and controls engineer's panel (if applicable) OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.  Normal and abnormal operations of following systems: M A mandatory minimum of 3 abnormal items shall be selected from 3.4.0 to 3.4.14 inclusive 3.4.0.  Engine (if necessary propeller) OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.1.  Pressurisation and air conditioning OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.2.  Pitot/static system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.3.  Fuel system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.4.  Electrical system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.5.  Hydraulic system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.6.  Flight control and trim system OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.7.  Anti-icing/de-icing system, glare shield heating OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.8.  Autopilot/flight director OTD P-----> -----> M (single pilot only) 3.4.9.  Stall warning devices or stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.10.  Ground proximity warning system, weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P-----> -----> 3.4.11.  Radios, navigation equipment, instruments, FMS OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.12.  Landing gear and brake OTD P-----> -----> 3.4.13.  Slat and flap system OTD -----> 3.4.14.  Auxiliary power unit (APU) OTD P-----> -----> Intentionally left blank 3.6.  Abnormal and emergency procedures: M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.6.1 to 3.6.9 inclusive 3.6.1.  Fire drills, e.g. engine, APU, cabin, cargo compartment, flight deck, wing and electrical fires including evacuation P-----> -----> 3.6.2.  Smoke control and removal P-----> -----> 3.6.3.  Engine failures, shutdown and restart at a safe height P-----> -----> 3.6.4.  Fuel dumping (simulated) P-----> -----> 3.6.5.  Wind shear at take-off/landing P X FFS only 3.6.6.  Simulated cabin pressure failure/emergency descent P-----> -----> 3.6.7.  Incapacitation of flight crew member P-----> -----> 3.6.8.  Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate aeroplane flight manual (AFM) P-----> -----> 3.6.9.  TCAS event OTD P-----> An aeroplane shall not be used FFS only 3.7.  Upset recovery training 3.7.1.  Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration. P FFS qualified for the training task only X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise 3.7.2.  The following upset exercises: — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles P FFS qualified for the training task only X An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 3.8.  Instrument flight procedures 3.8.1*  Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions P-----> -----> M 3.8.2*  Holding procedures P-----> -----> 3.8.3*  3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure *Note:* According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taking into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 3.8.3.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). 3.8.3.1*  Manually, without flight director P-----> -----> M (skill test only) 3.8.3.2*  Manually, with flight director P-----> -----> 3.8.3.3*  With autopilot P-----> -----> 3.8.3.4*  Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative during final approach, either until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure (as applicable), starting: (i) before passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level; and (ii) after passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level. In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the 2D approach in accordance with 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height/altitude (OCH/A); however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with exercise 3.8.3.4. P —-> —-> M ————— 3.8.4*  2D operations down to the MDH/A P*---> -----> M 3.8.5.  Circling approach under the following conditions: (a)*  approach to the authorised minimum circling approach altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by: (b) circling approach to another runway at least 90° off centreline from the final approach used in item (a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude. *Remark:* If (a) and (b) are not possible due to ATC reasons, a simulated low visibility pattern may be performed. P*---> -----> 3.8.6.  Visual approaches P----> -----> SECTION 4 4 Missed approach procedures 4.1.  Go-around with all engines operating* during a 3D operation on reaching decision height P*---> -----> 4.2.  Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P*---> -----> 4.3.  Other missed approach procedures P*---> -----> 4.4*  Manual go-around with the critical engine simulated inoperative after an instrument approach on reaching DH, MDH or MAPt P*-----> -----> M 4.5.  Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH; — after touchdown (baulked landing) In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. P-----> -----> SECTION 5 5 Landings 5.1.  Normal landings* with visual reference established when reaching DA/H following an instrument approach operation P 5.2.  Landing with simulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position P-----> An aeroplane shall not be used for this exercise FFS only 5.3.  Crosswind landings (aircraft, if practicable) P-----> -----> 5.4.  Traffic pattern and landing without extended or with partly extended flaps and slats P-----> -----> 5.5.  Landing with critical engine simulated inoperative P-----> -----> M 5.6.  Landing with two engines inoperative: — aeroplanes with three engines: the centre engine and one outboard engine as far as practicable according to data of the AFM; and — aeroplanes with four engines: two engines at one side P X M FFS only (skill test only) ————— | | | | |

| 12. | Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating proficiency check shall pass only Sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, Section 6. SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H Instructor initials when training completed Checked in FSTD or H Examiner initials when test completed SECTION 1 — Preflight preparations and checks 1.1 Helicopter exterior visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection P M (if performed in the helicopter) 1.2 Cockpit inspection P ----> M 1.3 Starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies P ----> M 1.4 Taxiing/air taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions or with instructions of an instructor P ----> M 1.5 Pre-take-off procedures and checks P ----> M SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures 2.1 Take-offs (various profiles) P ----> M 2.2 Sloping ground or crosswind take-offs & landings P ----> 2.3 Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P ----> 2.4 Take-off with simulated engine failure shortly before reaching TDP or DPATO P ----> M 2.4.1 Take-off with simulated engine failure shortly after reaching TDP or DPATO P ----> M 2.5 Climbing and descending turns to specified headings P ----> M 2.5.1 Turns with 30° bank, 180° to 360° left and right, by sole reference to instruments P ----> M 2.6 Autorotative descent P ----> M 2.6.1 For single-engine helicopters (SEH): — autorotative landing; or — power recovery, provided that applicants, in the preceding year, completed training that included an autorotative landing and that training was entered and signed in the applicants’ logbook by the instructor. For multi-engine helicopters (MEH): power recovery. P ----> M 2.7 Landings, various profiles P ----> M 2.7.1 Go-around or landing following simulated engine failure before LDP or DPBL P ----> M 2.7.2 Landing following simulated engine failure after LDP or DPBL P ----> M SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures: M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from this section 3.1 Engine P ----> 3.2 Air conditioning (heating, ventilation) P ----> 3.3 Pitot/static system P ----> 3.4 Fuel system P ----> 3.5 Electrical system P ----> 3.6 Hydraulic system P ----> 3.7 Flight control and trim system P ----> 3.8 Anti-icing and de-icing system P ----> 3.9 Autopilot/flight director P ---> 3.10 Stability augmentation devices P ----> 3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P ----> 3.12 Area navigation system P ----> 3.13 Landing gear system P -----> 3.14 APU P ----> 3.15 Radio, navigation equipment, instruments and FMS P ----> SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures 4 Abnormal and emergency procedures M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from this section 4.1 Fire drills (including evacuation if applicable) P ----> 4.2 Smoke control and removal P ----> 4.3 Engine failures, shutdown and restart at a safe height P ----> 4.4 Fuel dumping (simulated) P ----> 4.5 Tail rotor control failure (if applicable) P ----> 4.5.1 Tail rotor loss (if applicable) P A helicopter shall not be used for this exercise 4.6 Incapacitation of crew member — MPH only P ----> 4.7 Transmission malfunctions P ----> 4.8 Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight manual P ----> SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC) 5.1 Instrument take-off: transition to instrument flight is required as soon as possible after becoming airborne P* ---->* 5.1.1 Simulated engine failure during departure P* ---->* M* 5.2 Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions P* ---->* M* 5.3 Holding procedures P* ---->* 5.4 3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure P* ---->* 5.4.1 Manually, without flight director. Note: According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taken into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 5.4.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). P* ---->* M* (unless Exercise 5.4.2 is completed) 5.4.2 Manually, with flight director P* ---->* M* (unless Exercise 5.4.1 is completed) 5.4.3 With coupled autopilot P* ---->* 5.4.4 Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level until touchdown or until completion of the missed approach procedure P* ---->* M* 5.5 2D operations down to the MDA/H P* ---->* M* 5.6 Go-around with all engines operating on reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH P* ---->* 5.6.1 Other missed approach procedures P* ---->* 5.6.2 Go-around with one engine simulated inoperative on reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH P* ---->* M* 5.7 IMC autorotation with power recovery P* ---->* M* 5.8 Recovery from unusual attitudes P* ---->* M* SECTION 6 — Use of optional equipment 6 Use of optional equipment P ----> | | | | | |

| | | | | | | |

| 2.6.1 | For single-engine helicopters (SEH): — autorotative landing; or — power recovery, provided that applicants, in the preceding year, completed training that included an autorotative landing and that training was entered and signed in the applicants’ logbook by the instructor. For multi-engine helicopters (MEH): power recovery. | P | ----> | | M | |

| | | | | | | |

| | | | | | | |

| 5.4.1 | Manually, without flight director. Note: According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taken into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 5.4.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). | P* | ---->* | | M* (unless Exercise 5.4.2 is completed) | |

| 5.4.2 | Manually, with flight director | P* | ---->* | | M* (unless Exercise 5.4.1 is completed) | |

| | | | | | | |

13.To exercise the privileges of the type rating in accordance with point FCL.725(d), applicants for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a single-pilot helicopter type rating shall:

(a) for single-pilot operations, complete the skill test or proficiency check in single-pilot operations;

(b) in multi-pilot operations, complete the skill test or proficiency check in multi-pilot operations;

(c) for both single-pilot and multi-pilot operations, complete the skill test or proficiency check in multi-pilot operations and, additionally, the following manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operations:

(3) for IR privileges, in addition to point (1) or (2), as applicable, one approach of Section 5, unless the criteria of Appendix 8 are met;

(d) in order to remove a restriction to multi-pilot operations from a single-pilot helicopter type rating in accordance with point FCL.725(d)(2), complete a proficiency check that includes the manoeuvres and procedures referred to in points (c)(1) or (c)(2), as applicable.

(b) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council (⁷) and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof, the competent authority shall provide the Agency with safety-significant information stemming from the occurrence reports stored in the national database, as soon as possible.

(d) For persons that hold a licence, certificate, rating, or attestation issued by the competent authority, the oversight programme shall include an appropriate volume of inspections and unannounced inspections.

(b) When such finding is raised, the competent authority shall carry out an investigation. If the finding is confirmed, it shall:

#### (d) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the authority of a Member State acting under the provisions of ARA.GEN.300(d) finds evidence showing a non-compliance with the applicable requirements by a person holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation issued by the competent authority of any other Member State, it shall inform that competent authority.

(e)When a competent authority receives an medical certificate holder’s request for a change of competent authority, as specified in the requirements referred to in point (a), the procedure specified in points (a) to (d) shall apply.

(d) Endorsement of licence by instructors. Before specifically authorising certain instructors to revalidate an SEP aeroplane class rating, a TMG class rating or a type rating for a single-engine helicopter up to a MTOM of 3 175  kg, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.

(3) The examination in communications may be provided separately from those in other subjects.

(a) The competent authority shall continuously monitor the organisation operating the FSTD, as part of the oversight programme, to verify that the following conditions are met:

(1) the complete set of tests in the master QTG is rerun progressively over a 12-month period;

(2) the results of recurrent evaluations continue to comply with the qualification basis and are dated and retained;

#### (b) The competent authority shall conduct recurrent evaluations of the FSTD in accordance with the procedures detailed in point ARA.FSTD.100. Those evaluations shall take place:

(1) every year, in the case of a full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD) or flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT). The start for each recurrent 12-month period is the end of the month of the initial qualification unless another date is agreed between the competent authority and the organisation operating the FSTD. Each FSTD recurrent evaluation shall take place within a period of 60 days before and 30 days after the start of each recurrent 12-month period;

#### (c) The competent authority may extend the recurrent evaluation period of an FSTD specified in point ARA.FSTD.120(b)(1) to a maximum of 36 months, provided that all of the following apply:

(1) during the preceding 36 months, the organisation operating that FSTD complies with the criteria specified in points ARA.GEN.305(c)(1) to (c)(4);

(2) the FSTD has been subject to an initial and at least one recurrent evaluation that have established its continuous compliance with the qualification basis;

(3) the competent authority performs an audit of the elements of the management system of the organisation, as specified in points ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) and (a)(6) of Annex VII, every 12 months;

(4) the organisation has developed procedures to conduct the tasks specified in point ORA.FSTD.225(b) of Annex VII.

(e) Where the data constitutes personal data as defined in point a of Article 2 of Regulation (EC) No 45/2001 (⁸), they shall, each time when entering or updating that data, inform, *ex ante*, the applicant for or holder of the class 1 certificate thereof.

(XIII) remarks: i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements for privileges, including endorsements of language proficiency, and remarks on the automatic validation of the licence; and

*‘European Union’ to be deleted for non-EU Member States or EASA.

EASA Form 143 Issue 3 – page 1/2

## EASA Form 143 Issue 3 – page 2/2

(a) The FSTD qualification certificate shall remain valid subject to the following conditions:

(2) the competent authority being granted access to the organisation as defined in point ORA.GEN.140 to determine continued compliance with the relevant requirements of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the implementing and delegated acts adopted on the basis thereof;

(b)If the competent authority has extended the recurrent evaluation period for an FSTD in accordance with point ARA.FSTD.120(c) of Annex VI (Part-ARA), the organisation shall assign a person or group of persons with adequate experience who shall do all of the following within a period of 60 days before and 30 days after the start of each recurrent 12-month period in accordance with point ARA.FSTD.120(b)(1) of Annex VI:

(1) review the regular reruns of the complete tests in the master QTG;

(2) conduct the relevant functions and subjective tests;

(3) send a report of the results to the competent authority.

(c)A BITD qualification shall remain valid subject to regular evaluation for compliance with the applicable qualification basis by the competent authority in accordance with point ARA.FSTD.120 of Annex VI.

(a) A DTO shall no longer be entitled to provide some or all of the training specified in its declaration on the basis of that declaration, where one of the following occurs:

(1) the DTO has notified the competent authority of the cessation of some or all of the training activities covered by the declaration in accordance with point DTO.GEN.116(b);

(2) the DTO has not provided the training for more than 36 consecutive months.

(b) A DTO shall return approval certificates in accordance with point DTO.GEN.230(c) to the competent authority without delay:

(1) in case of cessation of training activities in accordance with point (a);

(2) in case of revocation in accordance with point ARA.GEN.350(da)(3) of Annex VI (Part-ARA).